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Biology EOC Review Quiz

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT one of the eight characteristics of life listed in the Bio EOC Review material?

a)

Ability to grow and develop

b)

Having cellular structure

c)

Ability to adapt to environment

d)

Made up of cells

2.

What type of tropism involves a plant's response to light?

a)

Phototropism

b)

Gravitropism

c)

Thigmotropism

d)

Hydrotropism

3.

According to the Bio EOC Review, which level of organization directly follows 'Organ' in the Pyramid of Life?

a)

Organ System

b)

Cell

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

4.

What is the correct sequence of biological organization from the smallest to largest based on the Pyramid of Life?

a)

Atom, Molecule, Organelle, Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biome, Biosphere

b)

Atom, Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biome, Biosphere

c)

Molecule, Atom, Organelle, Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biome, Biosphere

d)

Atom, Molecule, Cell, Organelle, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biome, Biosphere

5.

What is the term used to describe the attraction between molecules of the same substance, which also creates surface tension in water?

a)

Adhesion

b)

Cohesion

c)

Polarity

d)

Capillarity

6.

Which property of water is described by its ability to dissolve many different substances?

a)

Density

b)

Specific heat

c)

Universal solvent

d)

Heat of vaporization

7.

What is the significance of water's high specific heat?

4 lines
8.

What does the pH scale measure?

a)

The density of a liquid

b)

The heat required to raise the temperature of a substance

c)

The acidity or basicity of a solution

d)

The cohesion between molecules

9.

Which of the following is true about the polarity of water?

a)

Water molecules share electrons equally.

b)

Water is nonpolar and has a symmetric shape.

c)

Water is polar with a partially negative oxygen and a positive hydrogen.

d)

Water is completely non-reactive due to its polarity.

10.

What is the process called that involves the anabolic build-up of larger molecules from smaller ones and results in the release of H2O as a waste product?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration synthesis

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Cellular respiration

11.

Which type of reaction is hydrolysis considered to be?

a)

Anabolic

b)

Catabolic

c)

Metabolic

d)

Endergonic

12.

What is required for hydrolysis to occur?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

O2

d)

N2

13.

What is the molecular formula for a monosaccharide?

a)

C6 H12 O5

b)

C6 H12 O7

c)

C6 H12 O6

d)

C5 H10 O5

14.

Which of the following is NOT a function of carbohydrates?

a)

Providing short term energy

b)

Sparing the use of proteins for energy

c)

Building block of nucleic acids

d)

Glycosidic linkage

15.

Which of the following is a disaccharide?

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Cellulose

16.

What elements are primarily found in lipids?

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

b)

Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen

c)

Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sulfur

d)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Phosphorus

17.

What type of bonds are more prevalent in unsaturated fats compared to saturated fats?

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Single bonds

c)

Double bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

18.

Which of the following is a function of lipids in organisms?

a)

Transmitting genetic information

b)

Catalyzing biochemical reactions

c)

Providing long term energy

d)

Enhancing water solubility

19.

What is the state of unsaturated fats at room temperature?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gaseous

d)

Plasma

20.

What is the primary role of glycerol in lipids?

a)

To form ester bonds

b)

To build cell membranes

c)

To provide pigmentation

d)

To store genetic information

21.

What is the main difference between the fats found in animals and plants?

a)

Animal fats are liquid at room temperature, while plant fats are solid

b)

Animal fats are unsaturated, while plant fats are saturated

c)

Animal fats are saturated, while plant fats are unsaturated

d)

There is no difference; both are the same

22.

Identify the component labeled 'P' in the phospholipid structure diagram.

a)

Glycerol

b)

Fatty acid

c)

Phosphate

d)

Cholesterol

23.

What elements are commonly found in proteins?

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen

b)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Phosphorus

c)

Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Sulfur, Phosphorus

d)

Carbon, Oxygen, Sulfur, Chlorine

24.

What is the monomer of proteins?

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Fatty Acids

d)

Glucose

25.

What type of bond is primarily involved in the structure of proteins?

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

Peptide bonds

d)

Covalent bonds

26.

What can cause the denaturation of proteins?

a)

Freezing temperatures

b)

Changes in pH and temperature

c)

Exposure to oxygen

d)

Absence of carbon

27.

Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?

a)

Supply energy

b)

Store hereditary information

c)

Make body proteins

d)

Run reactions

28.

