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EOC practice - all units

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does a reviewer do during peer-review?

a)

Focus on mistakes in spelling

b)

Check for mistakes and bias

c)

Repeat the experiments in the article

d)

Change data to support results

2.

How do scientific theories compare to hypotheses?

a)

Theories unify a broad range of observations and hypotheses

b)

Hypotheses combine the ideas of several theories to explain events

c)

Theories are the same as hypotheses

d)

Hypotheses are the dominant view among scientists

3.

A scientific hypothesis

a)

can be based on personal beliefs or opinions

b)

does not have to be tested to be accepted as correct

c)

is a proven fact with much evidence to support it

d)

can be tested by experiments or observations

4.

The basic unit of length in the metric system is the

a)

yard

b)

meter

c)

gram

d)

liter

5.

Which of the following is NOT a goal of science?

a)

to establish a collection of unchanging truths

b)

to investigate and understand the natural world

c)

to use derived explanations to make useful predictions

d)

to explain events in the natural world

6.

During a controlled experiment, a scientist isolates and tests

a)

a mass of information

b)

a single variable

c)

a control group

d)

a conclusion

7.

The water molecule is formed from two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. Which type of force attracts one water molecule to another?

a)

nonpolar covalent bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

polar covalent bond

d)

hydrogen bond

8.

The ability of water molecules to bond to each other creates high surface tension on standing water. What is the name of the characteristic that allows water to have a high surface tension?

a)

adhesion

b)

hydrophobic

c)

hydrophilic

d)

cohesion

9.

Water molecules have the ability to dissolve many solutes associated with cells. Which attribute of water molecules causes this ability?

a)

polarity

b)

the shape of the molecule

c)

hydrophobic

d)

nonpolarity

10.

Water has the ability to dissolve salts and carry dissolved carbon dioxide. How does this action help the human body maintain homeostasis?

a)

distribution of needed materials to the cells

b)

removal of waste from the cells and the body

c)

absorption of needed materials from the environment

d)

production of energy for cells

11.

Which formula below shows a carbohydrate?

a)

C₆H₁₂O₆

b)

C₂H₄O₂

c)

C₂H₃O₃

d)

C₂NH₃O₅ and 2 R groups

12.

Which type of molecule forms the cell membrane and assists in regulating the movement of materials into and out of a cell?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

13.

Phospholipids clump together when in contact with water. Which type of material shows this characteristic?

a)

nucleic acids

b)

hydrophobic materials

c)

amino acids

d)

hydrophilic materials

14.

What is one of the functions of nucleic acids?

a)

They regulate the flow of materials into the cell.

b)

They help produce energy within the cell.

c)

They transmit genetic information.

d)

They energize chemical reactions within the cells.

15.

Which of the following is not a fundamental idea of cell theory?

a)

All organisms contain prokaryotic cells.

b)

Cells arise only from previously existing cells.

c)

Cells are the basic unit of structure for all living organisms.

d)

All living organisms are composed of one or more cells.

16.

What is one significant disadvantage of scanning and transmission electron microscopes?

a)

cells cannot absorb electrons

b)

not as powerful as light microscopes

c)

cells die when prepared for viewing

d)

cannot observe plant cells

17.

A cell's genetic material is contained in the ____.

a)
nucleus
b)

cell wall

c)

lysosome

d)

ribosome

18.

The primary function of the cell wall is to

a)

support and protect the cell.

b)

store DNA.

c)

direct the activities of the cell.

d)

help the cell move.

19.

The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called

a)

osmotic pressure.

b)

osmosis.

c)

pinocytosis.

d)

active transport.

20.

Which organelles are involved in energy conversion?

a)

mitochondria and chloroplasts

b)

mitochondria and ribosomes

c)

smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Golgi apparatus and chloroplasts

21.

Which of the following enclose their DNA in a nucleus?

a)

Eukaryote

b)

Prokaryote

c)

Bacteria

d)

Protist

22.

Which of the following organisms are prokaryotes?

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

bacteria

d)

fungi

23.

Which organelle breaks down organelles that are no longer useful?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

lysosome

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

mitochondrion

24.

Unlike the cell membrane, the cell wall is

a)

found in all organisms

b)

composed of a lipid bilayer

c)

selectively permeable

d)

a rigid structure

25.

