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AP BIO Unit 6: Gene Expression & Regulation Review

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the function of the ribosomes? 

a)

ATP Synthesis

b)

Digestion

c)

Protein Synthesis

d)

Storage

2.

Transcription & Translation are simultaneously completed in a prokaryote 

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Which describes initiation of translation? 

a)

mRNA binds to tRNA with start codon

b)

mRNA binds to tRNA small subunit

c)

tRNA binds to rRNA with start codon

d)

tRNA binds to Methionine

4.

What is the start codon?

a)

AUG

b)

GUA

c)

TAC

d)

UAC

5.

One codon codes for multiple amino acids....

a)

True 

b)

False

6.

One amino acid is coded by multiple codons...

a)

True

b)

False

7.

What does AGU code for?

a)

Arg

b)

Leu

c)

Phe

d)

Ser

8.

Prokaryotes can synthesize human insulin...

a)

True 

b)

False

9.

Which is not a stop codon?

a)

UAA

b)

UAG

c)

UGA

d)

UGG

10.

What is added when the stop codon is reached

a)

Amino Acid

b)

ATP

c)

Stop Codon

d)

Water

11.

What is translation?

a)

Synthesize DNA under direction of DNA

b)

Synthesize RNA under direction of DNA

c)

Synthesize polypeptides

under direction of DNA

d)

Synthesize polypeptides

under direction of RNA

12.

Where does translation take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Golgi Bodies

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosome

13.

What is the function of the A site on the ribosome?

a)

Adds the new amino acids

b)

Attached the new amino acids to the polypeptide

c)

Location where adenine pairs with uracil

d)

Location where the empty tRNA leaves the ribosome

14.

What is the function of the P site on the ribosome?

a)

Holds the growing polypeptide

b)

Holds phosphorylated polypeptide

c)

Site that binds to the primary structure of a polypeptide

d)

Site where the phosphate group binds

15.

How many nucleotides make up a codon?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

16.

What amino acid has a codon of GAC?

a)

Asn

b)

Asp

c)

Glu

d)

Gly

17.

Free ribosomes and bound ribosomes are the same.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which direction is DNA read for DNA replication?

a)

3' -> 5’

b)

5' -> 3’

c)

C terminus to N terminus

d)

N terminus to C terminus

19.

Which direction is DNA synthesized in DNA replication?

a)

3' -> 5’

b)

5' -> 3’

c)

C terminus to N terminus

d)

N terminus to C terminus

20.

How is DNA replicated?

a)

Conservative

b)

Dispersive

c)

Lagging

d)

Semiconservative

21.

Enzymes responsible for sealing phosphodiester linkage

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Topoisomerase

22.

Enzymes responsible for relieve strand of double helix

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Topoisomerase

23.

Enzymes responsible for breaking H bonds between strands

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Topoisomerase

24.

Enzymes responsible for synthesis of new DNA

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Topoisomerase

25.

DNA polymerase can start replication independently 

a)

True

b)

False

26.

DNA is...

a)

Antiparallel

b)

Parallel

27.

Which enzyme connects the Okazaki fragments (lagging)

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Topoisomerase

28.

What is at the 5’ end of DNA?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Hydroxyl

c)

Nitrogenous Base

d)

Phosphate

29.

What is at the 3’ end of DNA?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Hydroxyl

c)

Nitrogenous Base

d)

Phosphate

30.

Describe the directionality of DNA

a)

Antiparallel

b)

Parallel

c)

Perpendicular

d)

Single Stranded 5’ to 3’

31.

What is the enzyme responsible for breaking hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

32.

What enzyme is responsible for synthesizing RNA start?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

33.

What enzyme is responsible for making the new DNA strand?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

34.

Which direction is DNA read?

a)

3’ to 5’

b)

5’ to 3’

c)

Right to Left

d)

Left to Right

35.

Which direction is DNA synthesized?

a)

3’ to 5’

b)

5’ to 3’

c)

Right to Left

d)

Left to Right

36.

Which strand is formed continuously into the replication fork?

a)

Lagging strand

b)

Leading strand

37.

Which strand is formed discontinuously away from the replication fork?

a)

Lagging strand

b)

Leading strand

38.

Lagging strand is made 3’ to 5’ and leading strand is made 5’ to 3’.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which DNA tech separates fragments by size/charge?

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

PCR

c)

Sequencing

d)

Transformation

40.

Why does the DNA move towards positive end?

a)

Deoxyribose is negatively charged 

b)

Deoxyribose is positively charged

c)

Phosphate is negatively charged 

d)

Phosphate is positively charged

41.

