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Wireless Communication

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 25hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A periodic signal is always:

a)

a.Could be either analogue or digital.

b)

b.Both analogue and digital.

d)

d.Analogue.

2.

A signal is periodic when:

a)

The same signal pattern repeats every 1 second.

b)

The same signal pattern repeats every 1 Hz.

c)

The same signal pattern repeats over time.

d)

The same signal pattern repeats over frequency.

3.

Assuming two level signalling, what is the channel capacity if its frequency range is 100-400Hz according to Nyquist’s capacity measure in a noise free channel?

a)

300bps.

b)

600bps

c)

500bps.

d)

300Hz.

e)

500Hz.

4.

Select 3 of the below options that can describe a digital signal.

a)

The signal may be discontinuous

b)

The signal is discontinuous

c)

The signal intensity maintains a constant value for some period of time.

d)

The signal may be discrete.

e)

The signal is discrete.

5.

If the signal over noise ratio (S/N) is equal to 1000 what is the SNR in dB?

a)

None of the above

b)

20

c)

40

d)

30

6.

Which one of the following cases is Digital data to digital signal?

a)

Computer communication using telephone line

b)

Computer communication using ISDN.

c)

Home telephone system.

d)

Digital mobile communication system

7.

According to Shannon what is the formula to calculate the channel maximum capacity on a noisy channel in bps (where C the channel capacity in bps and B the channel bandwidth in Hz)?

a)

C = SNRlog2(1+B).

b)

C = Blog2(SNR+1).

c)

C = SNRlog10(1+B).

d)

C = Blog2(SNR).

8.

Select 3 of the below signals you think are analogue.

a)

Voice

b)

Pressure

c)

Video

d)

.ASCII code

9.

Wave length is measured in

a)

Hz

b)

Cycles per metre

c)

Metres

d)

Seconds

10.

Which of the following are key factors that affect the transmission in any wireless communication system? (Multiple answers).

a)

Attenuation

b)

Delay distortion

c)

Signal power

d)

Interference

11.

Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of

a)

ASK and FSK

b)

ASK and PSK

c)

PSK and FSK

d)

None of the above

12.

What is altered in "PSK" to represent 0s and 1s?

a)

Average amplitude

b)

Average phase

c)

Phase

d)

Peak amplitude

13.

Which of the following cases is considered to be "analogue data to analogue signal"?

a)

Digital mobile communication system

b)

Computer communication using ISDN

c)

Computer communication using telephone line

d)

Home telephone system

14.

Which of the following techniques is appropriate to transmit digital data using analogue signals (Choose 3 answers)?

a)

ASK

b)

FSK

c)

PHSK

d)

PSK

e)

SSK

15.

What is the name of a codec to be used when converting from analogue to digital

a)

FDM

b)

PSK

c)

TDM

d)

PCM.

16.

In PCM how many levels does a 4-bit system produce?

a)

64

b)

32.

c)

4.

d)

16.

e)

8.

17.

According to Nyquist’s sampling theorem, how many samples per second are required to recreate a signal that has a frequency range 1-1000Hz?

a)

999

b)

1998

c)

1001

d)

2000

18.

Which of the following is modulation techniques (Choose 2 answers

a)

Alpha modulation

b)

Packet code modulation

c)

Delta modulation

d)

Pulse code modulation

19.

The function of multiplexing is

a)

To reduce the bandwidth of the signal to be transmitted

b)

To combine multiple data streams over a single data channel.

c)

To allow multiple data streams over multiple channels in a prescribed format

d)

To match the frequencies of the signal at the transmitter as well as the receiver

20.

In QPSK what would be the carrier phase and amplitude when we try to transmit “11”?

a)

45 & 1.0

b)

135 & 1.0

c)

225 & 1.0

d)

315 & 1.0

21.

Which of the following are not telephony services supported by GSM?

a)

 Dual-tone multifrequency

b)

Call waiting

c)

Voice mail

d)

Fax mail

22.

The authentication center (AC) provides authentication and encryption parameters that verify the user's identity and ensure the confidentiality of each call.

a)

true

b)

false

23.

The location area is the area in which a subscriber can be paged

a)

True

b)

False

24.

GSM utilizes the code division multiple access (CDMA) concept, rather than time division multiple access (TDMA)

a)

True

b)

False

25.

What is the basic service unit of cellular telephony?

a)

MSC/VLR service area

b)

PLMN service area

c)

Location area

d)

Cell

26.

The network subsystem in GSM is responsible for (Choose 3 answers)

a)

Roaming between cells

b)

Subscriber Management

c)

QoS Management

d)

Switching of calls

e)

Mobility Management

27.

The home location register (HLR) is a database used for storing and managing subscriptions.

a)

true

b)

false

28.

Which area of the world first deployed cellular services for commercial use?

a)

Western Africa

b)

Central Asia

c)

Eastern Europe

d)

Scandinavia

29.

The base station subsystem in GSM is responsible for

a)

Providing the network with redundancy

b)

Roaming subscriber between cells

c)

Wirelessly connecting mobile subscribers to the network

d)

Monitoring the condition of the network and producing alert messages

30.

