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Cognitive Psychology Final Review

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Alyssa wants to be a psychologist but is unsure which topic within psychology most interests her. Which of the following topics would be LEAST likely to lead her into cognitive psychology?

a)

memory

b)

language

c)

Lyme's disease

d)

perception

2.

To look within oneself and report on their own mental processes. This method is called

a)

self-reflection

b)

self-monitoring

c)

introspection

d)

mentalistic study

3.

There are many reasons why modern psychologists have moved away from the classic form of behaviorism. One reason is because

a)

humans are more similar to computers than to other species studied in the laboratory

b)

classical behaviorism failed to consider the mental processes underlying cognition

c)

an organism’s behavior can be changed by learning

d)

psychology rejected behaviorism’s emphasis on an organism’s subjective states

4.

Which of the following is a similarity between psychology and physics?

a)

All of the answers

b)

Both test their theories using the scientific method

c)

Both do not allow for direct observation of the causes of phenomena

d)

Both base their theories on objective, quantifiable data

5.

Cognitive psychologists try to make inferences about causes, based on things they can observe. In this way, cognitive psychologists are most like

a)

chefs

b)

garbage collectors

c)

crime scene investigators

d)

construction workers

6.

Introspection is considered the first step toward a science of cognitive psychology because

a)

it helped us learn about the subconscious

b)

interpretation of our mental lives doesn’t require training

c)

it was the first systematic attempt to observe and record the content of mental processes

d)

it provided testable claims

7.

Cognitive psychology often relies on the transcendental method, in which

a)

mental events are explained by referring to events in the central nervous system

b)

information from introspection supplements behavioral data

c)

researchers seek to infer the properties of unseen events on the basis of the observable effects of those events

d)

those events

8.

In cognition, as in other sciences, we first develop ________ and then ________ them.

a)

hypotheses; prove

b)

proofs; test

c)

hypotheses; test

d)

tests; prove

9.

The phrase "fool me once, shame on you; fool me twice, shame on me" would not apply to H.M. Why?

a)

H.M. was able to learn when someone was lying to him.

b)

H.M. was never fooled.

c)

H.M. was unable to learn new things.

d)

H.M. values practical jokes

10.

Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to apply to patient H.M.?

a)

"Even though he has encountered the nurse many times, he is still unable to recognize her."

b)

"He read this story last month, but he was still surprised by how the story turned out."

c)

"He has gradually adjusted over the last few months to the news of his uncle's death."

d)

"He cannot remember what he did earlier today, including events that took place just an hour ago."

11.

Consider the sentence, "Sam, tired from hours of reading and working on his term paper, fell into bed at last." When you reach the sentence's 13th word ("fell"), you need to remember how the sentence began; otherwise, you won't know who fell into bed. The memory used for this task is called ________ memory.

a)

working

b)

episodic

c)

generic

d)

long-term

12.

You give your friend a series of lists of letters to remember. With each perfectly recalled list, you increase the list length by one or two items, until he begins to make errors. This sort of test examines ________.

a)

working-memory span

b)

the limits of speech

c)

brain activity

d)

memory for abstract objects

13.

Imagine a friend is giving you her new phone number. You have nothing with which to write the number down, so you try to remember it. Which cognitive process will you engage in to accomplish this task?

a)

agnosia

b)

object recognition

c)

introspection

d)

working memory

14.

A participant hears the sequence “F, D, P, U, G, Q, R,” and then, a moment later, must repeat the sequence aloud. If errors occur in this procedure, they are likely to involve ________.

a)

sound-alike confusions, for example, “T ” instead of “D.”

b)

look-alike confusions, for example, “O ” instead of “Q.”

c)

confusions with near neighbors in the alphabet, for example, “G ” instead of “F.”

d)

confusions because of strong associations, for example, “I ” instead of “Q ” because of the familiarity of “IQ.”

15.

Some researchers explain Capgras syndrome as

a)

a simple failure of visual recognition.

b)

a subtype of schizophrenia.

c)

the result of a disconnection between recognizing a face and an emotional response.

d)

a failure of long-term memory.

16.

For most people, encountering a family member who looks a little bit different will elicit a response like “He must have gotten a haircut!” However, that same experience will elicit a response like __________ from someone with Capgras syndrome.

a)

“He lost weight!”

b)

“He is mad at me.”

c)

“He’s an imposter!”

d)

“He looks like a hat!”

17.

Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of a person with Capgras syndrome?

a)

She thinks that her mother has been replaced by a look-alike alien.

b)

She cannot recognize that her father looks like her father.

c)

She also has Alzheimer's syndrome.

d)

She has no warm sense of familiarity when she sees a close friend.

18.

A neuron is

a)

a group of cells specialized for a particular type of information storage.

b)

one of the fibers connecting the eye to the visual cortex.

c)

an individual cell within the nervous system.

d)

a region within the brain dedicated to a single function.

19.

The electroencephalogram (EEG) provides an estimate of brain activity by measuring

a)

glucose consumption

b)

blood flow

c)

electrical signals produced by neurons

d)

neurotransmitters

20.

When an image is projected to the right visual field, the signal will be sent to the ________ hemisphere.

a)

right

b)

left

c)

frontal

d)

cortical

21.

Kate has a split brain. Her doctor briefly presents the word "hammer" to only her left visual field and then asks her what she saw. Which set of responses is Kate most likely to give?

a)

She will say she doesn't know what word appeared but she will be able to identify the object with her right hand.

b)

She will say she doesn't know what word appeared but she will be able to identify the object with her left hand.

c)

She will say she doesn't know what word appeared and she will not be able to identify the object using either hand.

d)

She will say "hammer."

22.

Commissures, including the corpus callosum, are

a)

blood vessels that carry blood to all areas of the brain.

b)

brain areas associated with various types of sensory information.

c)

pockets of oxygen found throughout the brain.

d)

thick bundles of fibers that allow communication between the brain's hemispheres.

23.