What are the smallest objects that biologists study?

a)

cells

b)

body organs

c)

molecules

d)

organisms

26.

Which of these is NOT true of cells?

a)

They are much like empty rooms

b)

They were first discovered in the 1600s

c)

They can be found in pond water

d)

They contain a huge array of working parts.

27.

Which term describes the relatively constant internal physical conditions of an organism?

a)

cell specialization

b)

homeostasis

c)

organ system

d)

unicellularity

28.

Active transport moves substances against the concentration gradient. Which of the following statements is true about active transport?

a)

Active transport uses proteins in the process.

b)

Facilitated diffusion moves molecules through the plasma membrane.

c)

Facilitated diffusion requires large amounts of energy

29.

What types of materials are expelled from cells during exocytosis?

a)

large molecules such as hormones

b)

positive and negative ions

c)

small molecules such as carbon dioxide

d)

water and electrolytes

30.

Cilia and flagella are used to move cells through watery environments. What role do these cell parts play on stationary cells?

a)

They hold neighboring cells in a fixed position.

b)

They move substances along the surface of the cell.

c)

They protect the cell by whipping at harmful cells.

d)

They transmit waste materials away from the cell.

31.

Which statement is true about bacterial cells?

a)

The cells are very large.

b)

The cells have no nucleus.

c)

They are eukaryotes.

d)

They have organelles.

32.

In an experiment, Tony placed a potted plant under a bell jar, completely sealing the jar to the table top. After placing a box over the bell jar for 24 hours, he measured the concentrations of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the gas in the jar. Which statement best describes the measurements he would find in the jar, compared with the concentrations of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the classroom air?

a)

Oxygen concentration increased; carbon dioxide concentration decreased.

b)

Concentrations of both carbon dioxide and oxygen increased.

c)

Concentrations of both carbon dioxide and oxygen decreased.

d)

Carbon dioxide concentration increased; oxygen concentration decreased.

33.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

Photosynthesis produces light energy while cellular respiration produces chemical energy.

b)

The reactants of cellular respiration are the reactants of photosynthesis.

c)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration use light energy to produce chemical energy.

d)

The products of cellular respiration are the reactants of photosynthesis.

34.

Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration take place in the cells of a leaf. What products from cellular respiration are used in photosynthesis?

a)

glucose and carbon dioxide

b)

glucose and oxygen

c)

water and glucose

d)

water and carbon dioxide

35.

Nonvascular plants include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts. They are usually just a few cells thick and grow close to the ground. What can plants that have vascular tissue do that plants lacking vascular tissue cannot do?

a)

transport materials such as water and sugars

b)

carry out photosynthesis

c)

reproduce

d)

absorb nutrients and minerals from the soil

36.

Dermal tissue covers all parts of a plant’s body. What function does dermal tissue provide?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

protection

c)

reproduction

d)

transport

37.

The colors, sizes, and shapes of flowers are determined by each species’ genetic makeup. In which physiological process does a flower play a role in plants?

a)

transport

b)

photosynthesis

c)

absorption

d)

reproduction

38.

Plants use sunlight to carry out photosynthesis. Photosynthesis makes sugars. The movement of the sugars through a plant is called translocation. Which plant tissue is involved in translocation?

a)

phloem

b)

xylem

c)

cork

d)

ground tissue

39.

In a plant, the transportation of food and water is carried out by vascular tissue. Which tissue in a stem conducts water upward?

a)

phloem

b)

xylem

c)

dermal tissue

d)

ground tissue

40.

Terrestrial plants have stomata on the surface of their leaves, surrounded by guard cells that change shape in response to environmental factors. Which of the following best explains how the structure of the leaf is used in processes that occur in plants?

a)

Water enters the plant through the surface of the leaf for transpiration

b)

Gases for photosynthesis are exchanged through the surface of the leaf

c)

Energy for cellular reproduction is absorbed through the surface of the leaf

d)

Carbon dioxide enters the plant through the surface of the leaf for cellular reproduction

41.

Plant cells that are specialized for cell division are most likely found in which part of the plant?

a)

root tips

b)

leaf epidermis

c)

stem epidermis

d)

vascular tissue

42.