In order to have a Mobile Station we need to put together the following (Choose 2 answers)

a)

Band processor

b)

SIM card

c)

BTS

d)

Mobile device

31.

Right now, GSM is the accepted cellular standard in

a)

Europe

b)

South America

c)

North America

d)

Southeast Asia

e)

All of the above

32.

Which subsystems are included in GSM network? (Multiple answers)

a)

Network Management Subsystem (NMS)

b)

Core Information Subsystem (CIS)

c)

Base Station Subsystem (BSS)

d)

Central Switching Subsystem (CSS)

e)

Network Switching Subsystem (NSS)

33.

Which of the following are NSS subcomponents (Choose 2 answers)?

a)

VLR

b)

MSC

c)

BSC

d)

SLR

34.

In GSM, the NMS is responsible for (Choose 3 answers)

a)

Performance management

b)

Mobility management

c)

Connection management

d)

Configuration management

e)

Fault management

35.

The first cellular systems were

a)

Digital

b)

Analog

36.

EDGE added further

a)

Speed

b)

Mobility

c)

Latency

d)

All of the above

37.

GPRS enhanced the GSM standard in order to (Choose 2 answers)

a)

Improve roaming between cells

b)

Transport data

c)

 Enable wireless devices to access the internet

d)

Handle more subscribers

38.

In GPRS, multiple SGSNs may connect to a single GGSN

a)

true

b)

false

39.

In GPRS network data is sent as

a)

Frame

b)

Circuits.

c)

Cells.

d)

Packets.

40.

GPRS is typically installed as an upgrade to

a)

AMPS network

b)

CDMA network

c)

GSM network

d)

IS-95 network

41.

It also provides support for WCDMA based networks which is called

a)

3GPP Long Term Evolution

b)

Universal Mobile Telecommunication System

c)

WiMAX

d)

3G

42.

The Um interface in GPRS connects

a)

The mobile device to the BG

b)

The mobile device to the SGSN

c)

The mobile device to the GGSN

d)

None of the above

43.

In GPRS, the SGSN is responsible for (Choose 2 answers)

a)

Performance management

b)

Connections management

c)

User management

d)

Signalling management

44.

What are the three main components that were added when GPRS was introduced?

a)

Transcoder

b)

Serving GPRS Support Node

c)

Base Station Controller

d)

Packet Control Unit

e)

Gateway GPRS Support Node

45.

In GPRS, the PCU is responsible to

a)

Separate the circuit switched from the packet switched traffic

b)

Maintain and update subscribers’ information

c)

Manage mobility of users between different BTSs

d)

Monitor the performance of the core network

46.

The connection speed enhancements introduced by UMTS are referred to as

a)

High Speed Access

b)

High Speed Connection Access

c)

High Speed Access Packet

d)

High Speed Packet Access

47.

In UMTS, what the multiplexing technique is used?

a)

CDMA

b)

TDMA

c)

FDMA

d)

All of the above

48.

In UMTS release 8, what is the successor of UTRAN?

a)

16UTRAN

b)

eUTRAN

c)

iUTRAN

d)

8UTRAN

49.

In UMTS, what is the name of the parameter responsible for describing how good or bad the channel is?

a)

Channel Performance Ratio

b)

Channel Quality Index

c)

Channel Quality Ratio

d)

Signal over Noise Ratio

50.

What modulation technique is used in UMTS release 8?

a)

FSK

b)

QPSK

c)

QAM-64

d)

QAM-128

51.

In UMTS, Media Gateway is responsible for

a)

Handling only media traffic

b)

Handling all user traffic

c)

Handling all user traffic except media traffic

d)

None of the above

52.

Which of the following statements is true in UMTS?

a)

An RNC can control multiple Node-Bs

b)

A Nobe-B can cover a single cell

c)

An RNC can cover multiple cells

d)

None of the above

53.

What is the limitation of CDMA?

a)

Not all users can transmit at the same time

b)

If many users connect at the same time, speed is decreased

c)

Users use only a small portion of the bandwidth

d)

If SNR is not very good, communication is affected much faster

54.

In UMTS, user data is exchanged between the RNC and Node-B using what protocol?1

a)

FR

b)

FP

c)

ATM

d)

SS7

55.

In UMTS and from the point of view of the MSC, what the 3 possible mobility management states a mobile device can be in?

a)

Detached

b)

Disconnected

c)

Idle

d)

Connected

56.

5G transceivers will incorporate full-duplex technology for data transmission to double the capacity of wireless networks. What does full-duplex mean?

a)

The ability to transmit and receive data at the same time and frequency

b)

The ability to become compatible with all types of IoT devices

c)

The ability to utilize the full capacity of transmission at all times

d)

The ability to incorporate twice the number of transceivers into one base station

57.

The eNode-B is responsible for (Choose 3 answers)

a)

User management

b)

Routing of traffic

c)

Interface management

d)

Billing control

e)

Mobility management

58.