"Bottom-up" (or "data-driven") mechanisms are

a)

the scientific process in which all claims must be rooted in well-established biological evidence.

b)

mechanisms for which activity is primarily triggered and shaped by the incoming stimulus information.

c)

mechanisms for which activity is influenced by thoughts provided by the individual.

d)

the process by which researchers seek to develop new theories using statistics.

24.

Imagine you are reading a puzzling email from a friend. You identify the words, but have a hard time "reading between the lines." In this example, word identification involves ______ processing while "reading between the lines" (understanding what he or she really means) involves ______ processing.

a)

bottom-up; top-down

b)

top-down; bottom-up

c)

bottom-up; bottom-up

d)

top-down; top-down

25.

Which of the following statements does NOT illustrate the difference between rods and cones?

a)

Rods are sensitive to lower levels of light.

b)

Only cones are able to discriminate color (hue).

c)

There are three types of rods (for three different wavelengths of light) and only one type of cone.

d)

Cones have greater acuity.

26.

Cells detecting the boundary of a surface are subject to less lateral inhibition than cells detecting the center of the same surface. This leads to an effect called

a)

color enhancement.

b)

edge enhancement.

c)

the boundary rule.

d)

the all-or-none law.

27.

Human brains have a distinct division-of-labor strategy. Each task is achieved as a result of multiple brain areas working together. But the work of the various parts of the brain must be compiled into a finished whole. The issue of how this reassembly works is referred to as the

a)

binding problem. 

b)

Humpty Dumpty dilemma. 

c)

reassembly law. 

d)

ultimate puzzle. 

28.

To perceive the visual world, we have to reunite various elements of a scene together so that these elements are perceived in an integrated fashion. Which of the following is NOT likely to be involved in this task?

a)

attention

b)

language

c)

spatial position

d)

different groups of neurons firing together

29.

Which of the following sentences best illustrates the effect that Gestalt principles have on perception?

a)

The whole is greater than the sum of its parts.

b)

Seeing is believing.

c)

Think outside the box.

d)

Believing is seeing.

30.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes visual illusions?

a)

Our cognitive abilities that help us in most cases cause illusions in other cases.

b)

Illusions are most beneficial to perception.

c)

Illusions will occur if you know how to avoid them.

d)

Illusions can occur for shape and size, but not for color or brightness.

31.

Despite the fact that sensory stimuli can change from moment to moment, we perceive the details (color, shape, etc.) of an image to be stable because of

a)

constancy

b)

memory

c)

proximity

d)

good continuation

32.

A patient with associative agnosia will probably show an inability to

a)

remember a list of words heard 1 hour before.

b)

detect brief flashes of light.

c)

remember the color of familiar objects (e.g., that stop signs are red).

d)

name common objects in plain view.

33.

Patients who have suffered damage to the occipital-parietal pathway (the 'where' system) will have difficulties with which of the following tasks?

a)

visually identifying a toothbrush on the counter in front of them

b)

describing the function of the toothbrush without touching it

c)

reaching in the correct direction to retrieve the toothbrush

d)

knowing how to use the toothbrush once they have retrieved it

34.

A tachistoscope is a device used to

a)

measure the rate at which a neuron is firing.

b)

collect measurements of reaction times.

c)

display stimuli briefly.

d)

record brain activity.

35.

Priming depends on

a)

recency and frequency.

b)

trigger variation.

c)

stimuli input.

d)

well-formedness.

36.

Participants are shown the letter-string TPUM for 30 ms and asked to identify what they saw. If they are going to answer incorrectly, which response are they most likely to give?

a)

TRUM

b)

OPUM

c)

I did not see anything presented.

d)

TPUM

37.

Face recognition seems to be strongly dependent on orientation in ways that other forms of object recognition are not. This phenomenon is called

a)

Inversion effect

b)

Flynn effect

c)

Superiority effect

d)

Cross-race effect

38.

CO is more common in English than CQ, which makes identifying CORN more likely than identifying CQRN. What level of the feature net processes “CO” or “CQ”?

a)

Bigram level

b)

Letter level

c)

Feature level

d)

Word level

39.

Mistakes in word reading occur under a feature-net model of recognition. This results because the feature net encourages ________ over ________.

a)

efficiency; accuracy

b)

accuracy; efficiency

c)

laziness; hard work;

d)

bottom-up processing; top-down processing

40.

The form of brain damage identified as prosopagnosia is primarily characterized by an inability to

a)

recognize faces

b)

comprehend written text.

c)

identify inverted stimuli even though perception of upright stimuli seems normal.

d)

identify familiar voices.

41.

The modal model of memory says that words presented early in a list are easier to remember than words presented later because

a)

the early words suffer from less interference than the later words.

b)

they are still residing in working memory at the time of the test.

c)

the early words receive more of the participants attention than the later words.

d)

participants are particularly alert at the beginning of the list presentation.

42.

Primacy effect is to _ as recency effect is to _.

a)

working memory; short-term memory

b)

short-term memory; long-term memory

c)

long-term memory; working memory

d)

long-term memory; recognition memory

43.

A sudden, loud noise often has the impact of distracting participants long enough to clear the contents of working memory. Imagine that participants hear a list of the names of 20 different fruits, followed by an unexpected loud noise. The effect of the noise will be

a)

a diminished recency effect but no impact on how well the other words in the list are remembered.

b)

diminished performance for the entire list.

c)

a diminished primacy effect but no impact on how well the other words in the list are remembered.

d)

a diminished recency effect and a diminished primacy effect but no impact on how well the other words on the list are remembered.

44.

The central executive is NOT

a)

reliant on “helpers”

b)

task-specific

c)

multipurpose

d)

akin to executive control

45.

For most recall tests, the transfer of items into long-term storage is BEST facilitated by ______.

a)

primacy

b)

elaborative

c)

recency

d)

maintenance

46.

The strategy of maintenance rehearsal involves

a)

paying attention to the sequence of items, independent of their meaning.

b)

the repetition of the items to be remembered and the simultaneous consideration of the items’ meaning.

c)

the repetition of the items to be remembered, with little attention paid to what the items mean.

d)

a focus on the associations between the items to be remembered and other thoughts and ideas.

