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Biology 101 Exam 3 Review (Spring 2024)

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the first step of DNA transcription?

a)

Translation of mRNA

b)

DNA replication

c)

Initiation, where RNA polymerase binds to DNA

d)

Termination of the mRNA strand

2.

During translation, what is the role of mRNA?

a)

To replicate DNA

b)

To carry genetic information from DNA to the ribosome

c)

To synthesize proteins directly

d)

To bind amino acids together

3.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the genetic code?

a)

Codons

b)

Anticodons

c)

Introns

d)

Start and stop signals

4.

What is the primary function of ribosomes in protein synthesis?

a)

To replicate DNA

b)

To modify mRNA

c)

To catalyze the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids

d)

To transport proteins to the Golgi apparatus

5.

Which molecule initiates the translation process by binding to the mRNA's start codon?

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

DNA

6.

What is the significance of the start codon AUG in the process of translation?

a)

It signals the ribosome to stop translation.

b)

It codes for the amino acid methionine and signals the start of protein synthesis.

c)

It indicates the site of DNA replication.

d)

It is the only codon that does not code for any amino acid.

7.

In the context of ribosome structure, what are the two subunits called?

a)

Alpha and beta

b)

Large and small

c)

Heavy and light

d)

A and B

8.

During the elongation step of translation, what happens to the polypeptide chain?

a)

It is broken down into amino acids.

b)

It is transported out of the nucleus.

c)

It is synthesized as tRNAs bring amino acids to the ribosome.

d)

It is folded into its secondary structure.

9.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Ligase

10.

What is the role of the promoter region in transcription?

a)

It signals the end of the gene.

b)

It is the site where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription.

c)

It codes for the start codon.

d)

It adds a poly-A tail to the mRNA.

11.

How many nucleotides make up a codon?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

12.

What is the process by which mRNA is decoded into a protein called?

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Modification

13.

Which of the following best describes the function of transfer RNA (tRNA) in protein synthesis?

a)

It replicates the DNA sequence.

b)

It carries amino acids to the ribosome.

c)

It synthesizes new strands of DNA.

d)

It transports proteins to different parts of the cell.

14.

What happens during the termination phase of transcription?

a)

RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.

b)

The ribosome assembles on the mRNA.

c)

RNA polymerase detaches from the DNA when it reaches a stop signal.

d)

Amino acids are linked together to form a polypeptide chain.

15.

In the genetic code, how many codons act as stop signals for translation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

16.

Where does DNA replication occur?

(a)  

17.

DNA replication occurs during ​ (a)   .

Choose from the below words
interphase
metaphase
telophase
anaphase
prophase
18.

Match the following

a)

Polymerase

1.

builds the complimentary DNA strand

b)

Ligase

2.

bonds DNA fragments together

c)

Primase

3.

Indicates whee DNA replication begins

d)

Helicase

4.

"unzips" the DNA

19.

Reorder the following

a)

DNA is unzipped

b)

Primase marks region to begin replication

c)

Polymerase builds complimentary DNA strand

d)

Ligase bonds DNA fragments

1)
2)
3)
4)
20.

After replication, each strand has ​ (a)   new strand(s) and ​ (b)   old strand(s).

Choose from the below words
one
two
zero
21.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
22.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
23.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
24.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
25.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
26.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
27.

What is the complementary base pairing for the following sequence?

A T A T C G C G

(a)  

28.

Pair the following using the Base Pairing Rule

a)

Adenine

1.

Thymine

b)

Cytosine

2.

Guanine

c)

Thymine

3.

Adenine

d)

Guanine

4.

Cytosine

29.

Purines consist of

a)

A, G

b)

C, U, T

c)

G, A, U

d)

T, C

30.

Pyrimidines consist of

a)

C, U, T

b)

A, G

c)

A, G, U

d)

G, C

31.

Double ring structure

a)

purines

b)

pyrimidines

32.

single ring structure

a)

purines

b)

pyrimidines

33.

DNA is a

a)

double stranded helix

b)

single stranded helix

c)

parallel

d)

made of amino acids

34.

