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Worksheets

The Absurdly Long Review of Most of Unit 9

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of air pressure is always present whether the air is at rest or in motion?

a)

Dynamic pressure

b)

Total pressure

c)

Static pressure

d)

Thermal pressure

2.

How is dynamic pressure calculated?

a)

It is the pressure from air brought to a stop

b)

It is the pressure from still air

c)

It is the difference between total and static pressures

d)

It is the sum of static and total pressures

3.

Which of the following is NOT one of the primary instruments operated by the pitot-static system?

a)

Altimeter

b)

Vertical speed indicator (VSI)

c)

Airspeed indicator

d)

Turn coordinator

4.

What is the function of the altimeter in an aircraft?

a)

To indicate the aircraft's altitude

b)

To measure the aircraft's speed

c)

To show the aircraft's heading

d)

To display the rate of climb or descent

5.

What does the vertical speed indicator (VSI) show?

a)

The rate at which the aircraft is climbing or descending

b)

The aircraft's speed relative to the ground

c)

The aircraft's altitude above sea level

d)

The aircraft's angle of bank

6.

Which instruments use only the static port for their operation?

a)

Altimeter and airspeed indicator

b)

Vertical speed indicator and airspeed indicator

c)

Altimeter and vertical speed indicator

d)

Airspeed indicator and pressure indicator

7.

What types of pressure enter through the small hole in the front of the pitot tube?

a)

Dynamic pressure only

b)

Static pressure only

c)

Total pressure (dynamic + static)

d)

No pressure

8.

Why are some pitot tubes heated?

a)

To measure temperature

b)

To prevent ice from blocking the air inlet or drain hole

c)

To increase air pressure

d)

To drain moisture faster

9.

What must pilots ensure about the pitot tube before flight?

a)

That it is turned off

b)

That it is heated to a certain temperature

c)

That all openings of the pitot tube are clear

d)

That it is disconnected

10.

What type of air pressure does the Vertical Speed Indicator use?

a)

Total pressure

b)

Static pressure

c)

Dynamic pressure

d)

Impact pressure

11.

What type of air pressure does the Altimeter use?

a)

Total pressure

b)

Static pressure

c)

Dynamic pressure

d)

Impact pressure

12.

What happens to the bellows in an altimeter as the static pressure changes?

a)

They remain the same

b)

They only expand

c)

They contract/expand

d)

They only contract

13.

What does the longest pointer on an altimeter indicate?

a)

1,000-foot increments

b)

10,000-foot increments

c)

100-foot increments

d)

10-foot increments

14.

How does an altimeter use static pressure to display altitude?

a)

It measures the temperature difference at various altitudes

b)

It calculates the speed of the aircraft

c)

It compares the static pressure to a pre-set standard atmosphere pressure

d)

It detects changes in aircraft orientation

15.

What is the standard pressure at sea level as per the learning material?

a)

28.92 inHg

b)

29.92 inHg

c)

30.92 inHg

d)

31.92 inHg

16.

The altimeter should be adjusted to correct for:

a)

Standard temperature

b)

Non-standard temperature

c)

Standard pressure

d)

Non-standard pressure

17.

What should you do if there is no barometric pressure setting available for the altimeter?

a)

Leave the altimeter as it is

b)

Adjust until the altimeter displays airport elevation

c)

Turn off the altimeter

d)

Reset the altimeter to zero

18.

If a pilot is flying from Airport A with an altimeter setting of 30.74 inHg to Airport B with an altimeter setting of 29.74 inHg and fails to update the altimeter setting, what will the altimeter incorrectly indicate when the actual altitude is 5,000 feet?

a)

The altimeter will indicate 4,000 feet.

b)

The altimeter will indicate 5,000 feet.

c)

The altimeter will indicate 6,000 feet.

d)

The altimeter will indicate 3,000 feet.

19.

If the pilot fails to update their altimeter setting as they approach the destination airport with an altimeter setting of 30.15 inHg, while the departure airport had a setting of 29.65 inHg, will their altitude be higher or lower than expected?

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

Unchanged

d)

Cannot be determined

20.

