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First Semester Cumulative Quiz Practice #2

Total questions: 136

Worksheet time: 21hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

One characteristic feature of the tundra is that only the surface thaws in the summer and refreezes in the winter, leaving a permanently frozen subsoil. This characteristic is known as

a)

Hoarfrost

b)

Glaciation

c)

Permafrost

d)

Crystallization

2.

The kangaroo rat is able to get all of the water it needs through its food and therefore, never needs to drink liquid. This animal has adapted to survive in which biome?

a)

Forest

b)

Tundra

c)

Desert

d)

Grassland

3.
Which biome is characterized by low temperatures and low amounts of rainfall?
a)
Tundra
b)
Desert
c)
Temperate Deciduous Forest
d)
Tropical Rainforest
4.
The most important abiotic factors when studying biomes are...
a)
Food and Water
b)
Rain and Sunlight
c)
Temperature and Oxygen
d)
Precipitation and Temperature 
5.

Which biome covers most of the land mass near Earth's equator?

a)

Desert

b)

Grassland

c)

Tropical rainforest

d)

Temperate forest

6.

The rain forest soil is

a)

poor and rocky

b)

frozen soil

c)

thick and nutrient rich

d)

thin and nutrient poor

7.
Which biome, because of its climate, has the largest number of species of plants and animals?
a)
Tundra
b)
Rainforest
c)
Desert
d)
Coniferous forest
8.

Plants with spines and waxy leaves are well suited for life in which environment?

a)

Desert

b)

Temperate forest

c)

Grassland

d)

Tropical Rainfroest

9.
True or false: The concentration of gases in the atmosphere, such as ozone and water vapor, can vary over time and from one place to another.
a)
True
b)
False
10.
The atmospheric layer that is closest to the Earth is the __________.
a)
troposphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
mesosphere
d)
thermosphere
11.
The ozone layer is located in which atmospheric layer?
a)
stratosphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
exosphere
12.

A large region characterized by a specific type of climate and certain type of plants.

a)

boreal forest (taiga)

b)

climate

c)

biome

d)

canopy

13.

__________ primary productivity is the total amount of energy that producers convert to chemical energy in organic molecules per unit of time.

a)

Net

b)

Total

c)

Gross

d)

Secondary

14.

__________ primary productivity = the organic materials that remain after photosynthetic organisms in the ecosystem have used some of these compounds for their cellular energy needs (cellular respiration).

a)

Gross

b)

Total

c)

Net

d)

Secondary

15.

The total quantity of all living matter in an area is called:

a)

Troposphere

b)

Net Primary Productivity

c)

Biomass

d)

Ecosystem

16.

Ecological efficiency from one trophic level to the next is generally:

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

75%

d)