DNA is

a)

single stranded helix

b)

antiparallel

c)

parallel

d)

made of amino acids

35.
DNA is a polymer made of:
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Purines
d)
Pyrimidines
36.

The picture below shows the steps of DNA replication beginning with step one and ending with step three.


​Because you are reusing the old, or parent, DNA strand DNA replication is said to be

a)

Semi- Conservative

b)

Semi-discontinuous

c)

Continuous

d)

Fully-Conserveative

37.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the leading strand in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

None of the above

38.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the lagging strand in DNA replication?

a)

Letter A since it is copied from 5' to 3'

b)

Letter A since it is copied from 3' to 5'

c)

Letter B since it is copied from 3' to 5

d)

Letter B since it is copied from 5' to 3'

39.

Which letter in the given picture depicts the okazaki fragments?

a)

A - lagging strand

b)

C - leading strand

c)

B - lagging strand

d)

C - replication fork

40.
what does mRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
41.
Which of these bases does not exist in RNA?
a)
C
b)
T
c)
U
d)
A
42.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
43.

Which of the following is the SUGAR in DNA? (remember what the D stands for...)

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

Which of the following is the phosphate group found in nucleotides?

a)
b)
c)
d)
45.

Which of the following is an example of a nitrogen base?

a)
b)
c)
d)
46.
Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication 
47.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
48.

​ (a)   is the process of creating a small messenger ​ (b)   that can leave the ​ (c)   and reach the ribosome to make​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
protein
Transcription
RNA
nucleus
DNA
lipid
Replication
49.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Uracil

Thymine

one backbone

double-backbone

ribose

deoxyribose

inside nucleus

inside / outside nucleus

RNA
DNA
50.

What enzyme does transcription use?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

helicase

51.

Which amino acid will be added to a protein chain if the codon is UAA?

a)

Ser

b)

Lys

c)

Ala

d)

STOP

52.

Where does Translation occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

ER

d)

Chloroplast

53.

What is an anticodon?

a)

rRNA

b)

an amino acid

c)

Three nucleotide sequence found on mRNA

d)

Three nucleotide sequence found on tRNA

54.

Using the 'codon table' in the image. What amino acid would the mRNA codon shown below translate to?


CAG

a)

Gln

b)

Val

c)

Met

d)

Glu

e)

None of these is correct

55.

Using the 'codon table' in the image. What amino acid would the mRNA codon shown below translate to?


UCA

a)

Ser

b)

Try

c)

Stop

d)

Ala

e)

None of these is correct

56.

Using the 'codon table' in the image. What amino acid would the mRNA codon shown below translate to?


GAC

a)

Asp

b)

Leu

c)

Glu

d)

Ala

e)

None of these is correct

57.

Using the 'codon table' in the image. What amino acid would the mRNA codon shown below translate to?


CUU

a)

Leu

b)

Glu

c)

Trp

d)

Arg

e)

None of these is correct

58.

Using the 'codon table' in the image. What amino acid would the mRNA codon shown below translate to?


UAG

a)

Ile

b)

Glu

c)

Trp

d)

Stop

e)

None of these is correct

59.

The DNA Triplet shown below will code for which amino acid (provide the three letter abbreviation).


CAT

(a)  

60.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
61.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a 
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
62.

A point mutation where one base replaces an original base. What would happen because of this mutation (circled)?

a)

the same amino acid would be made

b)

a different amino acid would be made

c)

no amino acid would be made

63.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

64.

A substitution mutation that has no effect

on an amino acid's sequence would be best categorized as:

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Translocation

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Deletion Mutation

65.

The image shown depicts a point mutation. Which of the following categories best describes this mutation?

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Silent

d)

Neutral

66.

Which of the following types of mutations will impact the FEWEST codons?

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

d)

Frameshift

67.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Interphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telephase

68.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telephase

69.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telephase

70.

Reorder the following

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telephase

e)

cytokenises

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
71.

What phase is anaphase?

a)

b)

c)

d)

72.

Nuclear membrane breaks down, spindle fibers form describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

73.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
74.
Which structures are indicated by the green arrows?
a)
sister chromatids
b)
chromosomes
c)
spindle fibers
d)
centrioles
75.
Structure B is pointing to the _____. 
a)
chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
DNA
d)
chromatid
76.
The organelle that helps in cell division and produces spindle fibers.
a)
Chromosome
b)
Centriole
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Chloroplast
77.