What is indicated altitude?

a)

The actual height above sea level

b)

The height above the ground

c)

The height read off the altimeter and corrected for non-standard pressure

d)

The height above the Earth's surface

21.

True altitude refers to which of the following?

a)

The height above the ground

b)

The height above sea level, not corrected for temperature

c)

The actual height above sea level, commonly referred to as mean sea level (MSL)

d)

The height read off the altimeter

22.

What does absolute altitude represent?

a)

The height above the standard datum plane

b)

The height above sea level

c)

The height above the Earth's surface

d)

The height above the ground, or AGL

23.

What is pressure altitude?

a)

The altitude indicated when the altimeter setting is adjusted to the temperature of the standard datum plane

b)

The altitude read from the altimeter when pressure is set to standard (29.92 inHg)

c)

The altitude above sea level

d)

The altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

24.

What does density altitude refer to?

a)

The altitude read from the altimeter when pressure is set to standard (29.92 inHg)

b)

The altitude above the standard datum plane

c)

The pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

d)

The altitude indicated when the altimeter setting is adjusted to the pressure of the standard datum plane

25.

Why is density altitude important for aircraft performance?

a)

It is the altitude at which the aircraft is flying above sea level

b)

It is the altitude read from the altimeter when pressure is set to standard

c)

It is the altitude that the aircraft "feels" and varies with temperature, directly affecting aircraft performance

d)

It is the altitude above the standard datum plane

26.

What are the 5 types of altitude a pilot is concerned about?

a)

Indicated, Absolute, True, Pressure, and Density Altitude

b)

Indicated, Absolute, True, Magnetic, and Density Altitude

c)

Indicated, Absolute, True, Pressure, and Altitude

d)

Indicated, Absolute, True, Pressure, and Height Altitude

27.

What does the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) provide the pilot with?

a)

The airspeed of the aircraft

b)

The rate of climb or descent in feet per minute

c)

The altitude of the aircraft

d)

The heading of the aircraft

28.

What is connected to the bellows and to the instrument case in a VSI?

a)

Pitot tube

b)

Static port

c)

Gyroscope

d)

Altimeter

29.

What is the purpose of the "calibrated leak" in a VSI?

a)

To allow air to move in and out at the same speed as the air in the bellows

b)

To measure the temperature of the air

c)

To restrict airflow so air can't move in and out as fast as the air in the bellows

d)

To calibrate the altimeter

30.

On what principle does the VSI work?

a)

Principle of equal pressure

b)

Principle of differential pressure

c)

Principle of constant volume

d)

Principle of centrifugal force

31.

What is true altitude?

a)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.

b)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

c)

The height above the standard datum plane.

32.

Which flight instrument uses both dynamic and static pressures?

a)

Altimeter

b)

Vertical speed indicator

c)

Airspeed indicator

d)

Attitude indicator

33.

What is static pressure?

a)

Pressure from air brought to a stop

b)

Pressure from moving air

c)

Pressure from still air, always present at rest or in motion

d)

The difference between total and static pressures

34.

How is dynamic pressure calculated?

a)

Pressure from still air

b)

Pressure from air brought to a stop

c)

Pressure from moving air

d)

The difference between total and static pressures

35.

What is total pressure?

a)

The difference between total and static pressures

b)

Pressure from still air

c)

The difference between dynamic and static pressures

d)

The sum of static and dynamic pressures

36.

What happens to dynamic pressure when sitting still on the ground?

a)

It is equal to the static pressure

b)

It is higher than the static pressure

c)

It is lower than the static pressure

d)

There is no dynamic pressure

37.

What does the airspeed indicator measure?

a)

The dynamic pressure from the static port

b)

The static pressure from the pitot tube

c)

The difference between the static pressure from the static port and the total pressure from the pitot tube

d)

The sum of the static and dynamic pressures from the static port

38.

What carries total pressure (dynamic + static) into the airspeed indicator case?

a)

Static air line

b)

Pressure chamber

c)

Pitot tube

d)

Drain hole

39.

What happens to the static pressures inside the airspeed indicator?

a)

They are added to the dynamic pressure

b)

They cancel each other out

c)

They are measured separately

d)

They are vented out through the drain hole

40.