A plant species lives in an area with limited sunlight. Which physiological adaptation would be most useful to the plant?

a)

colorful flowers

b)

large leaves

c)

deep roots

d)

thin cuticle

43.

Which structure in the leaf controls the opening and closing of the stoma?

a)

cuticle

b)

epidermis

c)

guard cell

d)

spongy mesophyll

44.

Which statement describes the role of flowers in plant survival?

a)

Flowers can absorb carbon dioxide for sugar production.

b)

Flowers produce oxygen through cellular respiration.

c)

Flowers contain cells that carry out photosynthesis.

d)

Flowers contain cells that produce gametes.

45.

What is the main purpose of seeds in plants that have them?

a)

To protect and distribute the zygote.

b)

To entice animals to eat the plant.

c)

To be fertilized by other plants.

d)

To store water for the mother plant.

46.

Which statement describes how photosynthesis and cellular respiration are interrelated?

a)

Oxygen is produced during cellular respiration and stored during photosynthesis.

b)

Carbon dioxide and water released by cellular respiration are used in photosynthesis.

c)

Photosynthesis releases the energy that is stored during the process of cellular respiration.

d)

Glucose is used during cellular respiration to produce food that is broken down during photosynthesis.

47.

What function does ATP carry out in living things?

a)

aids in protein folding and coiling

b)

used to capture and transfer energy

c)

identifies DNA start sequences for transcription

d)

helps maintain the fluidity of cell membranes

48.

How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis related, in terms of energy?

a)

The energy captured in photosynthesis is used to power cellular respiration.

b)

The energy transformed in cellular respiration is used to power photosynthesis.

c)

Photosynthesis and respiration perform the same task in terms of energy transformation.

d)

Energy is not involved in either photosynthesis or cellular respiration.

49.

The first phase of mitosis is called

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

interphase

50.

The typical human body cell contains 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are found in a typical human sperm?

a)

23

b)

45

c)

46

d)

92

51.

It is often said that normal cells change into cancerous cells frequently in our bodies. Which of the following explanations accounts for the relative rarity of cancer?

a)

The cancerous cells die on their own

b)

The DNA repair system fixes the mutation that causes cancer

c)

The cancer cells grow only very slowly at first

d)

The cancerous cells are normally crowded out by normal cell growth

52.

Crossing over would most likely occur during which stage of the cell cycle?

a)

when DNA is being replicated

b)

when homologous chromosomes line up in pairs

53.

Which of the following happens when a cell divides?

a)

The cell’s volume increases.

b)

It becomes more difficult for the cell to get rid of wastes.

c)

Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell’s DNA.

d)

It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients.

54.

Compared to small cells, large cells have more trouble

a)

dividing.

b)

producing daughter cells.

c)

storing needed materials and waste products.

d)

moving needed materials in and waste products out.

55.

DNA replication occurs during

a)

anaphase.

b)

interphase.

c)

metaphase.

d)

prophase.

56.

Which of the following occurs in telophase?

a)

chromosomes condense

b)

chromosomes line up

c)

chromosomes move to opposite poles

d)

chromosomes decondense

57.

An advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that sexual reproduction

a)

takes less time

b)

requires more time

c)

provides genetic diversity

d)

produces identical offspring

58.

A cell that undergoes repeated mitosis without cytokinesis would have

a)

many daughter cells.

b)

fewer chromosomes.

c)

many nuclei.

d)

cancerous properties.

59.

Which of the following happens when a cell divides?

a)

The cell’s volume increases.

b)

It becomes more difficult for the cell to get rid of wastes.

c)

Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell’s DNA.

d)

It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients.

60.

What is the role of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

a)

They help separate the chromosomes.

b)

They break down the nuclear membrane.

c)

They duplicate the DNA.

d)

They make the chromosomes visible.

61.

Which choice describes DNA after replication has taken place?

a)

one molecule with two original strands and one molecule with two new strands

b)

two molecules, each with one original and one new strand

c)

two molecules, each with two new strands

d)

two molecules, each with two old strands

62.

At what point in the cell cycle does DNA replication occur and why?

a)

before a cell divides, to provide that the DNA will fit into the resulting cells

b)

before a cell divides, to ensure each of the two resulting cells with a complete set of DNA instructions

c)

during cell division, to ensure that the DNA will fit into the resulting cells

d)

after a cell divides, to provide each of the two resulting cells with a complete set of DNA instructions

63.

