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Biology Review 1

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This question has two parts. Between 2005 and 2016, the Kenai Fjords in Alaska experienced an increase in exposed rock due to melting ice. These rock formations are known as "nunataks," which are the tips of mountains that were left uncovered by glaciers in the last ice age. Part A Which timeline describes how plant diversity on the nunataks will change over time?

a)

(1st) Mosses completely cover rock-->(2nd) Small shrubs grow between cracks of rock.--->(3rd) Small trees become rooted in the soil.

b)

(1st) Small shrubs grow between cracks of rock.-->(2nd) Mosses completely cover rock-->(3rd) Small trees become rooted in the soil.

c)

(1st) Small shrubs grow between cracks of rock.-->(2nd) Small trees become rooted in the soil.--> (3rd) Mosses completely cover rock

d)

(1st) Mosses completely cover rock-->(2nd) Small trees become rooted in the soil.--->(3rd) Small shrubs grow between cracks of rock

2.

This question has two parts. Between 2005 and 2016, the Kenai Fjords in Alaska experienced an increase in exposed rock due to melting ice. These rock formations are known as "nunataks," which are the tips of mountains that were left uncovered by glaciers in the last ice age. Part A Which timeline describes how plant diversity on the nunataks will change over time?

a)

(1st) Mosses completely cover rock-->(2nd) Small shrubs grow between cracks of rock.--->(3rd) Small trees become rooted in the soil.

b)

(1st) Small shrubs grow between cracks of rock.-->(2nd) Mosses completely cover rock-->(3rd) Small trees become rooted in the soil.

c)

(1st) Small shrubs grow between cracks of rock.-->(2nd) Small trees become rooted in the soil.--> (3rd) Mosses completely cover rock

d)

(1st) Mosses completely cover rock-->(2nd) Small trees become rooted in the soil.--->(3rd) Small shrubs grow between cracks of rock

3.

Which table correctly identifies the functions of each RNA Types

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

4.
Which biomolecule is not used for energy unless all other reserves are already used in the organism
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
proteins
5.

Which biomolecule is used for energy and also to keep the warmth used in the organism

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

6.

Which statements best compare the function of an ATP molecule to a DNA molecule?

a)

ATP carries and transmits the genetic information of organisms./DNA serves as a biological catalyst that speeds up the rate of chemical reactions.

b)

ATP provides energy for chemical reactions in the cell./DNA carries and transmits the genetic information of organisms.

c)

ATP serves as a biological catalyst that speeds up the rate of chemical reactions./DNA acts as a structural sugar in the cell walls of plants.

d)

ATP acts as a structural sugar in the cell walls of plants./DNA provides energy for chemical reactions in the cell.

7.
What nucleic acid is not used as genetic information for protein synthesis
a)
ATP
b)
Adenine
c)
DNA
d)
RNA
8.
which table correctly identifies the four most-abundant elements in biomolecules?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
9.
Which cellular function of carbohydrates and lipids should be placed in the shared section of the Venn diagram?
a)
Hormone production
b)
Structural support of cell walls
c)
Energy storage
d)
Catalyst for chemical reactions
10.

Which pair of statements best compares the primary functions of the carbohydrate chitin and the protein chitinase

a)

The chitin in the exoskeleton provides support and protection for insects and the chitinase provides support and protection to insectivorous bats

b)

The chitin in the exoskeleton provides insulation for insects and the chitinase stores genetic information for insectivorous bats

c)

The chitin in the exoskeleton provides support and protection for insects and the chitinase breaks down the chitin for energy to be used by insectivorous bats

d)

The chitin in the exoskeleton breaks down for energy to be used by insects and the chitinase provides insulation for insectivorous bats

11.

An advertisement for a health supplement for dogs claims to build lean muscle and strengthen tendons and ligaments, as well as provide energy. Which two biomolecules must the supplement contain to provide these benefits?

a)

Carbohydrates and lipids

b)

Proteins and carbohydrates

c)

Nucleic acids and carbohydrates

d)

Lipids and nucleic acids

12.