47.

Study subjects were read a list of words and asked to remember and then recall the LAST word they had heard that started with a “D”. Therefore, they should report “dinner” after hearing the sequence “dancing, dad, willow, air, diatribes, movement, forest, shrike, sunlight, dinner”. About 30 minutes later, they are asked to report back all the “D” words they heard. We would anticipate

a)

good recollection of all the words because participants were able to concentrate their attention on the task and rehearsed only one word at a time.

b)

poor recollection of all the “D” words because the situation invites maintenance rather than elaborative rehearsal)

c)

good recollection of “dancing”, since this word was in the participants’ thoughts for a long time (while they were waiting for “dinner”).

d)

poor recollection of the early words in the list but good recollection of the words in the middle of the list.

48.

Data indicate that, all things being equal, recall performance will be BEST if materials are encoded with ______ processing.

a)

shallow

b)

sensory

c)

deep

d)

intermediate

49.

Although mnemonics can be helpful for remembering a small number of specific items (like a grocery list), they do have some drawbacks. One such problem is ______.

a)

the recall of all items by mnemonics is slow.

b)

mnemonics are particularly difficult to remember when specific information is being tested.

c)

using a mnemonic involves a trade-off of attention so that less attention is available for making the many memory connections that can help one understand the material.

d)

mnemonics only work when remembering up to seven items.

50.

Establishing a memory connection

a)

is better for negative memories than for other types of memories

b)

can occur only for emotional memories

c)

allows you to access memory X from memory Y if they are connected but will not help you access memory Z if it is not connected to memory X or Y

d)

primes all memory connections so that all memories are quicker to retrieve.

51.

You use a ______ when trying to access information in long-term memory.

a)
retrieval path
b)

serial, exhaustive search

c)

random search strategy

d)

harmonic search

52.

Evidence for context-dependent learning has been found in all of the following situations EXCEPT:

a)

taking a test while wearing a suit or wearing sweatpants.

b)

odors present or absent during learning.

c)

underwater and out of water for scuba divers learning words.

d)

reading an article in a noisy or quiet environment.

53.

Phobias are inherently difficult to overcome. One method to overcome this is the use of successive approximations. This method has people slowly move toward the feared object. Overtime the fear is extinguished. This type of treatment uses what kind of memory:

a)

Semantic memory

b)

Episodic memory

c)

Explicit memory

d)

Implicit memory

54.

The level at which a node will fire in a spreading activation model is called the ________.

a)

subthreshold level

b)

response threshold

c)

activation level

d)

superthreshold

55.

What is the CLEAREST advantage of connecting new information to prior knowledge in several different ways?

a)

It opens the way for state-dependent learning to take place.

b)

It “cements” the new material in memory more securely, so the neurons are less likely to decay.

c)

It allows the information to be accessed from multiple retrieval paths.

d)

It improves your implicit memory for the information.

56.

An investigator asks, "Can you remember what happened last Tuesday at noon while you were sitting in the back room of Jane’s Restaurant?" This is an example of a question relying on ________.

a)

procedural memory.

b)

 

recognition.

c)

implicit memory.

d)

recall.

57.

Herbert says, "I can’t figure out where I’ve seen that person before, but I know that I have seen her before!" Herbert

a)

has an episodic memory for the face but no generic memory for the face

b)

has a sense of familiarity but no source memory

c)

seems to have formed interim associations when he last encountered the face

d)

would perform well on a recall test but not on a recognition test

58.

Animal trainers are unable to tell their trainees what to do. To train them, they reward them with treats when they spontaneously produce a behavior that is similar to what they want them to do. Overtime they reward them more and more as they get closer to the whole behavior. This type of training uses what type of memory:

a)

Episodic memory

b)

Semantic memory

c)

Explicit memory

d)

 

Implicit memory

59.

Which of the following statements is an example of a recognition test?

a)

What political event does this song remind you of?

b)

Describe how you spent New Year’s Eve in 1994.

c)

Which one of these individuals is the person you saw at the party?

d)

What is the formula needed for computing the area of a circle?

60.

Prevagen is a medication that is touted as helping to improve memory. It is frequently shown on TV during commercials in which people note how it has improved their memory. The use of ads like this uses what mechanism to increase the likelihood that people will purchase this product:

a)

Familiarity

b)

False Friends

c)

Explicit memory

d)

Implicit Memory

61.

If a participant is shown a stimulus and then shown that stimulus for a second time later, they are likely to perceive the stimulus quicker. This benefit is a(n) ________.

a)

explicit memory.

b)

increase in processing fluency.

c)

recognition memory.

d)

context-dependent memory.

62.

Why are double dissociations in memory important?

a)

They suggest that damage to any area of the brain will impact all memory functioning.

b)

They provide strong evidence for separate memory systems.

c)

They remain unchallenged by contemporary standards.

d)

They provided early evidence of the extent of H.M.’s amnesia.

63.

A classic study by the researcher Claparède showed that

a)

the behavior of a Korsakoff’s amnesia patient can be changed by a recent event even though the patient shows no signs of remembering that event.

b)

Korsakoff’s amnesiacs show more severe retrograde amnesia than anterograde amnesia.

c)

Korsakoff’s amnesiacs show an extraordinary ability to recall their plans for the future even though they cannot remember their own pasts.

d)

the behavior of a Korsakoff’s amnesia patient is less well organized than clinicians have theorized.

64.

In a study by Brewer and Treyens (1981), participants waited in an experimenter’s office for the experiment to begin. After they left the room, they learned that the study was about their memory of that office. This study demonstrated that

a)

people make assumptions using prior knowledge about what an academic office typically contains.

b)

college students’ memories are much worse than the memories of other groups in society.

c)

college students do not know what a professor’s office typically contains.

d)

people tend to notice only those items in the environment that most fit with their expectations.

65.