90%

17.
How many species are estimated to exist on Earth?
a)
2 million
b)
8 million
c)
10 million
d)
100 million
18.
Two savanna communities both contain 15 plant species. In community A, each of the 15 species is represented by 20 individuals. In community B, 10 of the species are each represented by 12 individuals; the remaining 5 species are each represented by 3 individuals. Which statement best describes the two communities?
a)
Community A has the same biodiversity as community B
b)
Both communities have the same species evenness
c)
Community B has a higher species richness
d)
Community A has higher species evenness
19.
Phylogeny is
a)
the number of evolutionarily related species in an ecosystem
b)
the study of morphological traits
c)
the branching patterns of evolutionary relationships
d)
the process of evolution that creates new species
20.
Which evolutionary effect results in reduced genetic variation in a community
a)
natural selection
b)
the founder effect
c)
artificial selection 
d)
gene flow
21.
a phenotype is
a)
an adaptation that creates a new species
b)
the genes of a particular individual
c)
a result of genetic recombination
d)
the set of traits expressed in an individual
22.
Which of the following processes create genetic diversity in a population
  I. mutation
 II. Allele division
III. recombination
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
I and III only
d)
II and III only
23.
Evolved resistance to a pesticide is an example of
a)
a nonadaptive process
b)
a bottleneck effect
c)
natural selection
d)
artificial selection
24.
Which is the best definition of an adaptation?
a)
a mutation that creates a new species
b)
a trait that improves an individual's fitness
c)
a trait that is passed on to the next generation
d)
a trait that has no effect on an individual's fitness
25.
The change in the genetic composition of a population over time due to random mating is called
a)
the bottleneck effect
b)
gene flow
c)
genetic drift
d)
mutation
26.
In a particular zoo the population of spider monkeys has a higher proportion of individuals with light golden brown fur than spider monkeys in the wild. if the monkeys were recently captured from the wild and if fur color is largely determined by genetics, what evolutionary process is at work?
a)
the founder effect
b)
the bottleneck effect
c)
microevolution
d)
artificial selection
27.
Which of the following contribute to allopatric speciation?
  I. Genetic convergence over time
 II. geographic isolation
III. reproductive isolation
a)
I and II only
b)
I and III only
c)
II only
d)
II and III only
28.
which of the following is often a cause of sympatric speciation?
a)
polyploidy
b)
geographic separation
c)
macroevolution
d)
artificial selection
29.
which of the following would cause the most rapid evolution?
a)
environmental change
b)
artificial selection
c)
geographic isolation
d)
recombination
30.
the Bt-cotton is an example of
a)
evolution through geographic isolation
b)
evolution through polyploidy
c)
evolution through genetic modification
d)
evolution through natural selection
31.
the abiotic conditions under which a species can survive and reproduce is called its 
a)
range of tolerance
b)
realized niche
c)
fundamental niche
d)
range of persistance
32.
Which would be expected for a niche specialist?
a)
a large distribution
b)
many food sources
c)
a narrow fundamental niche
d)
n differnece between its realized and fundamental niche
33.
Which of the following will NOT effect the distribution of a species?
a)
a localized disease
b)
climate change
c)
a change in the distribution of the species' food
d)
a new food source outside its range of tolerance
34.
Which conditions do NOT define the fundamental niche of a species?
a)
humidity
b)
predators
c)
temperature
d)
salinity
35.
Which allows more rapid evolution?
a)
long generation times
b)
rapid environmental change
c)
large population sizes
d)
high genetic variation
36.
Autotrophs
a)
use photosynthesis
b)
are able to survive without oxygen
c)
cannot assimilate carbon
d)
are at the top of the food chain
37.
a zebra is an example of
a)
a secondary consumer
b)
a producer
c)
a primary consumer
d)
a scavenger
38.
The gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is
a)
the total amount of biomass
b)
the total energy captured by photosynthesis
c)
the energy captured after accounting for respiration
d)
the energy available to primary cosumers
39.
Which of the following is fixed from the atmosphere by bacteria?
a)
Magnesium
b)
phosphorus
c)
sulfur
d)
nitrogen
40.
Human construction of buildings and pavement affect the hydrologic cycle by
I.    increasing runoff
II.   increasing evaporation
III.  increasing percolation
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
I and III only
d)
II and III only
41.
the largest carbon pool is found in
a)
oceans
b)
atmosphere
c)
sedimentary rock
d)
fossil fuels
42.
Phosphorus
a)
is a limiting nutrient in many aquatic systems
b)
has an important gaseous phase
c)
is easily lost in soils due to leaching
d)
is often produced by volcanic eruptions
43.
Acid rain is associated with which geochemical  cycle?