Which of the following best describes these biomolecules?

a)

Molecule X and Molecule Y are both carbohydrates.

b)

Molecule X is a nucleic acid, and Molecule Y is a carbohydrate.

c)

Molecule X and Molecule Y are both nucleic acids.

d)

Molecule X is a carbohydrate, and Molecule Y is a nucleic acid.

13.

(read)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

14.

Carbohydrates are more easily metabolized than lipids. However, on a gram-for-gram basis lipids provide cells with more -

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Proteins

c)

Structure

d)

Energy

15.

The differences between two molecules of this group include the type of sugar that forms a section of the molecules and the identity of one of the four nitrogenous bases that make up another section of the molecules. These molecules are in the group of -

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

carbohydrates

16.

Which characteristic do all organisms in Kingdoms Animalia, Protista, and Fungi have in common?

a)

They are eukaryotic.

b)

They are prokaryotic.

c)

They are unicellular.

d)

They are multicellular.

17.

A team of students encounters an unknown organism in a field while conducting a biodiversity study. Some students think the organism is a plant, while others think it is a fungus. Which question should the students investigate to classify the organism correctly?

a)

Is there a cell wall around the cells of the organism?

b)

Does the organism perform photosynthesis?

c)

Is there nervous tissue present in the organism?

d)

Does the organism reproduce sexually?

18.
Five general characteristics of organisms in kingdoms Plantae or Fungi are listed in the box. General Characteristics: 1. Alternation of generations possible 2. Are mostly nonmotile 3. Are eukaryotic 4. Are photosynthetic 5. Are vascular and have a wide variety of specialized tissues
a)
.
b)
..
c)
...
d)
....
19.

A researcher determines an organism to be eukaryotic, unicellular, and autotrophic. In which taxonomic group should this organism be classified?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Protista

c)

Archaea

d)

Animalia

20.

What characteristics do animals and protists share? (Select 3)

a)

Motile

b)

Reproduce sexually

c)

Photosynthetic

d)

Eukaryotic

e)

Prokaryotic

21.

Which 3 of the following terms will fit correctly in the shaded area of the Venn diagram?

a)

Multicellular

b)

Have a cell wall

c)

Eukaryotic

d)

Motile

e)

Unicellular

22.

Which characteristics will be used to complete the chart?

a)

1[Motile] - [nonmotile]2

b)

1[Non photosynthetic] - [Photosynthetic]2

c)

1[Autotrophic] - [Heterotrophic]2

d)

1[No nucleus] - [Nucleus]2

23.

Achondroplasia is an inherited condition that affects the formation of bone in humans. The allele for achondroplasia (A) is dominant compared to the unaffected allele (a). If a person who is homozygous dominant has children with a person who is homozygous recessive, what percentage of their children will likely have achondroplasia? (Enter your answer below). Your answer must be a whole number. (%)

(a)  

24.
Which punnett square represent a cross that can have an Albino Offspring
a)
.,
b)
..
c)
,,
d)
,.
25.

A genetic cross involving two unlinked genes is represented. AaGG x aaGg Which genotype is NOT possible in the offspring produced by the cross?

a)

AaGG

b)

Aagg

c)

aaGg

d)

aaGG

26.

the genotype of 2 breeding parents of dogs are shown AaBB and aaBb they had only 3 dogs but we obtained 4 DNA samples

Which genotype is from the dog that was not from this breed?

a)

AaBB

b)

Aabb

c)

aaBb

d)

aaBB

27.

In domesticated dogs, hair type is controlled by two different alleles. The allele for wire hair is (H) and the allele for smooth hair is (h). When two heterozygous dogs are crossed, what percentage of the offspring is expected to be homozygous for smooth hair?

(a)  

28.