Which fragments travel farther?

a)

Small

b)

Large

42.

What cuts the DNA prior to running gel electrophoresis?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

Restriction enzyme

43.

Minimum restriction sites for ECO on plasmid to get this?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

44.

Which suspect was at crime scene?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

45.

Which DNA tech is responsible for multiple copies of a gene?

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

PCR

c)

Sequencing

d)

Transformation

46.

Which DNA tech involves adding plasmid to prokaryote?

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

PCR

c)

Sequencing

d)

Transformation

47.

Plate has non transformed bacteria & no antibiotics

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

48.

If plasmid also had the gene to synthesize insulin... Which plate has the highest % of insulin producing bacteria?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

49.

DNA is ___ because of the ____.

a)

Negatively charged; hydroxyl group

b)

Negatively charged;  phosphate group

c)

Positively charged;  hydroxyl group

d)

Positively charged;  phosphate group

50.

Gel electrophoresis separates molecules based on

a)

Charge and Polarity

b)

Polarity and Weight

c)

Weight and Size

d)

Size and Charge

51.

In a gel electrophoresis…

a)

More numerous sizes are near the wells

b)

Less numerous sizes are near the wells

c)

Larger molecules are near the wells

d)

Shorter molecules are near the wells

52.

What does a thicker band represent in a gel?

a)

There’s more DNA material present in that band

b)

There’s more glucose available in that band

c)

There’s more mutation in the DNA fragment present

d)

There’s more radioactive material present in that band

53.

What is used to cut the DNA into fragments for the gel?

a)

Ligase from eukaryotes

b)

Ligase from prokaryotes

c)

Restriction enzymes from eukaryotes

d)

Restriction enzymes from prokaryotes

54.

What does PCR stand for?

a)

Place for cellular respiration

b)

Primase cytosine reactants

c)

Polymerase chain reaction

d)

Preferred chemical reaction

55.

Where does the heat resistant polymerase come from?

a)

Fire-resistant plants

b)

Monkeys

c)

Nucleus

d)

Thermophiles

56.

Plasmid makes bacteria resistant to ampicillin and able to synthesize the green glow protein. Which plate will have highest percent of growth?

a)

Plate with nutrients and no ampicillin present

b)

Plate with ampicillin and nutrient present

57.

Plasmid makes bacteria resistant to ampicillin and able to synthesize the green glow protein. Which plate will have higher amount of glowing bacteria?

a)

Plate with nutrients and no ampicillin present

b)

Plate with ampicillin and nutrient present

58.

What is the primary source of genetic information?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

DNA/RNA

c)

Lipids

d)

Proteins

59.

Prokaryotic DNA is...

a)

Double stranded and circular

b)

Double stranded and linear

c)

Single stranded and circular

d)

Single stranded and linear

60.

Eukaryotic DNA is...

a)

Double stranded and circular

b)

Double stranded and linear

c)

Single stranded and circular

d)

Single stranded and linear

61.

All cells have plasmids?

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Plasmids can provide genetic variation to prokaryotes?

a)

True

b)

False

63.

In RNA, adenine pairs with...

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

64.

In DNA, adenine pairs with...

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

65.

In RNA or DNA, cytosine pairs with...

a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

66.

What is a purine?

a)

Carbohydrate with a single ring

b)

Carbohydrate with a double ring

c)

Nitrogenous base with a single ring

d)

Nitrogenous base with a double ring

67.

Which bases are purines?

a)

Adenine and Cytosine

b)

Adenine and Guanine

c)

Cytosine and Guanine

d)

Cytosine and Thymine

68.

What is a pyrimidine?

a)

Carbohydrate with a single ring

b)

Carbohydrate with a double ring

c)

Nitrogenous base with a single ring

d)

Nitrogenous base with a double ring

69.

Which bases are pyrimidines?

a)

Adenine and Cytosine

b)

Adenine and Guanine

c)

Cytosine and Guanine

d)

Cytosine and Thymine

70.

Contrast shape of DNA between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

a)

Eukaryotes have circular and prokaryotes have linear DNA

b)

Prokaryotes have circular and eukaryotes have linear DNA

71.

Contrast amount of DNA between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

a)

Eukaryotes have multiple DNA strands while prokaryotes have one DNA strand

b)

Prokaryotes have multiple DNA strands while eukaryotes have one DNA strand

72.

Which organism has plasmids?

a)

Bacteria (prokaryotes)

b)

Yeast (eukaryotes)

c)

Both bacteria and yeast

73.

DNA is more stable than RNA

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Which RNA functions as site of protein synthesis?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

75.