Memory errors and distortions have been documented

a)

only for memory of the exact phrasing of prose material.

b)

only for memory of unfamiliar material.

c)

in the recall of complex events.

d)

only with material that has been reported to participants, not with material that participants have experienced directly.

66.

Details of complex episodes are held together by connections between memories of that episode, which help with our memory, but can also lead to errors in the memory. Which component of those connections lead to both accurate and failed memory retrieval?

a)

the number of neurons needed to activate the connection between two memories

b)

the length of the connections between the memories

c)

the number of connections between the two memories

d)

the length of the most important memory connection

67.

In an experiment, Group A is asked to read a passage. Group B is asked to read the same passage but is given a prologue that helps their understanding of the passage. When given a recall test,

a)

Group A recalled less of the passage and made more intrusion errors than Group B.

b)

Group B recalled more of the passage but made more intrusion errors than Group A.

c)

Group A recalled less of the passage but made the same number of intrusion errors as Group B.

d)

Group A could not recall any of the passage as they did not understand its context.

68.

If given a list of the words “white,” “winter,” “cold,” and “flake,” which word will people be MOST likely to erroneously report on a later memory test?

a)

fall

b)

December

c)

snow

d)

bright

69.

When presented with a list of words along a theme (e.g., “bed,” “rest,” “slumber,” “dream,” “tired”), participants often (mis)recall the theme word as part of the list (e.g., “sleep”). This procedure is commonly referred to as the

a)

Decreased-Remembering-Magnitude procedure

b)

Daily-Reconstructing-Mnemonics procedure

c)

Discussion–Recall–Memory procedure.

d)

Deese-Roediger-McDermott procedure

70.

Bartlett presented stories from Native American folklore to British participants to read and later asked them to recall details of the story. His findings reveal which important idea about memory?

a)

Memory errors are often derived from attempts to understand.

b)

Memory errors can result from the suggestions of others.

c)

Memory is generally good, even for complex stories.

d)

The length of connections determines how well a story will be remembered.

71.

Memory schemas, or schemata, serve as representations of our _____ knowledge.

a)

innate

b)

semantic

c)

specific

d)

episodic

72.

Misleading questions asked after participants have witnessed an event influence their

a)

longer-term retention of the event, but not their reports of the event immediately after witnessing it.

b)

immediate reports of the event but have little impact on longer-term retention.

c)

reports of an event only if the questions plant false ideas that are compatible with the participants’ perceptions.

d)

immediate reports of the event, as well as their recall of the event if they try to remember it sometime later.

73.

The creation of false memories in someone is possible

a)

only for small details; the gist is remembered accurately.

b)

only for neutral or unimportant events; memories that are emotional are accurate.

c)

only for events that took place long ago; recent events are remembered accurately.

d)

even for the creation of large-scale, entirely false events.

74.

The misinformation effect refers to the fact that false information, presented after a participant has encoded an event, can intrude into the participant’s subsequent recall of the event. This “planting” of memories

a)

seems restricted to small memory errors.

b)

seems possible for remembered actions but not remembered objects.

c)

can occur outside of the laboratory.

d)

is only possible if done by an authority figure.

75.

An expert is asked to comment on the confidence–accuracy relationship of an eyewitness’s report. The expert will state that

a)

extremely high confidence is a good indicator of an accurate memory, but more moderate levels of confidence are uninformative.

b)

the higher the witness’s confidence, the more likely it is that the memory is accurate.

c)

the lower the witness’s confidence, the more likely it is that the memory is accurate.

d)

confidence levels are a poor indicator of the accuracy of recall.

76.

Baddeley and Hitch asked rugby players to remember all of the rugby games they had played over the course of a single season. According to their data, which is the MOST important factor in determining whether the players will remember a particular game?

a)

whether they were satisfied with their performance in the target game

b)

how many other games they have been in since the target game

c)

whether the game took place during the week or on a weekend

d)

how much time has passed since the target game

77.

On October 16th, Susan learned a recipe for her grandma’s famous cookies using her recipe book. On October 22nd, she had to make the cookies at her family reunion. What would you call the 6 days that separated the two dates?

a)

retention interval

b)

retrieval path

c)

interference period

d)

memory span

78.

A great deal of forgetting may reflect a (perhaps temporary) inability to locate the target information in storage. This sort of forgetting is called

a)

interference.

b)

state dependency.

c)

repression.

d)

retrieval failure.

79.

Based on current knowledge, which of the following seems the LEAST well-established reason for a traumatic childhood memory to come to light after many years?

a)

The memory is false and was created, probably with the help of suggestion from an outside party.

b)

There was retrieval failure, but a cue finally appeared that triggered the memory.

c)

The memory was consciously remembered all along, but it was not talked about before.

d)

The memory was repressed because it was too painful, but it has now been recovered.

80.

Professor Hernandez discussed the example of his friend who was riding his bike.  The friend reported that he had gone on a ride and then he remembered being at the curb with the paramedics.  He was later told that he had an accident in which he flew off his bike and landed on his helmet.  This friend suffered from what type of amnesia in this incident:

a)

Both Anterograde and Retrograde Amnesia

b)

Neither Anterograde nor Retrograde Amnesia

c)

Retrograde

d)

Anterograde

81.

Memory for pictures

a)

tends to be poor, and participants have difficulty remembering series of pictures that contain more than a dozen presentations.

b)

shows an influence of schematic knowledge, just like memories of other sorts.

c)

is not influenced by rehearsal.

d)

is accurate even for elements of the picture that were not closely attended during the initial encoding.

82.

Which of the following would be considered a garden-path sentence?

a)

Dogs need cats are silly.

b)

The woman was terribly happy, but she knew it couldn’t last for long, because for as long as she could possibly remember everything in her life had ended badly.

c)

This is it.

d)

Fat people eat accumulates.

83.

Mona has been blind since birth. Which of the following is most likely true about her visual abilities?

a)

She will be unable to perform most tasks requiring mental imagery.

b)

Her performance on imagery tasks is similar to the performance of sighted individuals.

c)

Her imagery abilities, like her other senses, are superior to those of sighted individuals.

d)

She will be unable to perform mental imagery tasks, unlike participants who lost their sight gradually over time.