The limitation of TDD is that

a)

It cannot transmit over a single frequency band

b)

It cannot send and receive at the same time

c)

It needs to use “guard band” for separation

d)

None of the above

59.

In 5G, Standalone network architecture is made of:

a)

4G air interface and 5G core network

b)

4G air interface and 4G core network

c)

5G air interface and 5G core network

d)

5G air interface and 4G core network

60.

In LTE, the Mobility Management Entity is responsible for (Choose 3 answers)

a)

SMS and voice support

b)

Mobility management

c)

Handover support

d)

QoS

e)

User authentication

61.

What are the bands range used in NR of Frequency Range 2 (FR2)?

a)

1.2-10MHz

b)

4250-52600MHz

c)

400-7125MHz

d)

20MHz

62.

Select the 3 major elements of eNode-B

a)

Antenna

b)

Digital modules

c)

Access modules

d)

Radio modules

63.

What multiplexing technique is used in LTE?

a)

FDM

b)

CDMA

c)

OFDMA

d)

TDM

64.

Which of the following components are introduced by LTE (Choose 3 answers)?

a)

Home Subscriber Server

b)

Visitor Location Register

c)

Serving Gateway

d)

Home Location Register

e)

Packet Data Network Gateway

65.

In LTE, what is the name of the interface that connects the base stations with each other?

a)

X1

b)

S2

c)

X2

d)

S1

66.

Which of the following use cases provide faster data speed?

a)

Massive machine to machine communication

b)

Ultra-reliable low latency communication

c)

Enhanced mobile broadband

d)

All of the above

67.

Network slicing is a network management feature that 5G will allow. What does this mean users can have?

a)

The ability to create multiple virtual networks within a single 5G network

b)

The ability to designate multiple passwords for one 5G network

c)

The ability to utilize connections from other nearby networks

d)

The ability to set up multiple connection points to one 5G network

68.

In 5G network, new radio (NR) is called:

a)

Core network

b)

Real-time spectrum

c)

Radio-frequency band

d)

Air interface

69.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

OFDMA splits time into time slots

b)

OFDMA uses a unique code to distinguish between different users

c)

OFDMA splits the data stream into many slower data streams

d)

None of the above

70.

In LTE, what is the name of the interface that connects the base station to the core network?

a)

X2

b)

X1

c)

S2

d)

S1

71.

RELEASE 4 UMTS OFFERS :

a)

circuit switching

b)

packet switching

c)

message switching

d)

none of the above

72.

The enhancements in connection speed that umts brought about have been identifies as

a)

High speed Qos

b)

High speed packet access

c)

high speed connection speed

d)

none of the above

73.

what multiplexing technique is employed in UMTS?

a)

CDMA

b)

FDMA

c)

TDM

d)

WFDMA

74.

What is the name of the UMTS parameter that determines the quality of the channel?

a)

Channel Quality Index

b)

Channel data ratio

c)

Channel performance ratio

d)

none of the above

75.

User mobility , distance between user and call centre and interference level are 3 factors which influences the QoS in UMTS?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

76.

What is the total number of implementations of UTMS ?

a)

11

b)

10

c)

9

d)

5

77.

In the UMTS, which of the following claims is true ?

a)

Radio network controller can control multiple Node-Bs

b)

Radio network controller can control single Node-Bs

c)

Multiple radio controller can control single Node-Bs

d)

none of the above

78.

FP protocol is used in UMTS for user data exchange between the RNC and Node-B

a)

True

b)

False

79.

What is the UTRANS successor (repalcement) in UMTS release 8

a)

iUTRAN

b)

eUTRAN

c)

gUTRAN

d)

999UTRAN

80.

Which GPRS component has been replaced by Node-B in UMTS?

a)

BSC

b)

BSS

c)

BTS

d)

RTT

81.

Which WAN technology does UMTS employ ?

a)

ATM

b)

ADSL

c)

VDSL

d)

Frame Relay

82.

What are the three possible mobility management states that a mobile device can be in under UMTS and from the perspective of the MSC?

a)

Idle,connected , detached

b)

wait , until , disconnected

c)

running . walking , sleeping

d)

All three states are idle 1 2 and 3

83.

Which component was removed in UMTS release 7 to reduce the processing burden ?

a)

HLR

b)

SGSN

c)

VLR

d)

GGSN

84.

What modulation technique is used in UMTS release 7 ?

a)

16QAM

b)

64QAM

c)

QAM

d)

PSK

85.

Which GPRS element was replaced by RNC in UMTS?

a)

BTC

b)

BSC

c)

MSC

d)

HLR

86.

TRUE OR FALSE

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

87.

TRUE OR FALSE ?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

88.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

89.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

90.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

91.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

92.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

93.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

94.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

95.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

96.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

97.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

98.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

99.

MIMO STANDS FOR ?

(a)  

100.
a)

true

b)

false

101.

OFDMA splits the data stream into many slower data streams

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

102.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

103.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

104.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

105.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

106.
a)

AIR INTERFACE

b)

RADIO CONNECT

107.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

108.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

109.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

110.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

111.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

112.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

113.
a)

A

b)

B

114.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

115.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

116.
a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE