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Biotechnology

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Restriction Enzymes are . . . 
a)
proteins
b)
DNA
c)
fats
d)
carbohydrates
2.
Restriction Enzymes . . . 
a)
cut DNA at precise locations
b)
help bacteria to pick up DNA
c)
move DNA through a gel
d)
copy DNA
3.
Some restriction enzymes produce "sticky ends". Sticky ends are . . . 
a)
single-stranded DNA "overhangs" that can bind to complementary DNA
b)
smooth cuts that are sticky due to the "goo" left behind by the enzyme
c)
The two wires (black and red) on a gel box
d)
The surface of the LB agar plates so that bacteria can grow
4.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
5.

An individual’s code determines the number of times the restriction enzymes will cut and the number and size of DNA pieces that will result.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

What is a palindrome?

a)

Sticky end

b)

Blunt end

c)

A sequence that reads the same forwards and backwards

d)

A sequence that is complementary to the other

7.

Which RE's from above make blunt cuts?

a)

Alul

b)

HaeIII

c)

BamHI

d)

HindIII

e)

EcorRI

8.

Which RE's from above make sticky cuts?

a)

Alul

b)

HaeIII

c)

BamHI

d)

HindIII

e)

EcorRI

9.

How many fragments resulted from the cut above?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

10.

"bp" stands for...

a)

Blood Pressure

b)

Base Pair

c)

Body Pressure

d)

Body Pair

11.

How many bp's make up each fragment?

a)

11

b)

14

c)

7

d)

22

e)

28

12.

How many restriction sites appear in the picture?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

13.

Is the restriction site above en example of a palindrome?

a)

Yes

b)

No

14.

1. If the recognition sequence of the restriction enzyme HindIII is AAGCTT, then how many covalent bonds will be broken by the enzyme in the following DNA molecule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

15.

A technique for making millions of copies of a specific region of DNA.

a)

DNA ligase

b)

restriction enzymes

c)

gel electrophoresis

d)

polymerase chain reaction

16.

From where does Taq polymerase come?

a)

Bacteria that live in hydrothermal vents/hot springs.

b)

Cambodia

c)

The rain forest

d)

The CDC

17.
What happens in the Denature step of PCR?
a)
The DNA nucleotides are broken apart.
b)
The base-pairing rules for DNA are reversed.
c)
The double-stranded DNA is separated into two single strands of DNA.
d)
The DNA is returned to its natural setting.
18.
What happens during the Anneal step of PCR?
a)
Primers are created.
b)
The primers attach to the target DNA region.
c)
Primers copy the new DNA strand.
d)
Primers sequence DNA
19.
What is the function of a primer?
a)
To identify the particular region of DNA to be copied by PCR.
b)
To copy DNA.
c)
To create DNA nucleotides.
d)
To maintain the temperature of the PCR reaction.
20.
What is the purpose of the Extension step of PCR?
a)
To create the primers.
b)
To extend the time it takes to produce DNA.
c)
To allow polymerase to create the complementary strands of DNA.
d)
To allow substrates to copy DNA sequences.
21.
Why does PCR require a specific type of polymerase?
a)
Taq polymerase can withstand the range of temperatures in PCR without denaturing.
b)
Taq polymerase is the most inexpensive type of polymerase.
c)
Taq polymerase is the most common type of polymerase.
d)
A specific type of polymerase is unnecessary.
22.
What type of bonds hold the two strands of DNA together?
a)
Hydrogen bonds
b)
Covalent bonds
c)
Dipole-Dipole bonds
d)
Ionic bonds
23.

If the primer sequence is TCG, what section of DNA will it anneal?

a)

AGC

b)

CAT

c)

GAC

d)

ATC

24.

What is the function of DNA Polymerase?

a)

attach primers to target sequence

b)

separate the DNA

c)

attach nucleotides to the target sequence

d)

separate the fragments according to size

25.

How is Fast PCR able to run at such a shorter time frame

a)

Lower the temperature of Denaturation

b)

raises the temperature for annealing so that it and extension can happen almost simultaneously

c)

Shortens the time frame of denatureation

d)

all of the answers are correct

26.

If two double-stranded DNA molecules are used at the beginning of a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process, how many double-stranded DNA molecules can be obtained after two cycles?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

32

27.

Which is the correct order for the PCR process

a)

denaturation, elongation, annealing

b)

annealing, elongation, denaturation

c)

denaturation, annealing, elongation

d)

annealing, denaturation, elongation

28.
What is a genome?
a)
The complete haploid amount of genetic material present in a cell or organism
b)
A garden ornament 
c)
The sum of all human material.
d)
A totally unique set of genetic material not shared with anything else
29.
What is DNA sequencing?
a)
The total of genes carried by an individual or cell
b)
Coding genes in order to identify single nucleotide polymorphisms
c)
Deciphering the functions of various parts of the human genome
d)
The process of identifying the order of the bases in DNA
30.
Which best describes the impact that the Human Genome Project (HGP) has had on society?
a)
It has helped scientists determine that certain genes can cause diseases 
b)
It has led to discrimination against genetically flawed individuals
c)
It has led to the appearance of new diseases
d)
It has cost society billions of dollars without any major benefits
31.
The genomes of two unrelated humans are ___% the same.
a)
90.0
b)
0.1%
c)
78%
d)
99.9%
32.
Identify an application of genetic sequencing below:
a)
Improved and more accurate diagnosis of inherited disorders due to single genes
b)
Providing personalised medication and treatment depending on the genetic combination
c)
Determine evolutionary relationships between species
d)
All of the above
33.

This is the process of reading the entire DNA for an organism, identifying the order of the bases

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Sequencing

34.

small segment of DNA or RNA that binds to a specific DNA sequence and allows DNA polymerase to begin copying the strand

a)

terminator base

b)

plasmid

c)

primer

d)

SNP

35.

This image shows

a)

polymerase chain reaction

b)

genetic engineering

c)

DNA sequencing

d)

gene mapping

36.

This picture shows

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

GWAS

c)

plasmid

d)

CRISPR

37.

This image shows

a)

Synthetic Biology

b)

CRISPR

c)

GWAS

d)

PCR

38.
What adds nucleotides to build the complementary strand of DNA
a)
heat
b)
primers
c)
ladders
d)
DNA polymerase
39.
This causes the DNA to "unzip" during PCR
a)
enzymes
b)
primers
c)
heat
d)
ladders
40.
This technique is used to separate DNA or protein fragments based on their length
a)
Gel electrophoresis
b)
PCR
c)
RLFP
d)
STR
41.
Which of the following proceedures would I do first when testing DNA
a)
Gel electrophoresis
b)
Extract the DNA
c)
PCR
42.
Which of the following proceedures would I do last when testing DNA
a)
Gel electrophoresis
b)
Extract the DNA
c)
PCR
43.
Which is the first step of DNA extraction?
a)
isolate concentrated DNA
b)
burst open cells
c)
collect DNA sample
d)
separate DNA from proteins
44.
Which is the last step in DNA extraction?
a)
isolate concentrated DNA
b)
burst open cells
c)
collect DNA sample
d)
separate DNA from proteins
45.
What causes DNA strands to move during gel electrophoresis?
a)
heat
b)
enzymes
c)
electricity
d)
probes
46.
DNA has what charge?
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
47.

Who matches the crime scene DNA?

a)

suspect #1

b)

suspect #2

c)

suspect #3

d)

none of the suspects match the DNA

48.

Who can be included as source of paternal DNA for this child?

a)

male #1

b)

male #2

c)

neither male

49.

What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?

a)

to make copies of the DNA so there is enough to test

b)

to separate the DNA segments by size

c)

to isolate the DNA from the cell

d)

to pull out repeating regions of DNA

50.

Which fragments would move the farthest in gel electrophoresis?

a)

a 12 base pairs long fragment

b)

a 54 base pairs long fragment

c)

a 108 base pairs long fragment

51.

This image shows a

a)

electropherogram

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

PCR

d)

electrocardiogram

52.
Mr. Jones was killed in a car accident.  Afterwards, a former girlfriend filed a paternity suit claiming that Mr. Jones was the father of her child, and thus she was entitled to the man’s estate.  Which sample of DNA would have to be from Mr. Jones if he were the child’s father? 
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
53.
A boy moves to another country to live with his father.  Years later, the boy decides to move back to live with the woman who raised him.  Immigration officials suspected that the boy was the woman’s nephew, not her son, and therefore not legally entitled to residency.  Based on the DNA fragments, is it possible that she is the boy’s mother?
a)
Yes
b)
No
54.
Bob was found dead in his home.  Crime scene analysis showed signs of a struggle.  Blood was collected from the crime scene, the victim, and three suspects.  Which suspect likely committed the crime? 
a)
Sue
b)
Lisa
c)
John
d)
None of these
55.