In humans blood type is determined by the A, B, and O alleles. The A and B alleles are codominant to each other and dominant over the O allele. An individual with the AO genotype and an individual with the BO genotype can produce offspring with which of the following phenotypes?

a)

O only

b)

A or B only

c)

A, B, or O only

d)

A, B, AB, or O

29.

If several pea plants with the genotype TTYY are crossed with pea plants with the genotype Ttyy, what percentage of the offspring will be expected to have the TTYY allele combination?

a)

25%

b)

100%

c)

50%

d)

75%

30.

Between 2005 and 2016, the Kenai Fjords in Alaska experienced an increase in exposed rock due to melting ice. These rock formations are known as "nunataks," which are the tips of mountains that were left uncovered by glaciers in the last ice age. Part B Which evidence supports the answer to Part A?

a)

The nunataks have a steep slope, so they will undergo primary succession.

b)

The nunataks have a steep slope, so they will undergo secondary succession.

c)

The nunataks are bare rock, so they will undergo primary succession.

d)

The nunataks are bare rock, so they will undergo secondary succession.

31.

What model depicts Mitosis correctly

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

32.

What answer identifies the process illustrated and the stage in the cell cycle where it occurs? Choose 1 phase and 1 process.

a)

Process: Replication

b)

Interphase

c)

Process: Crossing over

d)

Process: Protein synthesis

e)

Process: Cytokinesis

33.

the images shows cells in various stages of mitosis what is the correct order of these images to list them in the correct order for mitosis?

a)

W, X, Y, Z->

b)

Z, X, W, Y->

c)

Z, Y, X, W->

d)

W, Y, X, Z->

34.

Scientists determined the total mass of DNA from a sample of animal cells. The masses of equal numbers of cells were taken during three different stages of the cell cycle (see graph below). Consider Stage I contains cells massed during G1 of the cell cycle. Which statement best describes the cells during Stage II?

a)

The cells have replicated their DNA, but have not completed mitosis and cytokinesis.

b)

The cells have completed mitosis and cytokinesis without replicating their DNA.

c)

The cells have replicated their DNA and completed mitosis and cytokinesis.

d)

The cells have temporarily exited the cell cycle without replicating their DNA.

35.

Scientists determined the total mass of DNA from a sample of animal cells. The masses of equal numbers of cells were taken during three different stages of the cell cycle (see graph below). Consider Stage I contains cells massed during G1 of the cell cycle. Which statement best describes the cells during Stage III?

a)

The cells have replicated their DNA, but have not completed mitosis and cytokinesis.

b)

The cells have completed mitosis and cytokinesis without replicating their DNA.

c)

The cells have replicated their DNA and completed mitosis and cytokinesis.

d)

The cells have temporarily exited the cell cycle without replicating their DNA.

36.

The chemical colchicine is used in the production of karyotypes. Colchicine prevents spindle fibers from forming during the cell cycle. What is a result of preventing spindle fibers from forming?

a)

The cell cycle skips G0 phase and repeats G1 phase.

b)

Mitotic division is skipped, and the cell cycle proceeds to cytokinesis.

c)

Mitotic division stops in metaphase and cannot proceed to anaphase.

d)

The cell cycle skips S phase and proceeds to G2 phase.

37.

What stage is the cell pointed by the arrow in the picture?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Interphase

38.

What statements best describe the events that occur during the stages of the cell cycle?

a)

S phase = replication

b)

M phase = Nuclear division

c)

S phase = Nuclear division

d)

S phase = cytoplasm division

e)

S phase = Cell growth

39.

Which statement best describes why a cell spends the majority of its time in interphase?

a)

The cell is growing and carrying out processes such as metabolism and DNA replication.

b)

The cell is aging and processes are stopping as lysosomes clear dead cell matter away.

c)

The cell needs time to synthesize spindle fibers to complete mitosis.

d)

The cell needs time to complete cytokinesis.

40.

Which statement best explains how the cell cycle is important to the life cycle of the frog?

a)

It enables frogs to produce tadpoles that are clones.

b)

It allows frogs to grow, develop, and reproduce.

c)

It prevents overproduction of frog offspring.

d)

It ensures the best adapted frogs survive and pass on traits to offspring.