84.

The principle of minimal attachment refers to a

a)

rule of conversation governing how successive statements within a conversation are related to each other.

b)

principle of speech perception determining the connection between adjacent phonemes.

c)

heuristic used to determine the referent of pronouns within a sentence.

d)

processing strategy in which the listener seeks the simplest possible phrase structure that will accommodate the words heard to that point.

85.

We can think of all English speakers as being bilingual. This is due to which of the following

a)

Words learned early in life come from German/Old English and those learned later come from Latin.

b)

English speakers speak with an American accent instead of a British one.

c)

There are so many speakers of another language in the US that everyone has been exposed to two languages.

d)

All English speakers speak another language.

86.

Participants are given a task that requires them to zoom in on a mental image in order to inspect a detail. Evidence indicates that

a)

zooming in on an image is a virtually instantaneous process.

b)

there is no regular relationship between the amount of zoom and the time required.

c)

the shorter the distance to be zoomed, the more time is required.

d)

the greater the distance to be zoomed, the more time is required.

87.

Imagine that you mistakenly believe that Marie Antoinette was the queen of Austria. You learn later that she was the queen of France. How will this adjustment in knowledge be represented in a PDP model?

a)

The connection between Marie Antoinette and France will become stronger, overriding the connection between Marie Antoinette and Austria.

b)

The connection between Marie Antoinette and Austria will immediately be broken, and a new connection with France will be immediately created.

c)

The connection between Marie Antoinette and Austria will become weaker, while the connection between Marie Antoinette and France will become stronger.

d)

The connection between Austria and France will be broken.

88.

The study of the sounds used in language is usually referred to as

a)

phonology.

b)

morphology.

c)

semantics.

d)

acoustics.

89.

You are coming with a new category called holiday songs. Which item is one that appears because of prototypicality?

a)

All of these answers are correct

b)

Jingle bells

c)

Frosty the snowman

d)

Santa Claus is coming to town

90.

When compared to the question, “A canary is an animal,” the reaction time for, “A cat is an animal” will be

a)

unknown; there is not enough information to make a decision.

b)

equal.

c)

slower.

d)

faster.

91.

Reuben is visiting the aquarium and has just seen an octopus for the very first time. Reuben is therefore likely to have

a)

a prototype for the octopus concept and some exemplar-based knowledge.

b)

only exemplar-based knowledge for the concept of octopus.

c)

a prototype for the octopus concept.

d)

a definition for the concept of octopus

92.

Bob does very well on all of his English papers and is praised for his skilled writing. However, when he is around his friends he says things like “ain’t” and “like” often, though his sentences are still grammatical. When writing he is following , while when speaking he is following __.

a)

prescriptive rules; linguistic universals

b)

prescriptive rules; prohibitive rules

c)

prescriptive rules; descriptive rules

d)

syntax; descriptive rules

93.

According to exemplar-based theories of mental categories, participants identify an object by comparing it to a

a)

single remembered instance of the category.

b)

prototype.

c)

mental image.

d)

definition.

94.

An important difference between categorization via exemplars and categorization via prototypes is that according to exemplar theory,

a)

categories are represented in the mind by a single relatively concrete illustration of the category.

b)

categorization depends on a judgment of resemblance.

c)

one categorizes objects by comparing them to a mentally represented standard.

d)

the standard used in a particular category can vary from one occasion to the next.

95.

Knowing about how language is ordinarily used is technically called

a)

conversational implications.

b)

pragmatics.

c)

psycholinguistics.

d)

pronominalization.

96.

In some studies, participants have been asked to visualize a particular stimulus (e.g., the letter “A” ). If the same stimulus is then presented at low contrast, visualization

a)

primes perception, but no more than when participants were asked to visualize a different letter (e.g., the letter “B” ).

b)

disrupts perception of the stimulus.

c)

serves to prime perception of the stimulus.

d)

has no effect on the perception of the stimulus.

97.

When we say, “There is a family resemblance among all the members of the Martinez family,” we mean that

a)

there are several features that all members of the family have in common.

b)

any pair of family members will have certain traits in common even though there may be no traits shared by all of the family members.

c)

there is at least one feature shared by all the members of the family.

d)

there is at least one identifying trait such that if you have that trait, you are certain to be a member of the family.

98.

To parse a sentence, you need to

a)

figure out the sentence’s meaning.

b)

determine whether the sentence is true or false.

c)

determine the syntactic role of each word in the sentence.

d)

determine the implications of the sentence.

99.

In one procedure, participants were asked to judge which was a “better” even number, 4 or 18. The participants

a)

offered judgments that show that well-defined categories do not show the graded-membership pattern.

b)

were unable to perform this absurd task.

c)

made the judgment in a fashion that implied a graded-membership pattern for the category “even number.”

d)

regarded all of the even numbers as being “equivalently even.”

100.

For the holiday song category, exemplar theory would predict that which songs would help you to form a new subcategory, holiday songs about love.

a)

Last Christmas

b)

All I want for Christmas is you

c)

Both songs are correct

d)

Neither of the songs is correct

101.

Studies of moment-by-moment brain activity indicate that

a)

the brain regions needed for visualization are distinct from the brain regions needed for actual vision.

b)

different people employ different brain areas to support their visualizing.

c)

when participants are visualizing, activity levels are high in brain regions also crucial for visual perception.

d)

the activity of visualization produces widespread activation of the brain, particularly in the left hemisphere.

102.

When asked to determine which city is farther south, Seattle or Montreal, people are likely to mistakenly say “Seattle.” This is probably because

 

a)

people are miserably bad at reading visual images, and so images are no help in this type of problem.

b)

some spatial information is stored in memory in a propositional form rather than an image form.

c)

people depend on their “gut feelings” when they don’t know an answer.

d)

people are great at reading visual images and can discover surprising facts in them.

103.