What is the result of the diaphragm moving in an airspeed indicator?

a)

The needle moves counterclockwise

b)

The gears connected to the needle move

c)

The airspeed decreases

d)

The diaphragm contracts

41.

What units does an airspeed indicator use?

a)

Pounds per square inch (psi) and kilometers per hour (km/h)

b)

Kilometers per hour (km/h) and meters per second (m/s)

c)

Knots (kts) or miles per hour (mph)

d)

Feet per minute (fpm) and meters per second (m/s)

42.

How many types of airspeed are there?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

43.

Which of the following is NOT a type of airspeed?

a)

Indicated

b)

Calibrated

c)

True

d)

Pressure

44.

Where is Indicated Airspeed (IAS) read from?

a)

Altimeter

b)

Airspeed indicator dial

c)

Compass

d)

Vertical speed indicator

45.

What does CAS (calibrated airspeed) correct IAS for?

a)

Weather conditions

b)

Installation and instrument errors

c)

Fuel efficiency

d)

Altitude changes

46.

What does true airspeed (TAS) correct for?

a)

Standard temperature and pressure

b)

Nonstandard temperature and barometric pressure

c)

Airspeed indicator errors

d)

Fuel consumption rates

47.

What happens to air density and dynamic air pressure as an aircraft climbs?

a)

Air density increases and dynamic air pressure increases

b)

Air density decreases and dynamic air pressure increases

c)

Air density increases and dynamic air pressure decreases

d)

Air density decreases and dynamic air pressure decreases

48.

How can TAS be calculated?

a)

By subtracting 2% of CAS per 1,000 feet of altitude

b)

By adding 2% of CAS per 1,000 feet of altitude

c)

By multiplying CAS by 2% per 1,000 feet of altitude

d)

By dividing CAS by 2% per 1,000 feet of altitude

49.

What is Groundspeed (GS) in aviation?

a)

The speed of the aircraft relative to the air above the ground

b)

The speed of the aircraft relative to the ground

c)

The speed of the aircraft relative to the water

d)

The speed of the aircraft during takeoff

50.

What is Groundspeed adjusted for?

a)

Engine power

b)

Altitude

c)

Winds

d)

Temperature

51.

How does Groundspeed change with tailwinds and headwinds?

a)

Increases with tailwinds and decreases with headwinds

b)

Decreases with tailwinds and increases with headwinds

c)

Remains constant regardless of wind conditions

d)

Increases with both tailwinds and headwinds

52.

What is the groundspeed of an aerobatic aircraft flying straight up?

a)

Zero

b)

Equal to the wind speed

c)

Equal to the aircraft's engine power

d)

Cannot be determined

53.

What is the groundspeed (GS) of an airplane with a true airspeed (TAS) of 120 knots in a 30-knot headwind?

a)

A) 90 knots

b)

B) 120 knots

c)

C) 150 knots

d)

D) 100 knots

54.

What is the groundspeed (GS) of an airplane with a true airspeed (TAS) of 120 knots in an 18-knot tailwind?

a)

A) 102 knots

b)

B) 138 knots

c)

C) 120 knots

d)

D) 98 knots

55.

Are all V speeds color-coded on the airspeed indicator?

a)

Yes, all V speeds are color-coded.

b)

No, only the most important V speeds are color-coded.

c)

No, V speeds are not color-coded at all.

d)

Yes, but they are only visible at night.

56.

What does the white arc on an airspeed indicator represent?

a)

The maximum operating speed of the aircraft

b)

The safe operating range for flaps

c)

The minimum speed for safe flight without stalling

d)

The speed range for the landing gear to be extended

57.

What does VSO denote on an airspeed indicator?

a)

Maximum speed with flaps extended

b)

Power-on stall speed

c)

Stall speed with flaps fully extended

d)

Minimum controllable airspeed with full power

58.

What does VFE represent on an airspeed indicator?

a)

Power-off stall speed

b)

Maximum speed with flaps extended

c)

Minimum speed for safe flight without stalling

d)

Maximum operating speed of the aircraft

59.

What does the green arc on an aircraft's airspeed indicator represent?

a)

The maximum structural cruising speed

b)

The power-off stall speed at maximum takeoff weight

c)

The normal operating range of the aircraft

d)

The airspeed above which it is unsafe to fly

60.