a)
potassium
b)
carbon
c)
phosphorus
d)
sulfur
44.
Haitian farmers are buying mango tree saplings for $10 each, and the full-grown trees produce $75 of fruit each year. If a farmer wishes to earn $1,500 per year , how much will the farmer have to spend on saplings?
a)
$100
b)
$150
c)
$200
d)
$750
45.
Which is NOT true about disturbances?
a)
they are caused by natural events such as hurricanes
b)
they occur only on short time scales
c)
they can cause complete destruction of an ecosystem
d)
many result in no change in ecosystem productivity
46.
An ecosystem that rapidly returns to its original state after a disturbance is
a)
resistant
b)
vigorous
c)
resilient
d)
stable
47.
Which is a measure of how much a disturbance can affect the flow of energy and matter in an ecosystem?
a)
Diversity
b)
Intensity
c)
Resistance
d)
Resilience
48.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of most ecosystems?
a)
biotic components
b)
abiotic components
c)
recycling of matter
d)
distinct boundaries
49.
At what trophic level are eagle that consume fish that eat algae?
a)
decomposers
b)
primary consumers
c)
secondary consumers
d)
tertiary consumers
50.
At which trophic level do organisms use a process that produces oxygen as a waste product?
a)
Producers
b)
decomposers
c)
primary consumers
d)
secondary consumers
51.
Roughly what percentage of incoming solar energy is converted into chemical energy by producers?
a)
10 percent
b)
between 5 and 20 percent
c)
1 percent
d)
99 percent
52.
Which list is in the correct order of atmospheric layers starting from Earth's surface?
a)
troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, exosphere
b)
Thermosphere, stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, exosphere
c)
Exosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere
d)
mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, exosphere, troposphere
53.
Which of the following contributes to the unequal warming of earth?
I. variation in the angle of sunlight that reaches Earth
II. variation in the amount of surface area over which the Sun's rays are distributed
III. variation in the amount of sunlight reflected from clouds
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
II and III only
d)
III only
54.
Which of the following has the highest albedo?
a)
soil
b)
snow
c)
water
d)
pavement
55.
Temperature changes in adiabatic heating occurs due to 
a)
water vapor condensing
b)
a pressure increase
c)
absorption of sunlight
d)
a pressure decrease
56.
Latent heat release
a)
increases air temperature
b)
decreases air temperture
c)
increases the amount of water vapor
d)
increases air pressure
57.
Which of the following does NOT contribute to atmospheric convection currents?
a)
Hadley cells
b)
westerlies
c)
gyres
d)
polar cells
58.
The maximum amount of water vapor air can hold at a given temperature is called the
a)
saturation point
b)
latent heat capacity
c)
absolute humidity
d)
dew point
59.
The Coriolis effect is responsible for
a)
the convergence of two ascending Hadley cells
b)
the location of atmospheric currents caused by the unequal heating of Earth
c)
the cooling effect of air as it rises and expands
d)
the deflection of atmospheric currents
60.
Which of the following does NOT play a role in causing a rain shadow?
a)
cold polar air
b)
prevailing trade winds
c)
mountain ranges
d)
adiabatic cooling
61.
Which is the correct order of the convection cells starting from the equator?
a)
polar, ferrell, hadley
b)
ferrell, hadley, polar
c)
polar, hadley, ferrell
d)
hadley, ferrell, polar
62.
Which of the following does NOT drive ocean currents?
a)
Precipitation
b)
salinity
c)
prevailing winds
d)
gravity
63.
High productivity and nutrient availability in the ocean occurs in the areas with
a)
gyres
b)
upwelling
c)
warm waters
d)
prevailing wersterlies
64.
climate change could potentially disrupt which one of the following phenomena?
a)
El Nino - southern oscillation (ENSO)
b)
thermohaline circulation
c)
rotation of southern hemisphere gyres
d)
upwelling off the coasts of Australia and New Zealand
65.
Gyres do all of the following EXCEPT
a)
redistribute heat in the ocean
b)
result from the Coriolis effect
c)
rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere
d)
redistribute nutrients from the deep ocean
66.
In addition to temperature a terrestrial biome is defined by
I. annual precipitation
II. distinctive animal species
III. distinctive plant species
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
I and III only
d)
I, II, and III
67.
Which of the following biomes has the highest soil nutrient levels?
a)
Temperate seasonal forest
b)
tropical rainforest
c)
temperate rainforest
d)
boreal forest
68.
Most of the photosynthesis in lakes and ponds occurs in the
a)
benthic zone
b)
littoral zone
c)
limnetic zone
d)
profundal zone
69.
Which biome contains the aphotic zone?
a)
open ocean
b)
freshwater wetlands
c)
coral reefs
d)
streams and rivers
70.
aquatic biomes are categorized by which of the following
I. dominant plant growth forms
II. depth
III. salinity
a)
I and II only
b)
I and III only
c)
II and III only
d)
III only
71.