Which of the following is FALSE?

a)

Humans share a large percentage of their DNA with other organisms and even plants, like bananas.

b)

Much of the human genome is “junk” DNA, which codes for nothing at all.

c)

All of the letter sequences in DNA code for the production of proteins.

d)

Proteins are produced by combining amino acids according to the DNA sequence.

56.

On an electropherogram, alleles are represented by...

a)

peaks on a graph

b)

letters like AA or Aa

c)

blue dots on a test strip

d)

band on an autorad

57.
Which man is the father of this baby?
a)
Father 1
b)
Father 2
c)
Father 3
d)
None of them
58.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
59.

DNA can be degraded or destroyed by ...

a)

moisture

b)

heat

c)

sunlight

d)

all answers

60.

First stage involved in gene cloning.

a)

Amplification of the target gene

b)

Insertion of the target gene

c)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

d)

Isolation of the target gene

61.

The plasmids carrying the target gene (recombinant plasmids) must be introduced into a host cell through _____.

a)

Cloning

b)

insertion

c)

Transformation

d)

Isolation

62.

Types of plasmids produced after insertion of the target gene into a vector.

a)

Recombinant plasmids

b)

Non-recombinant plasmids

c)

Bacterial plasmids

d)

Isolated plasmids

63.

Which technology below would probably be the most important to a person who had diabetes and had to take insulin every day?

a)

using recombinant DNA to produce human hormones from bacteria

b)

testing parents for genetic disorders before they have children

c)

engineering fruits and vegetables that resist insects and other pests

d)

C. developing ways to identify criminals through DNA fingerprinting

64.

How do scientists cut DNA into smaller strands?

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

scissors

c)

ligase

d)

agarose

65.

In order to insert a human gene into plasmid, both must

a)

code for the same gene product.

b)

be cut by the same restriction enzyme.

c)

originate from the same type of cell.

d)

have identical sequences.

66.

Which enzyme "glues" DNA fragments together during insertion?

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

DNA ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

DNA helicase

67.
Where is DNA located in a bacterial cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
ribosomes
c)
cell membrane
d)
cytoplasm
68.
_________ DNA is created by using the ______ from a bacteria and splicing a section of DNA into it.
a)
recombinant, plasmid
b)
Cloning, ribosome
c)
transcription, translation
d)
cumulus, mitochondria
69.

Which of the following could be used as a vector for a human gene?

a)

Bacterial Plasmid

b)

Bacteria

c)

A mitochondria

d)

mRNA

70.

The site where restriction enzymes cut are a called:

a)

cut sites

b)

restriction sites

c)

recognition sites

d)

cleave sites

71.

Sticky ends are produced when the restriction enzyme cuts in a:

a)

staggered manner

b)

straight through the DNA

72.

How many times do you want a restriction enzyme to cut a human genome in order to cut out the gene of interest to insert into a plasmid?

a)

1 - through the gene

b)

2 - on either side of the gene

c)

3 - through the gene and on either side of the gene

73.

Cell that receive recombinant DNA for cloning purpose

a)

Host cell

b)

plasmid

c)

DNA target

d)

Gene of interest

74.

Which of the following is NOT a tool used in recombinant DNA technology?

a)

Cloning vector

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Target DNA

d)

DNA ligase

75.

What is recombinant DNA

a)

DNA from 2 different organisms combined

b)

DNA from 2 different ribosomes

c)

DNA that is separated out from a vector

76.

The following are the steps taken during the cloning process.

1. Transformation 2. Insertion 3. Isolation 4. Screening 5. Cut

a)

3, 2, 5, 1, 4

b)

3, 2, 5, 4, 1

c)

3, 5, 2, 1, 4

d)

3, 5, 2, 4, 1

77.

Recombinant DNA technology involves a screening process. What is the purpose of screening process?

a)

Isolate recombinant DNA from bacteria

b)

Identify cell with target DNA to be cut by restriction enzyme

c)

Identify bacteria with plasmid to be used as vector

d)

Identify bacteria with recombinant plasmid

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