Which RNA functions to bring amino acids to the ribosome?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

76.

Which RNA is the transcript from DNA template?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

77.

Which RNA has an anticodon that pairs with codon?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

78.

Which RNA has the codons sequence for translation?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

79.

Which enzyme is responsible for transcription?

a)

Ligase

b)

Primase

c)

RNA Polymerase

d)

Transcriptase

80.

In transcription, which direction is DNA read?

a)

3' to 5’

b)

5' to 3’ 

c)

C terminus to N terminus

d)

N terminus to C terminus

81.

In transcription, which direction is RNA made?

a)

3' to 5’

b)

5' to 3’ 

c)

C terminus to N terminus

d)

N terminus to C terminus

82.

Function of 5' Cap...

a)

Add phosphates to the RNA

b)

Provide ATP for transcription

c)

Protect from hydrolytic enzymes

d)

Site of ribosome binding 

83.

Function of Poly A tail...

a)

Add phosphates to the RNA

b)

Provide ATP for transcription

c)

Protect from hydrolytic enzymes 

d)

Site of ribosome binding 

84.

What is the process of transcription?

a)

Synthesizing DNA under the direction of DNA

b)

Synthesizing DNA under the direction of RNA

c)

Synthesizing RNA under the direction of DNA

d)

Synthesizing RNA under the direction of RNA

85.

What type of virus will violate the central dogma?

a)

Bacteriophage

b)

DNA virus

c)

Retrovirus

d)

All of the above

86.

What enzyme is responsible for transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

RNA polymerase

87.

Which strand is read for transcription?

a)

3’ to 5’ coding strand

b)

5’ to 3’ coding strand

c)

3’ to 5’ noncoding strand

d)

5’ to 3’ noncoding strand

88.

Which direction is RNA synthesized?

a)

3’ to 5’

b)

5’ to 3’

89.

What is the function of the

poly A tail?

a)

Binds to the promoter region

b)

Decrease degradation by hydrolytic enzymes

c)

Remove noncoding information

d)

Site of ribosome binding

90.

What is the function of the 5’ cap?

a)

Binds to the promoter region

b)

Decrease degradation by hydrolytic enzymes

c)

Remove noncoding information

d)

Site of ribosome binding

91.

What are the transcription factors?

a)

Molecules that provide ATP to transcription unit

b)

Molecules that synthesize RNA during transcription 

c)

Molecules that bring amino acids to the transcription unit

d)

Molecules that bind to enhance/inhibit transcription. 

92.

All somatic (body) cells have the same genetic information

a)

True

b)

False

93.

What types of cells have operons? 

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Prokaryotes

c)

Neither eukaryotes nor prokaryotes

d)

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

94.

What binds to the promoter?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Operator

c)

Repressor

d)

RNA polymerase

95.

What makes up the TATA box?

a)

Adenine & Cytosine

b)

Cytosine & Guanine

c)

Guanine & Thymine

d)

Thymine & Adenine

96.

Where is the TATA box located?

a)

Near the introns

b)

Near the exons

c)

Near the poly adenylation sequence

d)

Near the promoter

97.

Describe the effect of adding methyl group to DNA.

a)

Decreases condensation which decreases transcription

b)

Decreases condensation which increases transcription

c)

Increases condensation which decreases transcription

d)

Increases condensation which increases transcription

98.

Describe affect of acetylating the histone tails

a)

Decreases condensation which decreases transcription

b)

Decreases condensation which increases transcription

c)

Increases condensation which decreases transcription

d)

Increases condensation which increases transcription

99.

All somatic cells within one organism have the same DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Where does the repressor in an operon bind?

a)

Operator

b)

Promoter

c)

Regulatory sequence

d)

TATA box

101.

 If the repressor is bound to the operator…

a)

RNA polymerase is able to bind, the operon is off

b)

RNA polymerase is able to bind, the operon is on

c)

RNA polymerase is unable to bind, the operon is off

d)

RNA polymerase is unable to bind, the operon is on

102.

 The lac operon is…

a)

Inducible operon so starts off and is activated by lactose

b)

Inducible operon so starts on and is deactivated by lactose

c)

Repressible operon so starts off and is activated by lactose

d)

Repressible operon so starts on and is deactivated by lactose

103.

 The trp operon is a(n)…

a)

Inducible operon – activated by trp

b)

Inducible operon – deactivated by trp

c)

Repressible operon – activated by trp

d)

Repressible operon – deactivated by trp

104.

What is the function of RNA Polymerase?

a)

Synthesize RNA primer

b)

Synthesize RNA transcript

c)

Use RNA template to synthesize DNA

d)

Use RNA template to synthesize protein

105.