41.

After a wheat field is cleared, wild grasses and weeds begin growing. This process is considered-

a)

primary succession because pioneer species appear

b)

primary succession because there are no large trees

c)

secondary succession because soil is already present

d)

secondary succession because the field contains inorganic matter

42.

After the formation of a new island from bare volcanic rock, what type of ecological succession is expected in the area? Primary or Secondary? answer must be in english

(a)  

43.

Sand dunes along the coast are formed of bare sand. Eventually, grasses take root on the dunes. Over time, larger plants such as shrubs and trees are able to grow at the edge of the sand dune ecosystem. This gradual change in plant communities of a sand dune ecosystem can result in -

a)

reduced symbiotic relationships between producers and bacteria

b)

reduced energy absorption by consumers

c)

greater erosion rates

d)

greater species diversity

44.

During secondary succession, which of these best describes why decomposing pioneer plants give way to larger, more complex plant species, such as hardwood trees?

a)

Increased amounts of sunlight are able to reach the ground while the pioneer species are decomposing.

b)

Increased soil temperatures from decomposing pioneer species help tree seeds germinate more quickly.

c)

Increased amounts of decomposing pioneer species remove nutrients that tree seedlings need to grow and mature.

d)

Increased amounts of soil from decomposing pioneer species allow plants with more extensive root systems to become established.

45.

Grassland ecosystems in Texas have evolved to depend on periodic fires to return nutrients to the soil and encourage plant reproduction. Humans have prevented fires in many of these grassland areas, resulting in plant and animal communities with little diversity. Wildlife biologists often recommend purposefully starting fires called prescribed burns, which are monitored and controlled, in grassland ecosystems every 3 to 4 years. These biologists observe greater diversity in plant and animal life in the years following a prescribed burn. What natural processes are the biologists attempting to imitate?

a)

Biomagnification

b)

Succession

c)

Population bottleneck

d)

Species extinction

46.

The rocky material left behind by a retreating glacier forms what is called a moraine. When primary succession occurs on a moraine, which life-forms will help create the soil by breaking down bare rock?

a)

Insects

b)

Lichens

c)

Grasses

d)

Shrubs

47.

A small town in the piney woods of East Texas has a soccer field composed of native grasses. The soccer field is mowed once a week. What effect does continual mowing have on the ecology of the field?

a)

Mowing increases the likelihood of nonnative species displacing native species.

b)

Mowing increases the number of species found in the field.

c)

Mowing causes different types of communities to form across the field.

d)

Mowing maintains a low species diversity by inhibiting further succession.

48.

During ecological succession, how does the growth of young hardwoods affect the organisms living in an ecosystem?

a)

Grasses and low shrubs are unable to obtain the amount of light they need to survive, so there are small numbers of them.

b)

The trees provide shelter and food for a variety of mammals, insects, and birds.

c)

In autumn, falling leaves provide a source of energy for decomposers such as fungi.

d)

All of the above

49.

The table shows the predominant plant types on a piece of land in the years following a disturbance.
Plant Type-----------------------------------------Time
Annual plants-----------------------------------1-2 years
Grasses and biennial herbs-----------------3-4 years
Perennial herbs and shrubs-----------------4-15 years
Pines---------------------------------------------5-15 years
Young oak and hickory trees----------------10-30 years
Mature oak and hickory forest-------------30-75 years
Based on the data in the table, which disturbance most likely led to this progression?

a)

glacier retreated.

b)

A volcanic island formed.

c)

A plowed field was abandoned.

d)

A new sand dune was formed.

50.

What is the primary function of ribosomes in a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Energy production

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Lipid synthesis

d)

DNA replication

51.

Which process is directly involved in the conversion of solar energy into chemical energy?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Fermentation

d)

Chemosynthesis

52.