What does the yellow arc on an aircraft's airspeed indicator represent?

a)

Maximum safe landing speed

b)

Caution range of the aircraft

c)

Optimal cruising speed

d)

Minimum safe airspeed for flight

61.

What is the "top" of the yellow arc (where the red line is) on an airspeed indicator referred to as?

a)

V1

b)

V2

c)

VNO

d)

VNE

62.

What does the term "maneuvering speed" refer to in aviation?

a)

The speed at which the aircraft should be flown during aerobatic maneuvers

b)

The maximum speed for the operation of flight control surfaces

c)

The speed that allows for full and abrupt control movement without overstressing the aircraft

d)

The speed at which the aircraft should be flown during takeoff and landing

63.

At what speed can a pilot fully deflect one control surface without risking structural damage to the aircraft?

a)

Cruising speed

b)

Stall speed

c)

Maneuvering speed

d)

Maximum speed

64.

Why do pilots use maneuvering speed?

a)

To increase fuel efficiency

b)

To perform normal maneuvers without overstressing the aircraft

c)

To reach their destination faster

d)

To communicate with air traffic control

65.

When will pilots slow the airplane to maneuvering speed?

a)

When preparing for landing

b)

When taking off

c)

When encountering turbulence

d)

When flying at high altitudes

66.

How does maneuvering speed vary with the weight of the aircraft?

a)

It increases with higher weight

b)

It remains constant regardless of weight

c)

It decreases with higher weight

d)

It is lower at lower weights

67.

On the ground with no wind, what should the airspeed indicator read?

a)

Zero

b)

The same as during takeoff

c)

A positive value

d)

A negative value

68.

What should the pilot confirm about the airspeed indicator during takeoff roll?

a)

It does not move

b)

It shows decreasing airspeed

c)

It shows increasing airspeed

d)

It reads zero

69.

What will the airspeed indicator show in the case of a partial pitot tube blockage?

a)

It will show the correct airspeed.

b)

It will show zero airspeed regardless of actual airspeed.

c)

It will fluctuate randomly.

d)

It will show double the actual airspeed.

70.

What happens to the airspeed indicator when there is a total blockage of the pitot tube?

a)

The airspeed indicator will stop working completely.

b)

The airspeed indicator will function as a vertical speed indicator.

c)

The airspeed indicator will "turn into an altimeter."

d)

The airspeed indicator will show a constant speed regardless of the aircraft's speed.

71.

How does the indicated airspeed change with altitude changes during a complete pitot tube blockage?

a)

Indicated airspeed will not change with altitude changes.

b)

Indicated airspeed will increase with a climb and decrease with a descent.

c)

Indicated airspeed will decrease with a climb and increase with a descent.

d)

Indicated airspeed will fluctuate randomly.

72.

What happens to the altimeter when there is a static port blockage?

a)

It shows increasing altitude

b)

It freezes

c)

It shows decreasing altitude

d)

It provides accurate readings

73.

What does the vertical speed indicator (VSI) display if the static port is blocked?

a)

Shows climbing

b)

Shows descending

c)

Zero

d)

Fluctuates rapidly

74.

Why are the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator all affected by a static port blockage?

a)

Because they are all electrically powered

b)

Because they all use the same battery

c)

Because they are all connected to the static port

d)

Because they are not calibrated properly

75.

Which instruments are affected by a static port blockage?

a)

Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator

b)

Airspeed indicator, turn coordinator, and heading indicator

c)

Altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn coordinator

d)

Vertical speed indicator, heading indicator, and altimeter

76.

Why might it be hard to recognize an instrument failure when flying an aircraft?

a)

Because the instruments always function correctly

b)

Because there are too many visual references

c)

Because there are no visual references, such as when flying in clouds

d)

Because the aircraft is not designed to indicate failures

77.

What should a pilot suspect if the instrument readings don't match the actions taken, such as no altitude change despite adding power and raising the nose?

a)

A fuel system issue

b)

A pitot-static failure

c)

An engine failure

d)

A hydraulic system failure

78.