One group of participants is instructed to imagine a cat and the participants are then asked several yes/no questions about their image. A second group of participants is instructed simply to think about cats, with no mention of imagery, and the participants are then asked the same yes/no questions. We expect that participants responding on the basis of the image will respond more quickly to which of the following questions?

a)

 

Does the cat have a head?

b)

Does the cat have claws?

c)

Does the cat have whiskers?

d)

Is the cat a mammal?

104.

What is not one of the main themes of the chapter on imagery?

a)

Many items in our world have both image and verbal codes

b)

Forming mental images of things we saw in the past requires reconstruction using frames as a base

c)

Forming mental images of things we just saw is like seeing it

d)

Mental rotation is necessary for complex spatial thinking

105.

Sentences such as, “Colorless green ideas sleep furiously,” indicate that

a)

a sentence can be grammatical even if it is meaningless.

b)

it is possible for a sentence to have an irregular phrase structure.

c)

not all sentences need to have a verb phrase.

d)

the semantic content of a sentence governs its syntactic form.

106.

Morphemes are the smallest units that carry meaning. Which of the following are subcategories of morphemes?

a)

Open and closed

b)

Free and Bound

c)

Stationary and Flexible

d)

Transparent and Opaque

107.

A researcher creates a series of synthetic speech sounds gradually ranging, in uniformly small steps, from a “ta” sound at one extreme to a “da” sound at the other extreme. Participants are asked to identify each of these sounds. The researcher should expect to find that

a)

participants’ identification of the sounds midway between a standard “ta” and a standard “da” are heavily influenced by the identity of the sound they heard just previously.

b)

participants’ perceptions of the sounds show an abrupt transition, with all of the sounds closer to “ta” clearly identified as “ta” and all of the sounds closer to “da” clearly identified as “da.”

c)

as the sounds gradually shift from “ta” to “da,” participants’ pattern of responding gradually shifts from “ta” to “da.”

d)

participants identify sounds close to “ta” as “ta” and identify sounds close to “da” as “da,” but they are unable to identify the sounds midway between the two.

108.

In ordinary speech production, the boundaries between syllables or between words are usually

a)

marked by slight changes in pitch.

b)

marked by slight loudness changes.

c)

marked by momentary pauses.

d)

not marked, so they must be determined by the perceiver.

109.

In the word “cats” the “s” is

a)

a phoneme.

b)

a morpheme.

c)

neither a morpheme nor a phoneme.

d)

a morpheme and a phoneme.

110.

A prescriptive rule can be seen in which of the following sentences

a)

He is the one I gave it to

b)

John is the one I gave it to

c)

None of the answers follow prescriptive rules

d)

He is the one to whom I gave it

111.

The term “basic-level category” refers to the

a)

most general level of categorization participants can think of.

b)

most natural level of categorization, which is neither too specific nor too general.

c)

level of categorization regarded by most participants as indisputable.

d)

most specific level of categorization participants can think of.

112.

Studies of individual differences in mental imagery ability indicate that

a)

“good” imagers do well on all imagery tasks, while “less good” imagers have a consistent disadvantage in every imagery task.

b)

each individual has his or her own profile of imagery skills that he or she can do well and skills that he or she does poorly.

c)

women tend to be poorer in visual skills than men.

d)

individuals seem not to differ with regard to their imagery skills.

113.

According to prototype theory, the mental representation for each concept

 

a)

is located on the boundary of the category.

b)

lists the perceptual features that are found only in that category.

c)

represents an average or ideal for the category’s members.

d)

specifies the necessary and sufficient conditions for category membership.

114.

Studies of image scanning indicate that

a)

participants are able to scan across their image virtually instantaneously.

b)

there is a linear function linking scanning distances and scanning times.

c)

the fastest scanning times tend to be obtained with moderate scanning distances.

d)

participants’ scanning rate is slow for short distances but is faster for greater distances.

115.

Researchers have claimed that as one gains more and more experience with a category, the mental representation for that category is likely to shift from

a)

exemplar-based knowledge to a prototype.

b)

a definition to a prototype.

c)

a prototype to exemplar-based knowledge.

d)

 

exemplar-based knowledge to a definition.

116.

The r/l distinction is not recognized by speakers of Japanese. English speakers, however, can recognize this distinction. This is due to which of the following characteristics of speech.

a)

Categorical Perception

b)

Coarticulation

c)

Voiced vs. Unvoiced

d)

Place of articulation

117.

There is a pattern of converging evidence with respect to prototype theory. This means that

a)

the same category members turn out to be privileged in a wide range of experimental tasks.

b)

different individuals agree in their identification of typical category members.

c)

as children grow up, they gain a more specific notion of what it is that identifies each category.

d)

more recent studies have allowed a more precise specification of which category members are typical.

118.

Sign languages use visuomotor codes to communicate. These hand movements are composed of parts. What are the parts that compose these hand movements called.

a)

Lexemes

b)

Phonemes

c)

Fosfines

d)

Proteins

119.

Categorization models based on family resemblance rely on

a)

feature overlap among the members of a category.

b)

the sufficient conditions for membership in a category.

c)

the definition of each category.

d)

the necessary conditions for membership in a category.

120.

Grammatical gender in Spanish (el puente, la leche, etc.) marks common nouns as either being masculine or feminine. This property of language provides

a)

A way to justify being sexist

b)

Amusement for native speakers who catch errors all the time

c)

A way to keep track of objects without saying their names

d)

Nothing it is. Just a pain to keep track of

121.

In using the representativeness heuristic, participants

a)

extrapolate from a sample of evidence if the category is homogeneous but not if the category is heterogeneous.

b)

seem to assume that all instances of the category resemble the prototype for that category.

c)

are unable to discriminate actual patterns of covariation.

d)

are sensitive to the sample size and draw conclusions more readily from a large sample.

122.

Fred is convinced that people who wear sandals cannot be trusted. People who wear shoes, though, seem trustworthy to Fred. This is a peculiar belief about

a)

representativeness

b)

covariation

c)

anchoring

d)

availability

123.