What is the significance of meiosis in sexual reproduction?

a)

It increases genetic variation in offspring.

b)

It produces genetically identical offspring.

c)

It results in the production of somatic cells.

d)

It decreases the chromosome number in offspring.

53.

What is the main role of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

ATP production

d)

DNA replication

54.

Which of the following best describes the role of enzymes in biological reactions?

a)

They increase the activation energy required for the reactions.

b)

They decrease the reaction rate without being consumed.

c)

They act as a substrate for the reaction.

d)

They lower the activation energy required for the reactions.

55.

What is the main role of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

ATP production

d)

DNA replication

56.

Which of the following best describes the role of enzymes in biological reactions?

a)

They increase the temperature at which reactions occur.

b)

They decrease the reaction rate for cellular processes.

c)

They act as a physical barrier to protect reactants.

d)

They lower the activation energy of reactions.

57.

During the process of photosynthesis, plants convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. This transformation is facilitated by which part of the plant cell?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleus

58.

What is the primary function of the ribosomes found in a cell?

a)

Energy production

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

DNA replication

d)

Lipid metabolism

59.

Which process is responsible for the genetic diversity observed in sexually reproducing organisms?

a)

Binary fission

b)

Mitosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Budding

60.

There were a kidnap in the hospital,and all "parents" and children had their blood types checked
when they went to check the baby's blood type after observing the "parents" blood types being AA for mom and BB for dad the nurse spotted the kidnapers immediately.
what was the blood type of the baby for the nurse recognize that the baby was not theirs?

a)

AA

b)

BB

c)

OO

d)

AABB

61.

An illustration of how a particular DNA mutation will most likely affect the polypeptide produced is shown. What type of mutation is illustrated?

a)

Insertion

b)

Translocation

c)

Substitution

d)

Deletion

62.

Which property is shared by the cells of all living things?

a)

The cells contain DNA composed of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine.

b)

The cells are surrounded by a phospholipid bilayer and a cell wall made of cellulose.

c)

The cells have chromosomes that are located inside a membrane-bound nucleus.

d)

The cells rely on mitochondria to carry out aerobic cellular respiration.

63.

A segment of DNA is shown in the diagram. Which of these identifies the part of the DNA segment labeled X?

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Deoxyribose

64.

Snowshoe hares can be found living in the Rocky Mountains of New Mexico. During the summer months, when there is no snow on the ground, the snowshoe hare’s coat color is typically brown. During the winter months, when the mountains are covered in snow, the snowshoe hare’s coat is typically white. Which statement describes the genetic basis for the seasonal changes in coat color?

a)

The snow causes mutations in the genes that regulate coat color so that snowshoe hares are adapted to their environment during the winter months.

b)

The genes that control coat color are regulated by hormone signals that are altered by changes in environmental factors.

c)

Sunlight causes cancer cells to develop in the bodies of snowshoe hares, resulting in an apparent brown-colored coat as a result of hair loss.

d)

The genes that control coat color in snowshoe hares are deleted from the genome during the summer months.

65.

A genetic cross involving two unlinked genes is represented. AaGG x aaGg

Which genotype is NOT possible in the offspring produced by the cross?

a)

AaGG

b)

Aagg

c)

aaGg

d)

aaGG

66.

A partial DNA segment and an mRNA codon chart are shown. 3′ TCATGCATG 5′

What amino acid sequence is encoded in the partial DNA segment?

a)

Serine – Threonine – Tyrosine

b)

Serine – Serine – Tyrosine

c)

Serine – Threonine – Methionine

d)

Serine – Alanine – Methionine

67.

In Texas Longhorn cattle, coat coloration is an inherited trait. What is the genetic basis of coat-color variation in Texas Longhorn cattle?

a)

Differences in the nucleotide sequences of genes

b)

Differences in the numbers of chromosomes in cells

c)

Differences in the diets of individual cattle

d)

Differences in the environmental conditions of different geographic areas

68.

7 When a new mutation occurs in a somatic cell of a sexually reproducing organism, what percentage of the individual’s offspring are likely to inherit the mutation?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

25%

d)

0%

69.

Some angelfish colors are determined by codominance. Possible phenotypes and genotypes of angelfish colors are shown.

Which table shows the expected phenotypes of offspring resulting from a cross between a black angelfish and a black-lace angelfish?

a)
b)
c)
d)
70.

8 A cellular process is shown. Which statement best describes the significance of this process?

a)

The process allows organisms to grow and heal.

b)

The process produces clones of the parent organism.

c)

The process copies DNA before cell division

d)

The process creates genetic variation in the resulting cells

71.

Different types of mutations can occur in DNA. The diagram represents a type of mutation.Which statement describes the mutation in the diagram?

a)

A silent mutation results in the insertion of a different amino acid.

b)

B A substitution occurs with the adenine base.

c)

C A deletion of a cytosine base occurs.

d)

D A base is inserted into one strand of the DNA.

72.

Albinism is an autosomal recessive condition. Which circle graph shows the genotype probability when an albino female mates with a male that is heterozygous for the albinism trait?

a)
b)
c)
d)
73.

The arctic fox inhabits northern areas of North America. The same arctic fox is shown in the drawing at different times of the year. What causes this change in fur color?

a)

A) The alleles for fur color change as the arctic fox grows older.

b)

B) Gene expression for fur color is regulated by latitude.

c)

C) The arctic fox has two traits for fur color that are determined at birth.

d)

D) Gene expression for fur color is regulated by temperature.

74.

A model of a biological process is shown.What is the purpose of this process?

a)

A) To replicate the DNA of an organism before cell division

b)

B) To assemble nucleotides in an mRNA chain along a DNA template

c)

C) To synthesize amino acids used to unzip strands of DNA and copy the genetic code

d)

D) To translate the genetic code into a specific sequence of amino acids

75.

Which diagram demonstrates how crossing-over contributes to genetic variety during meiosis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
76.
An allele whose trait always shows up in the organism when the allele is present.
a)
recessive allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
hidden allele
d)
present allele
77.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
78.
Which of the following genotypes would be considered heterozygous?
a)
BB
b)
gg
c)
Ff
d)
TT
79.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
80.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
81.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
82.

Objective #5

(B-brown eyes & b-blue eyes)

Cross (Dad)Bb X (Mom)BB.

List the possible genotypes from this cross.

a)

BB, Bb, bb

b)

BB

c)

BB, Bb

d)

bb,Bb

83.
How many predators does the squid have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
84.
Name the producers in this food web.
a)
seagull and fish
b)
penguin and crab
c)
phytoplankton and seaweed
d)
seaweed and zooplankton
85.
A feeder fish usually follows behind sharks to pick up food scraps that they leave behind. The fish gets food and the shark is unaffected. This is an example of:
a)
Mutualism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Decomposition
86.
A dichotomous key for insects is shown below. To what order does an insect with two pairs of scaly wings belong?
a)
Coleoptera
b)
Diptera
c)
Heteroptera
d)
Lepidoptera
87.
Below is a table showing examples of organisms from different groups.
According to this information, the house cat is most closely related to which animal?
a)
Wolf
b)
Mockingbird
c)
Butterfly
d)
Lynx
88.
Which of these is required for natural selection?
a)
All individuals of a population must be identical.
b)
There must be a small number of individuals in a population.
c)
There must be variation among the members of
d)
An individual must be forced out of its natural habitat.
89.
The concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its herd, joins another herd, and reproduces. When the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd, which of these most likely increases?
a)
natural selection
b)
genetic variation
c)
environmental fitness
d)
reproductive mutations
90.
Some organisms have genes that improve their ability to survive and reproduce. If the genes also help their offspring survive and reproduce, then which of the following will most likely increase?
a)
The frequency of the genes in one individual
b)
The frequency of the genes in the population
c)
The number of genes in one chromosome
d)
The number of genes in the species
91.
Structures that have different mature forms but develop from the same embryonic tissue are called 
a)
analagous
b)
adaptations
c)
homologous
d)
fossils
92.
Which organisms are closely related? 
a)
American badger and leopard
b)
coyote and gray wolf
c)
european otter and leopard
d)
coyote and american badger
93.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
94.
Bactrian camels, dromedaries, llamas, and alpacas are all members of the same taxonomic family, Camelidae.  Members of this family all have two toes, no hooves, true canine teeth, and a split upper lip.  The family Camelidae originated in North America.  The physical features of animals in this family and the family's geographical origin provide evidence that all these animals-
a)
live in the same type of ecosystem
b)
have slowly evolved to become herbivores
c)
have a common ancestor
d)
exchanged DNA at some point in the past
95.