What should a pilot do as a reaction if the pitot-static instruments fail?

a)

Fly at known pitch and power settings

b)

Decrease altitude immediately

c)

Land at the nearest airport

d)

Turn off all electronic devices

79.

What is an alternative source for speed and altitude information if the pitot-static instruments are not working?

a)

Radar

b)

GPS backup

c)

Visual landmarks

d)

Compass

80.

What action should be taken to prevent pitot-static system malfunctions due to icing?

a)

Decrease airspeed

b)

Turn on pitot heat

c)

Open alternate static source

d)

Increase altitude

81.

What can cause spatial disorientation for pilots?

a)

Clear skies and bright sunlight.

b)

Fog, clouds, and darkness.

c)

Stable and predictable weather conditions.

d)

Well-lit cities and landscapes.

82.

What does the Attitude Indicator display in an aircraft?

a)

Aircraft speed

b)

Aircraft altitude

c)

Aircraft pitch and roll information

d)

Aircraft rate of turn

83.

What is the purpose of the Heading Indicator in an aircraft?

a)

To display the aircraft's vertical speed

b)

To display the aircraft's direction

c)

To display the aircraft's fuel level

d)

To display the aircraft's engine performance

84.

How does the spin speed of the wheel affect the stability of a gyroscope?

a)

The slower the wheel spins, the more stable the gyroscope.

b)

The spin speed of the wheel has no effect on the gyroscope's stability.

c)

The faster the wheel spins, the more stable the gyroscope.

d)

The stability of the gyroscope is only affected by the weight of the wheel.

85.

What does precession describe in the context of gyroscopes?

a)

The process by which gyroscopes maintain their level of rotation

b)

How gyroscopes respond to deflective force

c)

The method by which gyroscopes are powered

d)

The alignment of gyroscopes with the Earth's magnetic field

86.

Where does deflection occur in relation to the point of force application in precession?

a)

At the point of force application

b)

45 degrees from the point of force application

c)

90 degrees in the direction of rotation from the point of force application

d)

Directly opposite to the point of force application

87.

In aircraft, how are gyros powered?

a)

Battery only

b)

Solar power

c)

In one of three ways: vacuum (pneumatic) that pulls air, positive pressure (pneumatic) pump that pushes air, or electric motor

d)

Wind energy

88.

When do gyros work?

a)

Only when stationary

b)

Only when spinning

c)

Only when powered by solar energy

d)

Only when in a vacuum

89.

Why are electric gyro systems used in aircraft that fly at high altitudes?

a)

Because it's easier to achieve adequate air pressure at high altitudes

b)

Because electric systems work better in cold temperatures

c)

Because it may be difficult to achieve adequate air pressure to power gyros

d)

Because they are lighter than other systems

90.

Which instruments are powered by gyroscopes?

a)

Altimeter, Airspeed Indicator, Vertical Speed Indicator

b)

Attitude Indicator, Turn Coordinator, Heading Indicator

c)

Attitude Indicator, Airspeed Indicator, Turn Coordinator

d)

Turn Coordinator, Heading Indicator, Altimeter

91.

What color on the attitude indicator represents the area above the horizon?

a)

Brown

b)

Green

c)

Blue

d)

Yellow

92.

On the attitude indicator, what do the white lines around the arc indicate?

a)

Degrees of pitch

b)

Airspeed

c)

Degrees of bank

d)

Altitude

93.

What can a pilot estimate with a partial deflection of the needle on a turn and slip indicator?

a)

The altitude of the aircraft

b)

The airspeed of the aircraft

c)

The turn rate of the aircraft

d)

The wind speed

94.

Does the inclinometer in a turn and slip indicator operate independently of the gyro?

a)

Yes, it operates independently

b)

No, it requires the gyro to operate

c)

It operates only with the aircraft's autopilot

d)

It operates based on GPS signals

95.

Which of the following is true about the Turn Coordinator?

a)

It is less popular in modern aircraft compared to older models.

b)

It uses a straight gyro mounting.

c)

It senses only the turn rate of an aircraft.

d)

It senses both turn rate and roll of an aircraft.

96.