What elements are found in nucleic acids?

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Sulfur

b)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorus

c)

Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Sulfur, Phosphorus

d)

Carbon, Oxygen, Sulfur, Chlorine

29.

What is the monomer of nucleic acids?

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Fatty Acids

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Glucose

30.

Which type of bond is characteristic of the backbone of nucleic acid structure?

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

Phosphodiester bonds

d)

Glycosidic bonds

31.

Which of the following is NOT a nucleic acid?

a)

ATP

b)

RNA

c)

DNA

d)

Hemoglobin

32.

What is the primary function of enzymes in chemical reactions?

a)

To increase the temperature of reactions

b)

To speed up chemical reactions

c)

To create new substrates

d)

To store energy

33.

Which type of molecule decreases enzyme activity?

a)

Substrates

b)

Activators

c)

Inhibitors

d)

Coenzymes

34.

What are coenzymes made of?

a)

Inorganic materials

b)

Carbon

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen

35.

What affects enzyme activity?

a)

Temperature and pressure only

b)

Chemical environment and substrate concentration only

c)

Temperature, pressure, chemical environment, and concentration of substrate

d)

pH levels and light exposure

36.

What is the role of activators in enzyme activity?

a)

They decrease the activation energy

b)

They increase the activation energy

c)

They decrease enzyme activity

d)

They increase enzyme activity

37.

What is the basic unit of life according to the Cell Theory?

a)

Organ

b)

Organism

c)

Cell

d)

Tissue

38.

Which of the following statements is true about prokaryotic cells?

a)

They have a nucleus.

b)

They reproduce with mitosis.

c)

They have no nucleus or membrane-bound organelles.

d)

They have multiple vacuoles.

39.

What happens to animal cells in a hypertonic solution?

a)

Cells shrink.

b)

Cells burst.

c)

Cells remain the same.

d)

Cells enlarge.

40.

Which component is not found in animal cells but is present in plant cells?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cell wall

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Cytoplasm

41.

What is the result for plant cells in an isotonic solution?

a)

Cells shrink.

b)

Cells burst.

c)

Cells remain the same.

d)

Cells enlarge.

42.

What is the primary function of the Rough ER in a cell?

a)

Makes lipids and detoxifies

b)

Storage

c)

Makes proteins

d)

Breaks down waste

43.

Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi body

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosome

44.

What role does the Golgi body play in protein synthesis?

a)

Synthesizes proteins

b)

Ships proteins after checking their correctness

c)

Breaks down proteins

d)

Stores proteins

45.

According to the Endosymbiotic Theory, why do mitochondria and chloroplasts live symbiotically with larger cells?

a)

They provide energy through ATP

b)

They can move independently

c)

They are remnants of ancient prokaryotes that were ingested

d)

They replicate using mitosis

46.

What is the primary function of peripheral proteins in the cell membrane?

a)

To facilitate the diffusion of ions

b)

To recognize cells and hormones

c)

To transport substances across the membrane

d)

To provide energy for active transport

47.

Which type of protein is embedded in the cell membrane and assists in transporting substances that are too large to simply pass through?

a)

Glycoproteins

b)

Peripheral proteins

c)

Integral proteins

d)

Glycolipids

48.

What is osmosis?

a)

Movement of water from an area of low concentration to high concentration

b)

Movement of solutes from high concentration to low concentration

c)

Movement of water from an area of high concentration to low concentration

d)

Active transport of ions across the cell membrane

49.

Which process involves the movement of substances across the cell membrane against their concentration gradient?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Passive transport

c)

Active transport

d)

Diffusion

50.

What is the role of the sodium-potassium pump in active transport?

a)

To facilitate the diffusion of potassium ions

b)

To create a concentration gradient of sodium ions

c)

To bind substances and transport them across the membrane using ATP

d)

To ingest substances from the external environment

51.

What occurs during exocytosis?

a)

Substances are ingested into the cell

b)

Large particles are usually expelled from the cell

c)

Water moves across the cell membrane

d)

Solutes are transported without energy

52.

What does ATP stand for in the context of cellular energy?

a)

Adenosine Triphosphate

b)

Adenosine Tetraphosphate

c)

Adenine Triphosphorus

d)

Adenosine Triphosphonate

53.

What is the lower energy molecule called that is formed when ATP releases energy?

a)

ADP

b)

ATP

c)

ACP

d)

AMP

54.

What type of energy does ATP convert into to perform cellular work?

a)

Potential Energy

b)

Chemical Energy

c)

Kinetic Energy

d)

Thermal Energy

55.

What is the process called when energy is released from ATP to perform cellular work?

a)

Catabolism

b)

Anabolism

c)

Metabolism

d)

Photolysis

56.

What is the primary function of the upper epidermis in leaves as shown in the diagram?

a)

To transport water

b)

To carry out photosynthesis

c)

To produce wax and protect the leaf

d)

To store food

57.

Where does most photosynthesis occur in the leaf according to the diagram?

a)

Lower Epidermis

b)

Spongy Mesophyll

c)

Palisade Mesophyll

d)

Stoma

58.

What is the role of the stoma as indicated in the leaf diagram?

a)

To produce chloroplasts

b)

To facilitate gas exchange

c)

To transport nutrients

d)

To increase leaf rigidity

59.

According to the diagram, what structure within the chloroplasts is responsible for the light reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

Stroma

b)

Outer membrane

c)

Thylakoid

d)

Inner membrane

60.

What is the overall chemical equation for photosynthesis as simplified in the image?

a)

CO2 + H2O + light energy → O2 + C6H12O6

b)

CO2 + O2 + light energy → H2O + C6H12O6

c)

H2O + O2 + light energy → CO2 + C6H12O6

d)

C6H12O6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O + energy

61.

What is the primary function of the Calvin Cycle in photosynthesis as depicted in the diagram?

a)

To convert light energy into chemical energy

b)

To produce oxygen as a byproduct

c)

To convert carbon dioxide into glucose

d)

To absorb water from the soil

62.

According to the diagram, what are the inputs for the Light Reactions in photosynthesis?

a)

ATP and NADPH

b)

Glucose and oxygen

c)

Water and carbon dioxide

d)

Oxygen and glucose

63.

What is the role of NADPH in the photosynthesis process as shown in the diagram?

a)

It helps in the absorption of sunlight.

b)

It acts as an energy carrier transferring chemical energy.

c)

It is used to produce ATP from ADP.

d)

It converts glucose into carbon dioxide.

64.

What is produced as a byproduct of the Light Reactions in photosynthesis according to the diagram?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Glucose

c)

Oxygen

d)

Water

65.

What is the overall goal of Photosystem II in light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

Production of glucose

b)

ATP production

c)

NADPH production

d)

Oxygen release

66.

How many times does the membrane of the thylakoid pump H+ from the stroma side to the lumen side during one complete cycle?

a)

12 times

b)

10 times

c)

8 times

d)

15 times

67.

What is the primary role of the electron transport chain in the light-dependent reactions?

a)

Splitting water molecules

b)

Transporting electrons between photosystems

c)

Producing carbon dioxide

d)

Converting ADP to ATP

68.

What molecule is produced by the enzyme to create NADPH from NADP+ in the light-dependent reactions?

a)

Glucose

b)

ATP

c)

Oxygen

d)

Electron carrier

69.

What is the primary function of the Calvin Cycle in photosynthesis?

a)

To absorb sunlight and generate heat

b)

To produce oxygen through the breakdown of water

c)

To convert carbon dioxide into glucose

d)

To release carbon dioxide as a waste product

70.

Which molecule acts as a source of energy for the Calvin Cycle?

a)

CO2

b)

NADPH

c)

ATP

d)

RuBP

71.

What role does RuBisCO play in the Calvin Cycle?

a)

It absorbs light energy.

b)

It acts as an enzyme to facilitate reactions.

c)

It transports glucose out of the chloroplast.

d)

It captures oxygen molecules.

72.

How many times must the Calvin Cycle run to produce one molecule of glucose?

a)

Once

b)

Twice

c)

Three times

d)

Six times

73.

What are the products returned to the light reaction after the Calvin Cycle?

a)

ADP+P and NADP

b)

ATP and NADPH

c)

Glucose and oxygen

d)

CO2 and H2O

74.

What is the process called that releases energy by breaking down glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

Fermentation

d)

Krebs Cycle

75.

During cellular respiration, in which stage is pyruvic acid broken down into carbon dioxide?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Calvin Cycle

76.

