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EOC Review PBS Unit 3

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The branch of medical science that deals with causes and control of health problems in the population is called:

a)

Pathology

b)

Epidemiology

c)

Entomology

d)

Histology

2.

True or False: Nosocomial infection is another term for a hospital-acquired infection.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

In 2020, as the number of cases of COVID-19 increased and spread across the world, it became considered:

a)

Epidemic

b)

Endemic

c)

Outbreak

d)

Pandemic

4.

When initially researching a nosocomial outbreak, epidemiologists should record which of the following:

a)

Similarities in the symptoms of affected patients

b)

Timeline for when infection symptoms developed

c)

Locations affected patients visited in the hospital

d)

All of the above

5.

Pathogen is defined as:

a)

An organism in which another organism lives

b)

The establishment of a disease-causing organism within a host

c)

A disease-causing organism

d)

A disorder of function in an organism that results in symptoms

6.

This non-living infectious agent, which causes the flu, cannot replicate on its own & infects healthy cells as hosts.

a)

Prions

b)

Viruses

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungi

e)

Helminths

7.

This living infectious agent, also known as worms, is acquired through consumption of contaminated food or water and often causes rapid weight loss.

a)

Prions

b)

Viruses

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungi

e)

Helminths

8.

This non-living infectious protein causes normal brain proteins to fold abnormally, leading to neurological symptoms (confusion, hallucinations).

a)

Prions

b)

Viruses

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungi

e)

Helminths

9.

This living, animal-like infectious agent thrives in the digestive tract of a host, depriving the host of nutrients from food and can sometimes be treated with antiprotozoal medication.

a)

Prions

b)

Viruses

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungi

e)

Protists

10.

This common living infectious agent, which cause tuberculosis (TB), can be acquired in a variety of ways and can be treated with antibiotics.

a)

Prions

b)

Viruses

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungi

e)

Protists

11.

This living, multicellular infectious agent, which causes athlete's foot, includes mildews, molds, and mushrooms.

a)

Prions

b)

Viruses

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungi

e)

Protists

12.

An infected individual hugs an uninfected individual, depositing the pathogen on the new person. This form of disease transmission is an example of:

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Droplet Transmission

d)

Vector Transmission

13.

An infected individual pays at the grocery store with infected cash, spreading the pathogen to the cashier. This form of disease transmission is an example of:

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Droplet Transmission

d)

Vector Transmission

14.

West Nile Virus is spread through in intermediate insect that carries the pathogen: mosquitos. This form of disease transmission is an example of:

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Droplet Transmission

d)

Vector Transmission

15.

An infected individual coughs into the air, then an uninfected individual inhales the particles, acquiring the pathogen. This form of disease transmission is an example of:

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Droplet Transmission

d)

Vector Transmission

16.

When infectious pathogens enters the body, white blood cells (B-cells), produce THESE molecules to attack or impair the pathogens:

a)

Antigens

b)

Antibodies

c)

Toxins

d)

Vaccines

17.

Vaccinations are an example of:

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Acquired immunity

18.

These components of our innate, or nonspecific, immune system are found in our nose, trachea, and lungs and work with mucus to trap foreign invaders:

a)

Digestive Enzymes

b)

Secretions

c)

Cilia

d)

Phagocytes

19.

These components of our innate, or nonspecific, immune system are found in digestive tract and on our skin to prevent foreign invaders from attaching.

a)

Normal flora

b)

Secretions

c)

Cilia

d)

Phagocytes

20.

The disease etiology of the flu is a/an ______.

a)

bacteria

b)

virus

c)

fungus

d)

protist

21.

When streaking the plate, you must ...

a)

flame the loop or use a new loop in between each quadrant.

b)

only lift the lid part way off the petri dish.

c)

use a zig-zag motion to drag bacteria.

d)

All of the other options.

22.

Why should petri dishes be stored upside down?

a)

The bacteria will grow best that way.

b)

To allow the label to dry.

c)

To prevent condensation from dripping on the bacteria.

d)

To keep the bacteria covered.

23.

The growth medium that is poured into the petri dish is called (the) ____.

a)

agar

b)

aseptic

c)

loop

d)

incubator

24.

Bacteria that are rod-shaped are called _____.

a)

cocci

b)

spirilla

c)

bacilli

d)

All of the other options.

25.