What does the inclinometer consist of?

a)

A ball suspended in a straight tube of liquid

b)

A ball suspended in a curved tube of liquid

c)

A gyroscopic sensor in a curved tube of liquid

d)

A pendulum in a curved tube of liquid

97.

What causes the ball in the inclinometer to deflect during turns?

a)

Magnetic force

b)

Gravitational force

c)

Centrifugal force

d)

Electrical force

98.

What are pilots taught to do when the ball in the inclinometer deflects to one side?

a)

'Step on the ball'

b)

'Kick the ball'

c)

Ignore the deflection

d)

Adjust the ailerons instead of the rudder

99.

What does the gyroscopic instrument known as the heading indicator display?

a)

The altitude of the airplane

b)

The speed of the airplane

c)

The direction in which the nose of the airplane is pointed

d)

The temperature outside the airplane

100.

How is the direction measured by the heading indicator?

a)

In degrees relative to true north

b)

In degrees relative to magnetic north

c)

In nautical miles

d)

In kilometers per hour

101.

Why must the heading indicator be set to match the magnetic compass?

a)

Because the heading indicator can detect magnetic north

b)

Because the heading indicator is affected by wind speed

c)

Because the heading indicator does not detect magnetic north

d)

Because the heading indicator operates on solar power

102.

What is the advantage of the heading indicator supplementing the magnetic compass?

a)

It is less prone to errors than the magnetic compass

b)

It can replace the magnetic compass entirely

c)

It provides additional information about the weather

d)

It increases the fuel efficiency of the airplane

103.

What does the heading indicator maintain while the aircraft changes direction?

a)

Its altitude

b)

Its speed

c)

Its position in space

d)

Its temperature

104.

What is mounted to spin vertically inside the heading indicator?

a)

Compass card

b)

Attitude indicator

c)

Gyroscope

d)

Rotor

105.

What remains fixed while the aircraft turns around it?

a)

Gyroscope

b)

Compass card

c)

Attitude indicator

d)

Rotor

106.

What causes the compass card to drift from its original position in the heading indicator?

a)

Rigidity in space

b)

Precession, friction, and Earth's rotation

c)

The aircraft's speed

d)

The aircraft's altitude

107.

What enables pilots to reset the heading indicator to match the magnetic compass?

a)

A knob on the front of the heading indicator

b)

The rigidity in space

c)

The aircraft's control yoke

d)

The rotor's movement

108.

What happens when a gyroscope fails?

a)

The gyroscope spins faster

b)

The gyroscope stops spinning or "tumbles"

c)

The gyroscope changes color

d)

The gyroscope becomes more accurate

109.

What is the most common cause of gyroscope failure?

a)

Extreme turbulence

b)

Electrical systems failure

c)

Power failure

d)

Overheating

110.

What is another cause of gyroscope "tumbling" besides power failure?

a)

Low fuel

b)

Extreme turbulence

c)

Incorrect installation

d)

High altitude

111.

What must be done to a gyroscope after it tumbles to give accurate readings again?

a)

It must be replaced with a new one

b)

It must be recalibrated

c)

It must realign to give accurate readings again

d)

It must be cooled down

112.

What is a recommended practice for determining instrument failure?

a)

Ignoring the warning lights and focusing on flying.

b)

Maintaining a good scan of all instruments.

c)

Checking the instruments only when there is a clear indication of failure.

d)

Relying on co-pilot's assessment of the instruments.

113.

What surrounds the Earth to create lines of magnetic force from magnetic North to South Poles?

a)

An electric field

b)

A gravitational field

c)

A magnetic field

d)

A radiation field

114.

What are the lines of magnetic force called?

a)

Lines of electric flux

b)

Lines of magnetic flux

c)

Lines of gravitational pull

d)

Lines of radiation

115.

How do magnets tend to behave in relation to the Earth's magnetic flux lines?

a)

They repel away from the flux lines.

b)

They rotate perpendicular to the flux lines.

c)

They tend to line up with the flux lines.

d)

They have no interaction with the flux lines.

116.

Are the magnetic poles and geographical poles of the Earth the same?

a)

Yes, they are the same.

b)

No, they are different.

c)

Yes, but only during equinoxes.

d)

No, they coincide once every millennium.

