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END OF YEAR

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 5hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

True or False: The continental plates move so quickly that we can feel them.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Most geologists think that the movement of Earth's tectonic plates is caused by

a)

the rotation of the Earth.

b)

the Earth's magnetic field.

c)

subduction.

d)

convection currents.

3.

When plates collide we get ________.

a)

crumbles

b)

volcanos

c)

trenches

d)

mountain ranges

4.
Associated with transform boundaries.
a)
Volcanoes
b)
mountains
c)
trenches
d)
earthquakes
5.
A location where two tectonic plates collide is known as a _________ boundary.
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Transform
d)
Spreading
6.

Which layer of Earth flows slowly and causes the crust to move?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Inner Core

d)

Outer core

7.

What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth’s layers?

a)

crust, outer core, inner core, mantle

b)

mantle, outer core, inner core, crust

c)

crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

d)

outer core, inner core, crust, mantle

8.

Subduction means.....

a)

one plate goes under another plate

b)

two plates slide past each other

c)

two plate collide and form folded mountains

9.

Sea-floor spreading explains how.....

a)

new crust is created at a divergent boundary

b)

volcanoes are formed on continents

c)

deep sea trenches are formed

10.

An opening on the Earth's crust through which hot molten rock flows out from deep inside the Earth.

a)

Volcano

b)

Fault line

c)

Fold

d)

Crater

11.
What type of plate boundary is this?
a)
Plate
b)
Divergent
c)
Convergent
d)
Transform
12.
A divergent boundary occurs when plates ....
a)
Pull apart
b)
Come together
c)
Slide past each other
d)
subducting
13.
Which of the following is NOT evidence to support the theory of plate tectonics?
a)
Fossils
b)
Mountains
c)
Glaciers
d)
Sand Erosion
14.
What geologic feature/event you be most likely to find at a transform boundary?
a)
Earthquakes
b)
Volcanoes
c)
Mountains
d)
Rift Valleys
15.
What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a divergent boundary between two pieces of oceanic crust?
a)
Rift Valley
b)
Mid-Ocean Ridge
c)
Island Arc
d)
Flat land
16.
How are scientist able to estimate the thickness of each layer of the Earth?By studying __________
a)
 radio waves
b)
sonar waves
c)
laser waves
d)
seismic waves
17.
This is the plastic layer of the mantle on which pieces of the lithosphere move.
a)
Lithosphere
b)
Asthenosphere
c)
Mesosphere
d)
Crust
18.
This layer is divided into pieces called tectonic plates.
a)
Mesosphere
b)
Asthenosphere
c)
Mantle
d)
Lithosphere
19.
Which piece of evidence did Wegener use to prove continental drift?
a)
The shape of the continents
b)
Similar fossils found on separate continents
c)
Tree fossils found in odd places
d)
All of the above
20.

Why did no one believe Wegener's thoery that the continents were once together?

a)

He could not explain HOW the continents moved

b)

He didn't have evidence

c)

His data was wrong

d)

He didn't use the right technology to gather data

21.

The fact that similar fossils are found on both sides of the ocean is evidence of

a)

magnetic reversal

b)

global positioning

c)

continental drift

d)

oceanic drift

22.

A push or pull exerted on a object

a)

Net force

b)

Force

c)

Inertia

23.

a unit of measure that equals the force required to accelerate 1 kilo of mass at 1 meter per second

a)

Newton

b)

Friction

c)

Action/Reaction

24.

sum of forces acting on a particle or body.

a)

Net force

b)

Balnced

c)

Acceleration

25.

two forces acting in opposite directions on an object, and equal in size

a)

Friction

b)

F=ma

c)

Balanced Force

d)

Friction

26.

one that causes a change in the motion of the object to which the force is applied

a)

Action/Reaction

b)

Unbalanced Force

c)

Acceleration

27.

a tendency to do nothing or to remain unchanged

a)

Inertia

b)

Newtons

c)

F=ma

28.

in every interaction, there is a pair of forces acting on the two interacting objects.

a)

Friction

b)

Action/Reaction

c)

Net Force

29.
What Unit do we Measure Force in? 
a)
Newtons
b)
Joules
c)
Force
d)
Kilograms
30.

Letting go of a balloon full of air is demonstrating Newton's ______ _______ ________ _________ because the air comes out of the back and the balloon moves forward.

a)

1st law of motion

b)

2nd law of motion

c)

3rd law of motion

d)

13th law of motion

31.
A 20 kg bike accelerates at 10 m/s2.  What was the force?
a)
25 Newtons
b)
20 Newtons
c)
200 Newtons
d)
10 Newtons
32.

The more mass an object has, the _______ force it takes to accelerate it.

a)

more

b)

less

33.

When a student runs and kicks a ball, they have applied an ___________ force to move the ball.

a)

Balanced

b)

Magnetic

c)

Spring

d)

Unbalanced

34.

When the teacher rearranges the desks in the classroom, she must apply ____________ to push and pull the desks around.

a)

acceleration

b)

force

c)

weight

d)

magnets

35.

Walking down the hall and speeding up when you turn and go down the stairs is an example of ____________.

a)

acceleration

b)

weight

c)

gravity

d)

friction

36.

A person not paying attention while skateboarding hits a rock. The skateboard stops...they don't.

a)

The Law of Inertia (1st law)

b)

The Law of Acceleration (2nd law)

c)

The Law of Conservation of Momentum

d)

Action Reaction Law (3rd law)

37.

What is this graph representing?

a)

Constant Speed

b)

Acceleration (speeding up)

c)

Deceleration (slowing down)

d)

No motion

38.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

39.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

40.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

41.

A wave that has the vibration perpendicular to the direction of the wave is called:

a)

Longitudinal

b)

Transverse

42.

A wave that has the vibration parallel to the direction of the wave is called:

a)

Longitudinal

b)

Transverse

43.

What do all waves transfer?

a)

Matter

b)

Heat

c)

Electricity

d)

Energy

44.

What is the number of complete waves passing a fixed point in a given amount of time?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Intensity

c)

Wavelength

d)

Frequency

45.

Which type of waves have the longest wavelength?

a)

Visible light

b)

Radio waves

c)

X-rays

d)

Gamma-Rays

46.

Shorter wave lengths can carry more energy. Which of these probably carries the MOST energy:

a)

Infrared light

b)

Visible light

c)

X-rays

d)

UV light

47.

What does #1 represent?

a)

Period

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Amplitude

48.

What does #2 represent?

a)

Period

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Amplitude

49.
High Amplitude =__________________
a)
Louder sounds
b)
Quieter Sounds
50.
Compression means.....
a)
Far apart
b)
Close together
c)
Complicated
d)
Stretch
51.
Which color has the highest frequency?
a)
blue
b)
yellow
c)
orange
d)
violet
52.
Which color has the lowest frequency?
a)
red
b)
green
c)
blue
d)
violet
53.
Which is the wavelength?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
54.
A mechanical wave cannot travel through...
a)
a vacuum(empty space).
b)
water.
c)
air. 
d)
glass.
55.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
56.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest wavelength?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
57.
Which of the following can sound travel through?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
all of the above
58.
When a wave bends as it passes through at an angle from one medium to another.(example: pencil in a glass of water-)
a)
medium
b)
refraction
c)
reflection
d)
interference
59.
When a wave strikes and object and bounces off. (example echo)
a)
medium
b)
refraction
c)
reflection
d)
interference
60.

The image provided is a _________ signal.

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

61.

The image provided is a _________ signal.

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

62.

A cassette tape

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

63.

Used in cell phones

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

64.

Easily degrades over time

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

65.

Transmitted via pulses of light or electric signal

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

66.

Used to create the earliest recording of music/sounds

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

67.

A more reliable way to store information

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

68.

Data that can shared electronically

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

69.

Can travel long distances

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

70.

Data that can be corrupted for hacked

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

71.

This type of signal is more affected by noise and greatly affects the quality of the signal

a)

Analog

b)

Digital

72.

What image show light being reflected?

a)
b)
c)
73.

What image show light being absorbed?

a)
b)
c)
74.

What image show light being transmitted?

a)
b)
c)
75.

Sunlight hits dark, black clouds. What is happening to the light waves in the clouds?

a)

light is being reflected

b)

light is being absorbed

c)

light is being transmitted

76.
Which type of wave arrives first during an earthquake?
a)
Primary (p-wave) waves
b)
Secondary (s-wave) waves
c)
Rayleigh Waves
d)
Love Waves
77.

The point where the earthquake begins.

a)

epicenter

b)

fault

c)

focus

d)

seismic waves

78.

This is considered as the fastest kind of seismic waves.

a)

Love waves

b)

Body waves

c)

Primary waves

d)

Secondary waves

79.

Two types of surface waves

a)

Love waves and Rayleigh Waves

b)

P waves and S waves

80.
Which letter represents the movement created by the P Wave?  
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
81.
Which city is closest to the epicenter?  
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
82.
Which seismogram represents a city that is far from the epicenter of an earthquake?  
a)
New York, NY
b)
Nome, Alaska
c)
Guadalajara, Mexico
83.
In what order do the three types of seismic waves arrive at a seismograph?
a)
S wave, P wave, Surface wave
b)
Surface wave, P wave and S wave
c)
P wave, S wave and Surface wave
d)
P wave, Surface wave and S wave
84.

Which of the following seismic waves can travel through gases, liquids, and solids?

a)

P-wave

b)

S-wave

c)

both

d)

none

85.
Formed by heat and pressure
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Extrusive Igneous
d)
Intrusive Igneous
86.

This rock is formed in layers.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

87.

Fossils are often found in this rock.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

88.

This rock is often found near water.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

89.

You would most likely find this rock near a volcano.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

90.

What kind of rock is "Granite"?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

91.

What kind of rock is "Marble"?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

92.

This rock is usually made up of pieces of rock called sediments that have been pressed and cemented together.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

93.
The top layer of sediments in a sedimentary rocks is...
a)
The newest and youngest layer.
b)
The oldest layer.
c)
The only layer that is made from pebbles.
d)
The second layer of sediments.
94.

A geologist is studying three layers of sedimentary rock in an area. The layers have not shifted from their original positions. The geologist records the relative ages of the rocks. What did the geologist use to determine the relative ages of the rocks?

a)

Radioactive dating

b)

Mineral content

c)

Absolute dating

d)

The Law of Superposition

95.

Based on the law of superposition, what is the order of these rock layers, from oldest to youngest?

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

2, 1, 4, 3

c)

3, 2, 1, 4

d)

4, 3, 2, 1

96.

The Big Bang Theory suggests that our universe formed as the result of a huge explosion that sent all existing matter flying outward from a single point. The Big Bang Theory is supported by which of these observations?

a)

All matter in the universe is composed of the same atoms.

b)

All galaxies appear to be moving away from all other galaxies.

c)

All stars in the universe are approximately the same age.

d)

The universe is relatively the same temperature in all locations.

97.

What is happening to the Universe to this day?

a)

The universe is getting smaller and hotter.

b)

The universe is staying the same.

c)

The universe is getting cooler and bigger.

98.

Light emitted from a star or galaxy can be separated into a band of colors, called a ________.

a)

Red Shift

b)

Wave Length

c)

Spectrum

d)

Microwave

99.

As galaxies move away from our galaxy

a shift on the electromagnetic spectrum

(EMS) is noticed. This phenomena is

called _____________.

a)

redshift

b)

blueshift

c)

unshift

d)

blackshift

100.

What is Redshift

a)

Objects move away us, give off red light

b)

Objects move towards us, give off blue light

c)

Objects move towards us, give off red light

d)

Objects move away us, give off blue light

101.

The spectral lines for the Galaxy in the Local Group are ___, indicating it is moving ___ us.

Las líneas espectrales de la Galaxia en el Grupo Local son ___, lo que indica que se mueve ___ hacia nosotros.

a)

red-shifted, toward

b)

red-shifted, away from

c)

blue-shifted, toward

d)

blue-shifted, away from

102.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
103.

Wha type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)

full moon tide

b)

new moon tide

c)

neap tide

d)

spring tide

104.
Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?
a)
Sun
b)
Saturn
c)
Moon 
d)
Venus
105.
What causes tides?
a)
gravity
b)
wind
c)
spring
d)
neap
106.
What do we call the small tides that happen when the sun and moon are at right angles to each other?
a)
Neap Tide
b)
Spring Tide
c)
Larger Change
d)
Smaller Change
107.
The bulge of water on the side of the Earth closest to the moon produces ___________.
a)
high tide
b)
low tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
108.
What is a difference between spring and neap tides?
a)
Spring tides occur when the earth and sun are IN LINE with the new or full moon. 
b)
Spring tides occur when moon in 3rd or 1st quarter phases
c)
Spring tides are LOWER than neap tides
d)
Spring tides occur in Spring and neap tides can occur in any season
109.

Why are some forces considered to be noncontact forces?

a)

Objects must be far apart in order to exert a force.

b)

Objects push each other apart to increase the distance between them.

c)

Objects do not have to touch each other to experience a force.

d)

Objects must be large in size in order to exert a force that is strong enough to notice.

110.

All of these are noncontact forces, except

a)

friction

b)

gravity

c)

electricity

d)

magnetism

111.

What are two factors that affect the strength of magnetic forces?

a)

poles and gravity

b)

distance and material

c)

distance and direction

d)

electricity and gravity

112.

A magnetic field of a magnet gets _____________ the further magnetic object moves away from the magnet.

a)

positive

b)

weaker

c)

negative

d)

stronger

113.

What two factors determine the strength of the gravitational force between two objects?

a)

acceleration and distance

b)

mass and distance

c)

speed and distance

d)

mass and speed

114.

When the mass increases, the strength of the gravitational field _______.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

d)

constantly changes

115.

As the MASS of an object increases, its gravitational pull _________.

a)

Stays the same

b)

Decreases, then increases, then decreases

c)

Decreases

d)

Increases

116.

When two objects are closer to one another, the force of gravity between them ____________.

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

d)

Divides by a factor of 100

117.

Which electromagnet is stronger?

a)

A

b)

B

118.

Which electromagnet is stronger?

a)

A

b)

B

119.

Which electromagnet is stronger?

a)

A

b)

B

120.

Which electromagnet will pick up LESS paper clips?

a)

A

b)

B

121.

Which electromagnet will pick up MORE paperclips?

a)

A

b)

B

122.
This is a picture of a simple electromagnet. How can the electromagnet be made stronger?
a)
Add more coils of wire to the nail.
b)
Use a smaller battery.
c)
Reverse the poles of the magnet.
d)
Remove all the coils and the nail.
123.

Which of the following will increase the strength of an electromagnet?

a)

Increase the voltage of the battery

b)

Decrease the voltage of the battery

c)

Wrap the coils around the core less times

124.

Motors are devices that convert ____ energy into ____ energy.

a)

electrical; mechanical

b)

chemical; mechanical

c)

mechanical; electrical

d)

potential; kinetic

125.

In an electric motor, the energy transformation begins as ---

a)

electrical and becomes chemical

b)

mechanical becomes electrical

c)

electrical and becomes mechanical

d)

mechanical and becomes chemical

126.

What energy do you put IN to a generator?

a)

Thermal

b)

Mechanical

c)

Electrical

d)

Potential

127.

What type of energy comes OUT of a generator?

a)

Electrical

b)

Potential

c)

Mechanical

d)

Thermal

128.

Evolution is the result of a process called ____________

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Artificial Selection

c)

Survival of the Weakest

d)

Supernatural Selection

129.

According to natural selection, organisms more suited to their environment are better able to

a)

Sleep

b)

Survive

c)

Perish

d)

Migrate

130.

Natural selection happens when an individual's genes ______________ from the genes of other members of its species.

a)

Become different

b)

Stay the same

c)

Become separated

131.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)

The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice

b)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better

c)

The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily

d)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily

132.
These moths are all the same species. The differences between their wings is an example of ________________
a)

Natural Selection

b)

Variation

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Extinction

133.

This makes an organism more suited to its environment

a)

species

b)

lifespan

c)

adaptation

d)

mutation

134.
The purpose of selective breeding is to 
a)
Get bigger animals
b)
get smaller animals
c)
create animals with desirable traits
d)
create animals with bad traits
135.

An example of selective breeding is

a)

a dog breeder mating 2 dogs to make more dogs

b)

a farmer grows bees to pollinate the plants on his farm

c)

a person pollinates 2 white rose plants to only create white roses

136.

What is the likely cause of analogous traits?

a)

Two species share a common ancestor

b)

Two species face similar environmental pressures

c)

A remnant of a trait that no longer serves a function

137.

What

type

of structure?

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Embryological

d)

Vestigial

138.

What

type

of structure?

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Embryological

d)

Vestigial

139.

What

type

of structure?

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Embryological

d)

Vestigial

140.

What

type

of structure?

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Embryological

d)

Vestigial

141.

What

type

of structure?

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Embryological

d)

Vestigial

142.

According to this image, which two domains of life are most related?

a)

Bacteria & Archaea

b)

Archaea & Eukarya

c)

Eukarya & Bacteria

143.

What is the human most closely related to?

a)

Fish

b)

mouse

c)

Salamander

d)

Human

144.

Which group of animals on this tree are most closely related to birds?

a)

Saurischian dinosaurs

b)

Ornithischian dinosaurs

c)

Crocodiles

d)

None of these are related to birds

145.

Where is the alligator and T. rex's common ancestor?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

146.
All the animals to the right of the hagfish would have the common characteristic of -
a)
Fur
b)
Claws or nails
c)
Lungs
d)
Jaws
147.
What is the net force?
a)
40 N left
b)
0 N Balalnced
c)
400 N right
d)
40 N right
148.
What is the net force?
a)
10 N
b)
0 N
c)
25 N
d)
1 N
149.
An _______ force must act on an object for it to CHANGE it's motion
a)
balanced
b)
unbalanced
c)
gravitational
d)
electrical
150.

If the net force is equal to zero, the forces acting on the object are

a)

balanced

b)

unbalanced

151.

What type of force is shown in the picture?

a)

Unbalanced Force

b)

Balanced Force

152.

What type of force is shown in the picture?

a)

Unbalanced Force

b)

Balanced Force