Tectonic Plates move in certain directions. Transform Plates ____ and form _____

a)

Move away; valleys

b)

Move towards; subduction

c)

Move together; mountains

d)

Slide past each other; earthquakes

72.

Convergent has three different ways it could move. One of those is subduction, this is when an ____ plate and a ____ plate come together and can form a volcano.

a)

Continental; continental

b)

oceanic; continental

c)

oceanic; oceanic

73.

Earth's layers are organized by which of these characteristics?

a)

Composition

b)

Density

c)

Temperature

d)

Thickness

74.

Oceanic Crust is made of Basalt

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Asthenosphere has a ____ like viscosity that lets the plates flow.

a)

Water

b)

Toothpaste

c)

Low

76.

What event in the mantle allows the plates to move?

a)

Subduction

b)

Convection Currents

c)

Density

d)

Faults

77.

Transform plate boundaries typically have what feature found at them ?

a)

Rifts

b)

Faults

c)

Volcanoes

d)

Hanging walls

78.

How does an igneous rock transform into a metamorphic rock?

a)

Melting & Cooling

b)

Heat & Pressure

c)

Weathering & erosion

d)

None of these

79.
The two main agents of erosion are...
a)
wind and flowing water
b)
gravity and frost wedging
c)
oxygen and water
d)
carbon dioxiede and wind
80.
Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?
a)
clay-sand-silt
b)
sand-clay-silt
c)
silt-clay-sand
d)
clay-silt-sand
81.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
82.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)
A, B, E,C, O
b)
O, A, B, C, E
c)
O, E, A, B, C
d)
O, A, E, B, C
83.
The deep, underlying non-soil materials
a)
B horizon
b)
E horizon
c)
O horizon
d)
Bedrock
84.
The layer where minerals that were leached out of layers above accumulate
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
85.
A mixture of soil, loam, and detritus; the topsoil
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
86.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

87.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
88.

The layer(s) of soil in which most of the humus and soil organisms are contained:

1- leaf litter, horizon O

2- topsoil, horizon A

3- subsoil, horizons B and C

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

2 and 3 only

e)

1, 2, and 3

89.
_______ is the type of soil used most often with plants and on farms. It is a mixture of clay, sand, and silt.
a)
loam
b)
humus
c)
soil
d)
dirt
90.
Ellen grabs a topsoil sample in her hand. She rolls it into a ball. The soil feels gritty and the ball falls apart. What part of the topsoil most likely made the topsoil feel gritty?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
silt
d)
humus
91.
When plants, animals, and other organisms die, they break down and become part of the soil. What is this part of the soil called?
a)
sand
b)
silt
c)
clay
d)
humus
92.
Water gets into the cracks of rock and freezes, causing the rock to break.  What is this an example of?
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
93.
Soil is made of
a)
weathered rocks and minerals
b)
dead plants and animals
c)
air and water
d)
all of the above
94.
Soil formation begins with the weathering of_______.
a)
Humas
b)
Subsoil
c)
Litter
d)
Rock
95.

Porosity is a measure of void space in a soil sample. Larger soil particles have larger void spaces. Smaller soil particles have smaller pore spaces, but a greater number of them, which leads to higher surface tension and higher % porosity. With this is mind, which statement is true:

a)

Sandy soil has a higher porosity than clay soil

b)

Sandy soil has a higher porosity than silty soil

c)

Clay soil has a higher porosity than sandy soil

d)

Porosity is directly proportional to soil particle size

96.

Which of the following is an abiotic component?

a)

an eagle

b)

a rock

c)

a tree

d)

a human

e)

a virus

97.

Which of the following is NOT true about ecosystems?

a)

they include biotic components

b)

they can be a wide range of sizes

c)

they include no human components

d)

many interactions among species occur in them

e)

they include abiotic components

98.