From most general to most specific.....

a)

domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

b)

species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain

c)

kingdom, domain, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

d)

species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, domain, kingdom

96.

According to the cladogram, which organisms are most closely related?

a)

C & D

b)

A & C

c)

B & D

d)

A & D

97.

Cetaceans are whales and their relatives. The diagram shows some fossils of cetaceans.


Which statement provides the best evidence that Ambulocetus natans is an ancestor of Basilosaurus isis?

a)

Homologous structures occur in each fossil.

b)

Similar nitrogenous bases are found in the DNA of each fossil.

c)

The fossils were found in different locations.

d)

The youngest fossil is larger than the older fossils.

98.

Researchers studying populations of lizards from the genus Gallotia on the Canary Islands compared the protein cytochrome b in different populations. The table shows the number of differences in the cytochrome b protein between different populations.


Which conclusion about the relatedness of the lizards do these data support?

a)

G. atlantica and G. stehlini are the least closely related.

b)

G. simonyi and G. bravoana are the most closely related.

c)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. galloti palmae are the most closely related.

d)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. galloti galloti are the least closely related.

99.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

100.
Which of these best demonstrates mutualism between certain types of bacteria and humans?
a)
Intestinal bacteria obtain nutrients from the gut and produce vitamin K used by humans.
b)
Bacteria become resistant to antibacterial medication that humans use for treatment.
c)
Invasive bacteria at an area of injury produce toxins that damage healthy tissues of the human body.
d)
Bacteria in improperly prepared food is consumed by humans, causing food poisoning.
101.

The fuzzy millipede, Polyxenus fasciculatus, is found in Texas and is preyed upon by most species of ants. To protect itself against the ants, it ejects fibers from a tuft located at the tail end of its body. The tufts have hooks at the tips and barbs along their length that lock and interlink with the ant’s setae, small hairs that cover the body of the ant. When an ant attacks, the millipede flexes its back end toward the ant and wipes the tufts against it. As the ant attempts to remove the tufts, it entangles itself more, becoming immobilized.

a)

Muscular and integumentary

b)

Immune and muscular

c)

Integumentary and endocrine

d)

Endocrine and immune

102.

Gibberellins are hormones produced in the root tips of plants. The plant uses these hormones to stimulate the growth of shoots.


How are gibberellins able to affect other parts of the plant?

a)

Gibberellins are absorbed through the stomata and attach to chloroplasts.

b)

Gibberellins are transported through vascular tissues to other parts of the plant.

c)

Gibberellins become concentrated within the tissues of the plant during mitosis.

d)

Gibberellins become modified once they infect healthy cells and are later released to infect other cells.

103.
Which four body systems interact to allow a person to sneeze?
a)
Muscular, immune, nervous, respiratory
b)
Nervous, respiratory, circulatory, skeletal
c)
Respiratory, endocrine, skeletal, circulatory
d)
Lymphatic, skeletal, respiratory, muscular
104.

A table of four types of carbohydrates is shown.

a)

Energy: glycogen and starch Structure: cellulose and chitin

b)

Energy: cellulose and chitin Structure: glycogen and starch

c)

Energy: chitin and glycogen Structure: cellulose and starch

d)

Energy: cellulose and starch Structure: chitin and glycogen

105.