What are siRNA?

a)

Small interfering RNA

b)

Short introns of RNA

c)

Serine in RNA

106.

What is the function of the promoter?

a)

Activators bind to promote transcription

b)

Motor proteins binds with actin for transcription

c)

Repressors bind to initiate transcription

d)

Site of RNA polymerase binding for transcription

107.

What is the function of RNA polymerase?

a)

Binds to DNA to synthesize an RNA primer

b)

Binds to DNA to synthesize an RNA transcript

c)

Binds to RNA to base pair with other RNA strand

d)

Binds to RNA to seal phosphodiester linkages

108.

What is siRNA?

a)

Small RNA strand that binds to mRNA to inhibit translation

b)

Small RNA strand that binds to DNA to inhibit transcription

c)

Small RNA strand that removes introns from mRNA

d)

Small RNA strand that removes exons from mRNA

109.

Examine the diagram presented. What type of mutation does it illustrate?

a)

Point mutation - missense

b)

Frameshift Mutation - deletion

c)

Frameshift Mutation - addition

d)

Point mutation - nonsense

110.

What type of genetic mutation is being described here?

a)

Nonsense mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

111.

Where do mutations typically occur?

a)

DNA and RNA

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

mRNA and tRNA

112.

Consider the scenario where we explore the essence of life, the genetic sequence. In this journey, we encounter a specific type of genetic substitution that results in a stop codon. What is the name of this substitution?

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Silent

d)

Deletion

113.

Are mutations always considered negative?

a)

true

b)

false

114.

Consider the structure of DNA, the blueprint of life. What is the term for a mutation where one DNA base is replaced by another different base?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

115.

Consider a situation where one DNA base is replaced by another, but the resulting protein remains unchanged. What is this type of mutation called?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

116.

Consider an original DNA strand: TAC GAC TTG AAT. It undergoes a mutation and changes to: TAC GAC TCG AAT. What type of mutation does this represent?

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation

d)

No mutation occurred

117.

Consider a DNA sequence: TAC GAC TTG AAT. It undergoes a mutation, resulting in a new sequence: TAC GTA CTT GAA T. Identify the type of mutation that has occurred.

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation due to adding an extra base

d)

Frameshift mutation due to deletion of a base

118.

Consider a scenario where an original DNA sequence, TAC GAC TTG AAT, undergoes a transformation and becomes TAC ACT TGA AT. What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation due to addition of base

d)

Frameshift mutation due to deletion of base

119.

In the context of genetics, what term is used to describe mutations that negatively affect the organism by altering the resulting protein?

a)

Mutations in the DNA sequence that change the resulting protein and harm the organism

b)

Mutations in the DNA sequence that change the resulting protein and benefit the organism

c)

Mutations in the DNA sequence that produce the same protein

d)

All mutations are considered detrimental and harm the organism

120.

Which type of mutations are considered 'positive'?

a)

Mutations that alter the DNA sequence, changing the resulting protein and harming the organism

b)

Mutations that alter the DNA sequence, changing the resulting protein and benefiting the organism

c)

Mutations that alter the DNA sequence but produce the same protein

d)

All mutations are considered detrimental and harm the organism

121.

What are considered neutral mutations?

a)

mutations in the DNA sequence that change the resulting protein and harm the organism

b)

mutations in the DNA sequence that change the resulting protein and benefit the organism

c)

mutations in the DNA sequence that produce the same protein

d)

all mutations are considered harmful to the organisms

122.

Match the following

a)

Mutation

1.

a change in the DNA sequence

b)

Point mutation

2.

a type of mutation where one to few bases are substituted with different bases

c)

Frameshift mutation

3.

a type of mutation caused by adding or deleting bases, affecting all the codons after the change

d)

Silent mutation

4.

a type of mutation that doesn't result in a change in the amino acid sequence (same protein)

e)

Chromosomal mutation

5.

a type of mutation where large sections of the chromosome are affected

123.

What do we call it when a segment of a chromosome disappears?

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

124.

Consider a segment of a chromosome that is replicated but remains within the same chromosome.

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

125.

Consider a scenario where a segment of a chromosome detaches, rotates 180 degrees, and then reattaches itself. What is this process called?

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

126.

Consider a scenario where a segment of one chromosome detaches itself and attaches to a different chromosome. What is this process called?

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

127.

Life, uh, finds a way. But can you tell me, what kind of chromosomal mutation is being depicted in this image?

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

128.

Life, uh, finds a way. Observing the provided image, identify the type of chromosomal mutation depicted.

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

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