People tend to be more alert and responsive to evidence that supports their preexisting notions and beliefs than to evidence that challenges them. This effect is called

a)

stereotypy

b)

base-rate error

c)

the covariation law

d)

confirmation bias

124.

Dual-process models state that people

a)

 

have two ways of thinking: one is a fast and automatic process, whereas the other is slower but more accurate.

b)

always take both the base rate and the diagnostic information into consideration when thinking about a situation.

c)

have two ways of thinking, one involved in heuristics and the other involved in anchoring.

d)

 

have two ways of thinking, one involved in availability heuristics and the other involved in representative heuristics.

125.

Marissa believes that clowns are evil. She meets two men who are very nice and then learns that they are clowns. Despite this, she does not adjust her belief and continues to think clowns are evil. This is called

a)

  

deductive reasoning.

b)

  

inductive reasoning.

c)

 

confirmation bias.

d)

  

belief perseverance.

126.

A problem-solving heuristic is

a)

a strategy that guides a search through the problem space.

b)

 

needed for unfamiliar problems but not for familiar problems.

c)

 

likely to be less effective than a strategy such as hill climbing or means-end analysis.

d)

  

guaranteed to find a problem solution, if one exists.

127.

Dell is trying to solve the “hobbits and orcs” problem, so she must determine how to move the creatures across a river. Dell is most likely to be helped if she has had earlier experience with

a)

other problems involving transportation across obstacles.

b)

a formally identical problem involving jealous husbands and their wives.

c)

problems illustrating the techniques for dealing with river currents.

d)

a problem with a similar deep structure that also involved hobbits and orcs.

128.

When girls are asked to identify their gender before taking a math test, which of the following is likely to occur?

a)

 

scores will remain constant because gender does not influence math ability

b)

 

scores will increase because they want disprove stereotypes

c)

  

scores will decrease because of stereotype threat

 

d)

 

scores will increase because girls have a higher math intelligence

 

129.

In solving a problem, participants seem to develop a certain attitude or perspective, and they then approach all subsequent problems with the same attitude. This rigidity in approach is often called

a)

 

mental inhibition.

b)

Einstellung

c)

transfer

d)

Zeitgeist

130.

According to Wallas’s theory of creativity, the initial period in which a problem solver gathers information is known as

a)

incubation

b)

preparation

c)

initialization

d)

verification

131.

Which of the following is NOT true about introspective reports?

a)

 

They are sometimes correct.

b)

  

They often feel like inferences.

 

c)

 

They are occasionally wrong.

d)

  

They can be the result of after-the-fact reconstructions.

132.

The anterior cingulate cortex plays a crucial role in

a)

 

regulating prefrontal cortex (PFC) activity.

b)

 

detecting conflict among brain systems.

c)

  

binding representations together from different brain areas.

 

d)

  

regulating attention.

 

133.

Patients with amnesia show evidence of experience but do not have the subjective experience of consciousness. In other words, they are missing

a)

  

access.

b)

intuition

c)

evidence

d)

qualia

134.

Which of the following is a valid conclusion drawn from a conditional statement?

a)

  

Denying the consequent

b)

 

Modus ponens

c)

  

Affirming the consequent

d)

  Modus tollens

135.

Herbert solved the “tumor” problem by using an analogy with the “general and fortress” problem. In doing this, he realized that “tumor” corresponds to “fortress,” “radiation” corresponds to “attacking army,” and so on. The process of determining these correspondences is called

a)

analogizing

b)

parsing

c)

translating

d)

mapping

136.

In an experiment, participants were told of a previously unknown tribe living on a Pacific island. Only one member of this tribe had been observed so far, and he was found to be obese. When asked how likely it was that all members of the tribe were obese, participants were unwilling to extrapolate this information. This shows that participants

a)

had prior beliefs about these islanders.

b)

were using the representative heuristic.

c)

 

are sometimes sensitive to the sample size and can take this into account when making a judgment.

d)

 

are unwilling to make a judgment as they are wary of making an error.

137.

The text gives an example that juxtaposes Bart’s claim that he has a great method for choosing lottery numbers because he used it and won once and Marge’s claim that she has a great method that has worked for her 11 times. This example shows that

a)

 

people’s judgments are too often based on the opinions of others.

b)

 

people understand that accidents may happen but do not happen repeatedly.

c)

 

people understand the risk associated with buying lottery tickets.

 

d)

  

people will never use statistical knowledge.

 

138.

Expert problem solvers

a)

  

tend to categorize problems in terms of their deep structure.

 

b)

  

use analogies less often than do novices.

 

c)

 

focus on the surface of a problem rather than on its deep structure.

d)

  

do not need to rely on mapping in their use of analogies.

 

139.

It was starting to rain and Marcus did not have an umbrella or a hat. To keep dry, he held his psychology textbook over his head. In this case, Marcus

a)

  

has managed to overcome functional fixedness.

 

b)

  

has solved the problem by using functional fixedness.

 

c)

  

is making the best possible use of his textbook.

 

d)

  

is showing the influence of Einstellung.

 

140.

Studies indicate that participants

a)

  

always neglect base-rate information.

 

b)

 

tend to integrate base-rate information with diagnostic information.

c)

 

overutilize base-rate information even if other compelling information is presented.

d)

 

make sensible use of base-rate information if no other information is available.

141.

Lucia reported to her father that she saw a hummingbird in their backyard. Her father, however, knows that hummingbirds are extremely rare in that part of the country. In this situation,

a)

 

the diagnostic information confirms the base rate.

b)

 

the diagnostic information points toward one conclusion but the base rate points toward a different conclusion.

c)

 

there are two pieces of diagnostic information but no base-rate information.

d)

 

the base rate is known but no diagnostic information is available.

 

142.

You are reading a political blog and come across the following sentiment: “Politicians are liars. John Doe is a politician. Therefore, John Doe is a liar.” You are most likely to judge this as logical if you

a)

  

really like politicians.

 

b)

 

are a Republican.

c)

  

dislike politicians.