In which phase of Mitosis do the Chromosomes pull Apart

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

78.
Cells spend 90% of their time in this stage of the cell cycle. This is the reason you would see most cells in this stage if viewed under a microscope.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Interphase
79.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
80.

Which of the following are CORRECT observations about MITOSIS and MEIOSIS? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Mitosis produces cells that identical to the parent cell.

b)

Meiosis produces cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

All cells go through INTERPHASE as part of the cell cycle, whether it goes to mitosis or meiosis next.

d)

In both types of cell division, the chromosomes are only duplicated once.

e)

Only in Mitosis, do you see chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad.

81.

In Anaphase II, the _________ separate.

a)

Homologues

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Tetrads

d)

Centrioles

82.

how many chromosomes do human gametes have?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

18

d)

36

83.

Crossing over usually occurs between:

a)

Sister Chromatids

b)

Homologous Chromosomes

c)

Alleles

d)

Non-Homologous Chromosomes

84.
This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?
a)
segregation of sister chromatids
b)
condensation and segregation of alleles
c)
mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered
d)
crossing - over in which alleles are exchanged
85.

Name the phase:

a)

Telophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Metaphase II

86.

Which part of MEIOSIS is more similar to MITOSIS?

a)

Meiosis I

b)

Meiosis II

87.

Name this phase of Meiosis

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

88.

In which stage of MEIOSIS does crossing over occur? (The exchange of genetic material between chromosomes in a tetrad.)

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Telophase I

89.

In which cell(s) will meiosis occur? (Check all that apply)

a)

muscle cell

b)

gamete

c)

sperm cell

d)

skin cell

90.

True or False: Meiosis results in identical cells.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

True or False: Meiosis produces haploid gametes.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

What is the purpose of mitosis?

a)

growth and repair

b)

reproduction

c)

genetic diversity

d)

to create unique cells

93.

What is the purpose of meiosis?

a)

growth

b)

repair

c)

reproduction

d)

to create identical cells

94.

A diploid pea plant cell contains 14 chromosomes. How many chromsomes would be in a haploid pea plant cell?

a)

28

b)

14

c)

7

d)

21

95.

During which phase are sister chromatids lined up in a single file along the center of the cell?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

96.

Which of the following is an example of a somatic cell?

a)

egg cells

b)

stomach cells

c)

sperm cells

d)

gametes

97.

How many chromosomes are in the somatic cells of humans?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

42

d)

26

98.

When does "crossing over" of genes occur during meiosis?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

99.

The matching pair of chromosomes you inherit from your genetic parents are called

a)

sister chromatids

b)

autosomes

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

sex chromosomes

100.

Somatic cells are formed during what process?

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

DNA replication

d)

interphase

101.

How many chromosomes does a sex cell have compared to a body cell?

a)

twice as many

b)

the same amount

c)

the same, but replicated

d)

half as many

102.

What is a gamete?

a)

a body cell (ex. skin or heart cell)

b)

an autosome

c)

a sex cell (ex. sperm or egg)

d)

a somatic cell

103.

If an egg cell of an organism contains 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes should be present in a heart cell of the same organism?

a)

12

b)

24

c)

6

d)

48

104.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

105.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

106.

Use your codon chart to answer the following question:


AUG AGA ACG CCG


What is the amino acid sequence from the mRNA above?

a)

methionine - arginine - proline - threoinine

b)

methionine - alanine - threoinine - proline

c)

methionine - arginine - threoinine - proline

d)

methionine - proline- arginine - threoinine

107.

What amino sequence would eventually be translated from the DNA sequence AAAGGCGTAATC

a)

Phenylalanine-Proline-Histidine-Stop

b)

Lysine-Glycine-Valine-Isoleucine

c)

Phenylalanine-Histidine-Proline-Stop

d)

Lysine-Isoleucine-Valine-Glycine

108.

What anticodon sequence would used for the amino acid sequence Glutamic Acid-Tyrosine-Threonine

a)

GAG-UAU-ACA

b)

CUC-AUA-UGU

c)

GAG-TAT-ACA

d)

CTC-ATA-TGT