117.

Can the location of magnetic poles change over time?

a)

No, they are fixed.

b)

Yes, but only during solar eclipses.

c)

Yes, they can change over time.

d)

No, they change only during geomagnetic reversals.

118.

Is a compass required in all aircraft?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only in military aircraft

d)

Only in commercial aircraft

119.

What does a magnetic compass point to?

a)

True north

b)

Magnetic south

c)

Magnetic north

d)

Geographic north

120.

Which of the following is NOT a type of compass error listed on the page?

a)

Variation

b)

Deviation

c)

Northerly turning error

d)

Magnetic dip

121.

Which compass error occurs due to the aircraft's magnetic field?

a)

Variation

b)

Deviation

c)

Northerly turning error

d)

Acceleration error

122.

What type of error is caused by acceleration or deceleration in an east or west heading?

a)

Variation

b)

Deviation

c)

Northerly turning error

d)

Acceleration error

123.

What do isogonic lines on Sectional Charts represent?

a)

Lines of equal latitude

b)

Lines of equal longitude

c)

Lines of equal magnetic variation

d)

Lines of equal altitude

124.

What is the mnemonic to remember how to adjust for magnetic variation?

a)

North is best, South is least

b)

East is least, and West is best

c)

East is best, and West is least

d)

North is least, South is best

125.

What causes compass deviation in an aircraft?

a)

Changes in the Earth's magnetic field

b)

Local magnetic fields from airplane radios and metal in engine, propeller, airframe

c)

Low battery power in the aircraft's instruments

d)

Interference from nearby aircraft

126.

How is compass deviation measured and compensated for in an aircraft?

a)

Using a GPS system

b)

With a compass correction card

c)

By adjusting the altimeter settings

d)

Through automatic pilot adjustments

127.

Is compass deviation affected by the aircraft heading?

a)

Yes, it changes with every direction the aircraft turns

b)

No, it remains constant regardless of the aircraft heading

c)

Yes, but only during takeoff and landing

d)

No, it only changes with speed

128.

When correcting for compass errors, if the variation is westerly, what should a pilot do?

a)

Subtract variation.

b)

Add variation.

c)

Determine desired direction to fly.

d)

Subtract deviation from compass card.

129.

Where is the greatest dip of flux lines observed?

a)

At the equator

b)

Midway between the poles and the equator

c)

Near the poles

d)

At random locations on Earth

130.

What kind of plane can a compass rotate in?

a)

Vertical plane

b)

Inclined plane

c)

Horizontal plane

d)

Any plane

131.

What errors are created due to the compass's ability to only rotate in a horizontal plane?

a)

Turning error and Acceleration error

b)

Magnetic declination and Deviation error

c)

Inclination error and Oscillation error

d)

Variation error and Dip error

132.

What happens to the compass when accelerating on an East or West heading?

a)

It deflects toward the east

b)

It deflects toward the south

c)

It deflects toward the north

d)

It shows no deflection

133.

What happens to the compass when decelerating on an East or West heading?

a)

It deflects toward the east

b)

It deflects toward the north

c)

It deflects toward the west

d)

It deflects toward the south

134.

What does the acronym ANDS stand for?

a)

Accelerate North, Decelerate South

b)

Accelerate North, Decelerate Southeast

c)

Accelerate Northeast, Decelerate South

d)

Accelerate Northwest, Decelerate South

135.

What must a pilot do when turning south to reach the desired heading?

a)

Stop the turn before the desired heading is reached

b)

Continue turning until the compass stabilizes

c)

Stop the turn after passing the desired heading

d)

Turn in the opposite direction momentarily

136.

What does UNOS stand for in the context of compass turns?

a)

Unidentified North, Overshoot South

b)

Underneath North, Over South

c)

Undershoot North, Overshoot South

d)

Uniform North, Oscillate South

137.

What can cause erratic motion of the compass card?

a)

Stable flight conditions

b)

Electrical interference

c)

Turbulence and rough maneuvering

d)

High altitude

138.

What is the cause of deviation in a magnetic compass?

a)

Presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.

b)

Difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.

c)

Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

d)

Electrical interference from the aircraft's electronic devices.