 

d)

  

are a Democrat.  


 

143.

Which problem-solving heuristic is MOST likely to involve a question such as, “What do I have available to get from my current state to my goal state?”

a)

 

problem-solving set

b)

  

means-end analysis

c)

  

working backward

d)

  

hill climbing

144.

_ intelligence refers to a general flexibility of thought, while ___ intelligence refers to acquired knowledge and skills.

a)

 

general; specific

b)

  

fluid; crystallized

c)

  

general; learned

d)

  

crystallized; fluid

145.

Several authors have proposed that we are generally aware of the _of our own thoughts even though we are usually unaware of the ___ of thought.

a)

  

inferences; strategies

 

b)

  

decision-making processes; products

 

c)

 

implicit mechanisms; explicit mechanisms

d)

  

product; processes

 

146.

A patient with blind sight is likely to show all of the following traits EXCEPT:

a)

 

If asked to reach toward an object, he or she tends to reach with the appropriate hand position (e.g., with the hand open wide if the target is large)

b)

 

If asked to reach toward an object, he or she tends to reach in the appropriate direction.

c)

 

If asked to guess the identity of a visual stimulus, his or her guesses are consistently correct.

d)

  

If asked to walk across the room, he or she does so easily.

 

147.

In one study, participants in Group 1 were given a pill and told, “This pill will make you a bit jumpy, will make your palms sweat, and may give you butterflies in your stomach.” Participants in Group 2 were given the same pill, but they were told, “This pill may make you a little sleepy.” In both cases, the pill was a placebo. All participants were then exposed to electric shocks and were asked to rate how painful each shock had seemed. Given other evidence, we would expect that

a)

 

the participants would not differ in how they rated the shocks, but participants in Group 2 would end up having more positive feelings about the experiment.

b)

 

there would be no difference between the two groups.

c)

 

the participants in Group 1 would rate the shocks as less painful than the participants in Group 2.

d)

 

the participants in Group 2 would rate the shocks as less painful than the participants in Group 1.

148.

Which of these is NOT an example of causal attribution in unconscious thinking?

a)

 

Jenny believes she remembers the color of her last birthday cake.

b)

 

Abby remembers the face of a man so she believes the man was part of a robbery.

c)

 

In an experiment, Jane is willing to experience a higher intensity of electric shock as she believes any adverse reactions are the side effects of a pill that she took prior to the experiment.

d)

 

Louise finds a name familiar so she believes it belongs to a famous person.

149.

In which of the following situations would reliance on routine benefit performance? When one is:

a)

 

performing a task that requires frequent choices and adjustments

b)

 

performing a task that is highly complex and involves the coordination of many elements

c)

 

performing an unfamiliar task

d)

performing a task for which a routine is available but the current circumstances are ones in which it would be best to avoid the habitual routine

150.

Before reading about a depressed individual, participants are told that the case is not at all typical. This instruction will

a)

 

influence participants’ willingness to draw conclusions from a single case.

b)

 

prevent participants from using the representativeness heuristic.

c)

 

not affect participants’ spontaneous use of the representativeness heuristic.

d)

  

encourage participants to use the representativeness heuristic.

 

151.

“I can easily think of the names of several dishonest politicians, so I’m certain there are a lot of dishonest politicians!” This is an example of a judgment relying on

a)

  

illusory covariation.

 

b)

representativeness

c)

  

the availability heuristic.

 

d)

anchoring

152.

In the neuronal workspace hypothesis, workspace neurons

a)

 

carry the content (or information) of consciousness.

b)

 

glue together bits of information from different neural systems to create a unified experience.

c)

 

detect neural systems that are firing in synchrony with each other in order to amplify the output of the strongest of these systems and suppress the output of the others.

d)

  

dictate the rate at which neurons fire.

 

153.

According to the work of Tversky and Kahneman (1987), people are _ when dealing with potential losses, but are ___ when dealing with potential gains.

a)

 

worried; excited

b)

  

risk seeking; risk averse

 

c)

 

risk seeking; risk seeking

d)

  

risk averse; risk seeking

154.

Which of the following is NOT a prerequisite for creativity?

a)

  

Being in the right place at the right time

 

b)

  

Self-motivation

 

c)

 

Knowledge or skills in a particular domain

d)

  

Carrying creativity genes

 

155.

In order to solve a problem, people make use of operators. These are

a)

 

actions or tools used to help change a person’s current state in relation to the problem.

b)

 

a set of constraints or limitations ruling out some solutions to the problem.

c)

 

units of knowledge that a person has at the beginning of the problem.

d)

  

equivalent to a person’s IQ.

 

156.

Which of the following is NOT a problem with intelligence tests?

a)

popularity

b)

  

cultural bias

c)

reliability

d)

validity

157.

One way to turn an ill-defined question into a well-defined question is to

a)

 

add extra constraints or assumptions to the problem so that it has more structure.

b)

  

make the question less specific.

c)

  

make the question rhetorical.

 

d)

  

remove any clear or concrete goal state from the problem.

 

158.

Which of the following statements does NOT support the notion that the environment influences intelligence?

a)

 

IQs are more similar among brothers who are close in age than brothers who are very different in age.

b)

 

IQs are lower overall among children who come from impoverished environments.

c)

  

IQs are more similar among MZ twins than among DZ twins.

d)

 

Changing the environment can lead to an improvement in IQ score.

159.

Tony is trying to decide which flavor of gelato his wife would like best. She has never had gelato before, so Tony bases his decision on her favorite kind of ice cream. Tony is using a(n) _____ to make his decision.

a)

  

base rate

b)

 

frequency estimate

c)

  

attribute substitution

 

d)

  

availability heuristic

 

160.

Herbert solved the “tumor” problem by using an analogy with the “lions and rhino” problem. In doing this, he realized that “tumor” corresponds to “rhino”, “radiation” corresponds to “lions”, and so on. The process of determining these correspondences is called

a)

thinking

b)

parsing

c)

analogizing

d)

translating