What is the process that releases energy by breaking down food molecules in the presence of oxygen?

a)

Anaerobic Respiration

b)

Fermentation

c)

Aerobic Respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

77.

In cellular respiration, what is the name of the electron carrier molecule?

a)

ATP

b)

Glucose

c)

NADH

d)

Chlorophyll

78.

What process uses high energy from the Krebs Cycle to convert ADP into ATP with the help of ATP synthase?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Calvin Cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Light Reaction

79.

What is the end product of glycolysis in cellular respiration?

a)

Glucose

b)

Oxygen

c)

Pyruvic acid

d)

Carbon dioxide

80.

During the Krebs Cycle, how many molecules of NADH are generated?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

81.

What is the main purpose of the Electron Transport Chain in cellular respiration?

a)

To produce glucose

b)

To generate ATP

c)

To consume oxygen

d)

To produce pyruvic acid

82.

How many ATP molecules are approximately generated from one glucose molecule through cellular respiration?

a)

2-4 ATP

b)

10-12 ATP

c)

30-32 ATP

d)

36-40 ATP

83.

What molecule acts as the final electron acceptor in the Electron Transport Chain?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Water

c)

Oxygen

d)

Glucose

84.

What is the primary location within the cell where aerobic cellular respiration occurs?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

85.

What are the main products of aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

Glucose and Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide and Water

c)

ATP and Glucose

d)

Oxygen and ATP

86.

During aerobic respiration, glucose and oxygen combine to produce which of the following?

a)

Carbon Dioxide, Water, and ATP

b)

Carbon Dioxide, ATP, and Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen, Glucose, and ATP

d)

Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide, and Water

87.

Which molecule is not a direct output of the Krebs cycle?

a)

ATP

b)

NADH

c)

FADH2

d)

Glucose

88.

What is produced along with lactic acid during anaerobic respiration in animal cells?

a)

CO2 and H2O

b)

NAD+ and FADH2

c)

NADH and 2 ATP

d)

O2 and Glucose

89.

During lactic acid fermentation in animal cells, how many ATP molecules are retained from the glycolysis process?

a)

4 ATP

b)

2 ATP

c)

6 ATP

d)

8 ATP

90.

What happens to lactic acid after it is produced in muscle cells?

a)

It is excreted as waste

b)

It is converted back to pyruvic acid in the liver

c)

It forms glucose directly

d)

It breaks down into CO2 and water

91.

Which of the following is NOT a product of anaerobic respiration in animal cells?

a)

Lactic acid

b)

NADH

c)

ATP

d)

CO2

92.

What rule did Chargaff create that relates to the composition of DNA?

a)

Chargaff's rule states that the amount of A equals the amount of T, and the amount of C equals the amount of G.

b)

Chargaff's rule states that the amount of A equals the amount of C, and the amount of T equals the amount of G.

c)

Chargaff's rule states that the amount of A, T, C, and G each make up 25% of the DNA.

d)

Chargaff's rule states that the amount of A and T combined is less than the amount of C and G combined.

93.

Which scientists used X-ray crystallography data to help determine the structure of DNA?

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Franklin and Wilkins

c)

Chargaff and Franklin

d)

Watson and Chargaff

94.

Who were awarded the Nobel Prize for determining the structure of DNA?

a)

Franklin and Wilkins

b)

Watson and Crick

c)

Chargaff and Wilkins

d)

Watson and Franklin

95.

What components make up a nucleotide as shown in the diagram?

4 lines
96.

What type of chemical bond is primarily responsible for the structure of the DNA molecule shown in the diagram?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Metallic bond

97.

Which components form the backbone of the DNA structure as depicted in the diagram?

a)

Nitrogenous bases and phosphate groups

b)

Phosphate groups and deoxyribose sugars

c)

Deoxyribose sugars and nitrogenous bases

d)

Hydrogen bonds and phosphate groups

98.

According to the diagram, what are the two types of nitrogenous bases found in DNA?

a)

Purines and pyrimidines

b)

Amino acids and peptides

c)

Ribose and deoxyribose

d)

Glycerol and fatty acids

99.

What is the significance of the 5' and 3' labels in the DNA structure diagram?

a)

They indicate the direction of DNA replication.

b)

They represent the types of covalent bonds.

c)

They distinguish between different DNA molecules.

d)

They show the location of genetic mutations.