How many hectares of land is a 500 acre park?

(1 acre = 0.405 ha)

a)

200 ha

b)

250 ha

c)

500 ha

d)

750 ha

e)

1250 ha

99.

A person's ecological footprint is

a)

the land that a person lives on

b)

the amount of carbon dioxide a person contributes to climate change

c)

the land required to produce a person's food

d)

the land needed to support all of a person's activities

e)

the amount o fossil fuel a person uses

100.

A control group is

a)

a group with the same conditions as the experimental group

b)

a group with a randomly assigned population

c)

a group with conditions found in nature

d)

a group with the same conditions as the experimental group except for the study variable

e)

a group that is kept at the same conditions throughout the experiment

101.

The region of the world with the highest incidence of HIV infections is

a)

North America

b)

Eastern Europe/ Central Asia

c)

Western/Central Europe

d)

Sub-Saharan Africa

e)

Middle East/North Africa

102.

The replacement-level fertility rate is ____ for developed countries and ____ for developing countries.

a)

1.6; 1.9

b)

2.5; 2.0

c)

2.0; 2.5

d)

2.1; 2.5

e)

1.8; 2.1

103.

Which factor below is least likely to affect birth and fertility rates today?

a)

number of people 60 or older

b)

cost of raising and educating children

c)

religious beliefs

d)

educational and employment opportunities for women

e)

average age at marriage

104.

A metropolitan region of 100,000 people has 2000 births, 500 deaths, 200 emigrants, and 100 immigrants over a 1-year period. Its population growth rate is

a)

1.2 percent.

b)

1.4 percent

c)

1.6 percent.

d)

1.8 percent.

e)

2.0 percent.

105.

Which of the following pairs of indicators best reflects the availability of health care in a country?

a)

Crude death rate and growth rate

b)

Crude death rate and crude birth rate

c)

Growth rate and life expectancy

d)

Infant mortality rate and life expectancy

e)

Infant mortality rate and crude death rate

106.

Which of the following characteristics are typical of developed countries?

I High technology use

II Low GDP

III Small-scale sustainable agriculture

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

107.

Which of the following statements about total fertility rate is correct

a)

TFR is equal to the crude birth rate minus the crude death rate.

b)

TFR is the average number of children each woman must have to replace the current population.

c)

TFR is generally higher in developed countries than in developing countries

d)

TFR is equal to the growth rate of a country

e)

TFR is the average number of children each woman will give birth to during her childbearing years.

108.

Even if a country reduces its birth rate and maintains replacement-level fertility, its population will still continue to grow for several decades because of

a)

lower death rates

b)

increased income.

c)

population momentum

d)

better health care.

e)

increased life expectancy.

109.

At current growth rates, which country will probably be the most populous in the world after 2050?

a)

China

b)

Brazil

c)

India

d)

Indonesia

e)

United States

110.

Which of the following countries best exemplifies phase 4 of a demographic transition?

a)

Argentina

b)

China

c)

India

d)

Mexico

e)

Japan

111.

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10% would double in

a)

7 years

b)

10 years

c)

17 years

d)

15 years

e)

not enough information to tell

112.

Populations whose age structure diagrams are narrower at the bottom than at the top have

a)

high death rates

b)

the same proportion of individuals in each age group

c)

a declining population

d)

a high growth rate

e)

all of the above

113.

A particular country has a Total Fertility Rate equal to replacement level fertility and emigration equal to immigration. Which of the following must be true?

a)

The population will begin shrinking within ten years, based on the Rule of 70.

b)

The population must be stable.

c)

The population will begin growing as soon as TFR = 2.1.

d)

Infant mortality must also be less than Crude Death Rate.

e)

There is not enough information to tell.

114.