The sequence of DNA below is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded by this segment? 5' ATCACGGCTGGC 3'

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

20

64.

Mitosis and meiosis are processes involved in cellular reproduction. Which of the following describes an event that results from mitosis but NOT meiosis?

a)

two stages of cell division

b)

replication of cellular genetic material

c)

daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell

d)

four daughter cells that are produced from each parent cell

65.

How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different from each other?

a)

sexual reproduction requires two parents and asexual reproduction requires only one parent

b)

asexual reproduction requires two parents and sexual reproduction requires only one parent

c)

mutation rates are lower in sexual reproduction than in asexual reproduction

d)

asexual reproduction occurs only in multicellular organisms

66.

Which type of reproduction leads to increased genetic variation on a population?

a)

Parthenogenesis

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

Sexual reproduction

67.

Which of the following phrases best describes cancer?

a)

absence of cyclins in the DNA

b)

multiple gene mutations on a chromosome of DNA

c)

uncontrolled cell growth caused by mutations in genes that control the cell cycle

d)

presence of genetic defects caused by hereditary disorders

68.

Plant 2 is produced asexually from Plant 1. If the leaf cells of Plant 1 have 56 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be found in the leaf cells of Plant 2?

a)

a. 14

b)

b. 28

c)

c. 56

d)

d. 112

69.

One of the laws Mendel established is the law of independent assortment. Assume that a parent has the genotype Aabb and that this parent produces gametes. Which of the following illustrates the letter or letters that could be present in one of these gametes according to the law of independent assortment?

a)

a. AB

b)

b. ab

c)

c. A

d)

d. Aa

70.

The basis of heredity was the direct result of critical and logical thinking. After considering alternative scientific explanations to explain the data he obtained, Gregor Mendel laid the foundation for genetics. His conclusions were based on carefully planned investigations. What organism did Mendel select to carry out his investigations?

a)

a. pea plants

b)

b. snapdragon plants

c)

c. mice

d)

d. fruit flies

71.

One of the laws of heredity that Mendel developed was the law of segregation. What does this law state?

a)

a. When a gamete forms, the two alleles that determine a trait separate so that only one of the alleles is present in the gamete

b)

b. A trait can be either recessive or dominant

c)

c. Both parents pass on their hereditary information to their offspring

d)

d. The gene that controls one trait is inherited separately from a gene that controls another trait

72.

Scientists use recombinant DNA technology to genetically engineer bacteria to produce substances such as human insulin. Why are bacteria used in this process?

a)

a. bacteria rarely undergo mutations

b)

b. bacteria lack DNA

c)

c. bacteria are unicellular

d)

d. bacteria reproduce rapidly

73.

The mule is an animal that is often used to do heavy farm work. A mule is an animal that is developed by breeding animals of two species—a male donkey and a female horse. The offspring known as a mule is not a distinct species because it is sterile and unable to produce offspring. Which of the following best describes a mule?

a)

a. a transgenic organism

b)

b. a clone

c)

c. a knockout organism

d)

d. a hybrid

74.

Scientists have developed transgenic crops that use genes from other organisms to produce substances that protect them from damage by insect pests or frost. Which type of biotechnology is involved in the production of such crops?

a)

a. gene mapping

b)

b. pharmacogenomics

c)

c. genomics

d)

d. genetic engineering

75.

Scientists have developed bioengineered crops that are more resistant to damage by frost, chemicals, and drought. These crops have been bioengineered also to produce larger crop yields. What is a potential drawback to increased use of bioengineered crops?

a)

a. decreased food supply

b)

b. lower food costs

c)

c. a loss of genetic variation

d)

d. increased disease resistance

76.

The following DNA sequence undergoes transcription: G G T A T A . What RNA sequence will result from the transcription of this sequence?

a)
CCAUAU
b)

CCGUTA

c)

AATUAU

77.

A substance was added to a cell culture that inactivated the tRNA in the cell. Which is the best prediction of what will occur in this cell culture?

a)

a. Transcription will not occur

b)

b. Ribosomes will not form

c)

c. DNA will not be copied

d)

d. Amino acids will not form proteins