The cell wall of bacteria is made of a sugar and amino acid-rich substance called ____.

a)

glycoprotein

b)

phospholipid bilayer

c)

peptidoglycan

d)

flagellum

26.

Gram + bacteria stains _____ and gram - bacteria stains _____.

a)

purple, pink

b)

pink, purple

c)

pink, pink

d)

purple, purple

27.

The purpose the gram stain test is to determine the thickness of the peptidoglycan layer. ______ bacteria has the thicker layer.

a)

Gram -

b)

Gram +

28.

Look at the image. This bacteria is ______.

a)

Gram + cocci in chains

b)

Gram + bacilli

c)

Gram - bacilli

d)

Gram - cocci in clusters

29.

_______ bacteria are often more dangerous because they have an extra layer called the LPS (lipopolysaccharide) after the peptidoglycan layer. This layer can induce a serious immune response that leads to septic shock.

a)

Gram +

b)

Gram -

30.

Thin peptidoglycan in cell wall

a)

Gram positive bacteria

b)

Gram negative bacteria

31.
These bacteria are
a)
gram positive and negative
b)
gram positive
c)
gram negative
d)
viral
32.

what is the form of the colony?

a)

circular

b)

irregular

c)

filamentous

d)

rhizoid

33.

what is the form?

a)

circular

b)

entire

c)

irregular

d)

rhizoid

34.

Identify the cell part.

a)

flagellum

b)

pilus

c)

mesosome

d)

plasmid

35.

Identify the pili.

a)
b)
c)
d)
36.

Identify the plasmid.

a)
b)
c)
d)
37.

Identify the cell part.

a)

ribosomes

b)

plasmids

c)

chloroplasts

d)

nucleoid

38.

The cause of a disease or condition is called

a)

etiology

b)

exposure

c)

mycobacter

d)

treatment

39.

What does MOI stand for?

a)

Measure of Injury

b)

Mechanism of Instance

c)

Mechanism of Injury

d)

Measure of Instance

40.

What does ABC stand for?

a)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation

b)

Allow, Breathing, Circulation

c)

Airway, Breathing,

Circle

d)

Airway, Breathes, Circulation

41.

Bloodborne pathogens

a)

are disease-causing agents carried and transmitted by infection.

b)

are disease-causing agents carried and transmitted by any fluids.

c)

are disease-causing agents carried and transmitted by water.

d)

are disease-causing agents carried and transmitted by blood.

42.

Which type of bleed would typically be more urgent to treat?

a)

Venous

b)

Arterial

c)

Capillary

d)

Femoral

43.

This member of the emergency response team is responsible for determining in what order the patients get care.

a)

Emergency Medicine Physician

b)

Triage Nurse

c)

Paramedic

d)

Emergency Services Coordinator

44.

Signs of life-threatening bleeding include:

a)

Continuous bleeding

b)

Large- volume bleeding

c)

Pooling of blood

d)

All of the above

45.

When packing a wound, pack gauze & lightly in the wound & then hold pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Where should you apply a tourniquet?

a)

Directly on the wound

b)

2 to 3 inches above the would

c)

Anywhere on the body

d)

None of the above

47.

You should tighten tourniquet until bleeding stops

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Using hospital spaces that normally isn’t used to treat patients (conference rooms, break rooms) and staff who are credentialed, but may not be used to treating il or critically injured patients.

a)

Infrastructure

b)

Conventional Surge Capacity

c)

Contingency Surge Capacity

d)

Crisis Surge Capacity

e)

Regional disaster response plan

49.

Overwhelms the hospital and forces them to use structures outside the hospitals such as tents, nearby buildings; staffing and supplies are based on whatever and whoever is available

a)

Infrastructure

b)

Conventional Surge Capacity

c)

Contingency Surge Capacity

d)

Crisis Surge Capacity

e)

Regional disaster response plan

50.

Using only limited additional space, staff, and supplies; typical “busy day” at the hospital

a)

Infrastructure

b)

Conventional Surge Capacity

c)

Contingency Surge Capacity

d)

Crisis Surge Capacity

e)

Regional disaster response plan

51.

a set of guidelines that describe the resources available to you and protocols for how to respond to situations

a)

Infrastructure

b)

Conventional Surge Capacity

c)

Contingency Surge Capacity

d)

Crisis Surge Capacity

e)

Regional disaster response plan