Population size can be estimated using the formula

a)

CBR + Immigration + CDR + Emigration

b)

CBR + Immigration – CDR – Emigration

c)

CBR + Immigration + CDR – Emigration

d)

CBR – Immigration – CDR – Emigration

e)

CBR – Immigration + CDR – Emigration

115.
doubling time can be approximated mathematically by 
a)
70/growth rate
b)
10/growth rate
c)
2/growth rate
d)
20/CBR-CDR
116.
Which of the following have contributed to increased family planning worldwide?
  I. women's education
 II. increased income
III. advertising campaigns
a)
I, II, and III
b)
I and II only
c)
I and III only
d)
II and III only
117.
Which of the following is NOT a factor in gross domestic product?
a)
consumer spending
b)
cost of environmental damage
c)
government spending
d)
imports and exports
118.
The IPAT equation was developed to estimate
a)
the affluence of a country's population
b)
the rate of demographic transition
c)
the impact of human lifestyles on Earth
d)
the gross domestic product o a country
119.
approximately what percentage of the population of developed countries lives in urban areas
a)
20%
b)
44%
c)
50%
d)
75%
120.
Which is the correct order of ecological levels from basic to complex?
a)
Individual, population, ecosystem, biosphere, community
b)
individual, community, ecosystem, population, biosphere
c)
Individual,population, community, ecosystem, biosphere
d)
Ecosystem, biosphere,community, population, individual
121.
Population distribution is
a)
often clumped in response to predation
b)
used by wildlife managers when regulating hunting and fishing
c)
measured relative to other species
d)
uniform in most tree species
122.
Which is true about a population's carrying capacity?
a)
it is denoted as "C"
b)
it is usually used when studying ecosystems
c)
it depends on a limiting resource
d)
it is controlled by density-independent factors
123.
Which population is typically regulated by density-independent factors?
a)
algae
b)
predators
c)
Paramecium bacteria
d)
birds
124.
Which does NOT have a significant effect on the number of offspring produced by a population?
a)
population distribution
b)
sex ratio
c)
age structure
d)
population size
125.

The intrinsic growth rate of a population

a)

occurs at the population's carrying capacity

b)

depends on the limiting resources of the population

c)

increases as the population size increases

d)

only occurs under ideal conditions

126.
population growth using the exponential growth model
a)
increases at a constant rate
b)
applies to most populations only after a long time
c)
has an increasing intrinsic growth rate
d)
represents ideal conditions that rarely occur in natural populations
127.
An r-selected species characteristically has
a)
a type I survivorship curve
b)
few offspring
c)
a population near carrying capacity
d)
a fast population growth rate
128.
Which is true of a population overshoot?
a)
it occurs when reproduction quickly responds to changes in food supply
b)
it is followed by a die-off
c)
it is most likely to be experienced by K-selected species 
d)
it rarely occurs in species with type III survivorship curves
129.
Inbreeding depression
a)
rarely occurs in highly connected metapopulations
b)
results from the creation of corridors between populations
c)
results in increased rates of reproduction
d)
occurs in species that are experiencing overshoot
130.
Resource partitioning 
a)
occurs in mutualism
b)
can occur through morphological differences between competing species
c)
can cause the extinction of a competing species
d)
does not occur among competing predators
131.
The interaction between bees and sunflowers is an example of
a)
predation
b)
herbivory
c)
 parasitism
d)
mutualism
132.
Pathogens are a type of
a)
mutualist
b)
parasite
c)
predator
d)
commensalist
133.
Which is true of primary succession?
a)
it starts with bare soil
b)
as it progresses the number of species initially decreases
c)
it occurs after forest fires
d)
it begins with colonization by algae, lichens, and mosses
134.
Which factor does NOT affecct species richness?
a)
latitude
b)
survivorship curves
c)
time
d)
habitat size
135.
Which is NOT a factor in the theory of island biogeography?
a)
Islands farther from the continent have more species due to increased speciation
b)
dispersing species are more likely to find a large habitat
c)
islands can also be isolated areas within a continent
d)
larger habitats contain a larger range of environmental conditions
136.
Which tree species are pioneer species in North American forests?
a)
Beech
b)
Fir
c)
Aspen
d)
Oak

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