Transmembrane proteins span the width of cell membranes. Four types of transmembrane proteins are shown in a section of cell membrane.

a)

stop chemical reactions within the cell

b)

synthesize molecules that signal other cells

c)

help the cell interact with its external environment

d)

remove large waste particles from the cytoplasm of the cell

106.

A feedback mechanism in the human body is shown.

a)

The nervous and reproductive systems work together to stimulate the production of insulin.

b)

The circulatory and endocrine systems work together to keep blood sugar levels constant.

c)

The excretory and nervous systems work together to convert glycogen into glucose.

d)

The immune and circulatory systems work together to circulate blood through the pancreas.

107.

What is the optimal pH of Pepsin?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

10

108.

What is the optimal temperature of this enzyme?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

109.

Cellular Respiration produces

a)

ATP

b)

Glucose

110.

Mitochondria produces

a)

ATP

b)

proteins

c)

glucose

111.

Rock+Succession=

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Ecology

d)

Volcano

112.

Which of the following is a primary function of ribosomes in a cell?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

DNA replication

d)

Lipid synthesis

113.

What role do decomposers play in an ecosystem?

a)

They convert sunlight into chemical energy.

b)

They consume living plants and animals.

c)

They break down dead organisms and recycle nutrients.

d)

They produce oxygen through photosynthesis.

114.

Every cross with at least 1 purebreed (homozygote dominant) parent will give me:

a)

100% dominant trait

b)

100% recesive trait

c)

50% dominant

d)

75% dominant

115.

Any double heterozygote cross always will give me

a)

50% dominant/
50% recessive

b)

25% dominant/
75% recessive

c)

75% dominant/
25% recessive

d)

100% dominant/
0% recessive

116.

Any homozygote dominant cross always will give me

a)

50% dominant/
50% recessive

b)

25% dominant/
75% recessive

c)

75% dominant/
25% recessive

d)

100% dominant/
0% recessive

117.

Heterozygote for the letter A

(a)  

118.

What role do decomposers play in the nitrogen cycle?

a)

They convert nitrogen in the air into usable forms for plants.

b)

They release nitrogen from organic matter back into the soil.

c)

They consume nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

d)

They produce nitrogen gas that is released into the atmosphere.

119.

homozygotes recessive for A wil be writen as:

a)

AA

b)

aa

c)

Aa

120.

Prcaryotic cells have

a)

Nucleus and Organelles

b)

Organelles but no Nucleus

c)

No Nucleus
but other Organeles

d)

No Organelles and No Nucleus

121.

Which plant response would best aid a plant in maximizing and retaining water acquired during a drought? 

a)

Decreasing root growth, while increasing stem and leaf growth

b)

Increasing root, stem, and leaf growth

c)

Decreasing stem and leaf growth, while increasing root growth

d)

Increasing leaf and root growth, while decreasing stem growth

122.

This question has two parts. Roots of different plants can be connected by a network of underground fungal extensions called hyphae. These fungi contribute minerals to the plants, and the plants contribute carbohydrates to the fungi. 

Part A Which statement about the transportation of these substances within the plant is true?

a)

The minerals are transported from the phloem to the xylem in the shoot system.

b)

The carbohydrates are transported from the shoot system to the fungi by the xylem.

c)

The minerals are transported from the xylem to the phloem in the roots.

d)

The carbohydrates are transported to the fungi through the phloem.

123.

This question has two parts. Roots of different plants can be connected by a network of underground fungal extensions called hyphae. These fungi contribute minerals to the plants, and the plants contribute carbohydrates to the fungi. 

Part A Which statement about the transportation of these substances within the plant is true?(search question)

Part B Which statement supports the answer to Part A? 

a)

The xylem is part of the plant's vascular tissues.

b)

The phloem transfers glucose throughout the plant.

c)

The xylem can move substances up from the roots.

d)

The phloem is connected to the roots by the xylem.