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COMPRE 1 FINALS

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An obligation is a legal duty, anyways created, the violation of which may become the basis of an action of law.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

2.

This characteristic of contracts means that contracts are binding only upon the parties and their successors-in-interest.

a)

Mutuality of Contracts

b)

Relativity of Contracts

3.

This stage of a contract refers to the fulfillment of the purpose for which the contract was constituted.

a)

Perfection

b)

Consummation

4.

It is a contract that is valid until annulled.

a)

Voidable Contract

b)

Rescissible Contract

5.

The active subject in an obligation is the one bound to perform the prestation to give, to do, or not to do. He is also called the debtor or obligor.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

6.

Compensation as means of extinguishing an obligation is the offsetting of the respective obligations of two (2) persons who stand as principal creditors and debtors of each other, resulting in the extinguishment of their obligations to their concurrent amount.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

7.

This characteristic of contracts means that the parties are free to stipulate terms and provisions in a contract, as long as these are not contrary to law, morals, good customs, public order, and public policy.

a)

Consensuality of Contracts

b)

Autonomy of Contracts

8.

All kinds of works or services, whether physical or mental, is covered by the obligation to give.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

9.

An obligation the subject matter of which is a thing which the obligor must deliver to the obligee

a)

a. obligation to do

b)

b. personal obligation

c)

c. moral obligation

d)

d. real obligation

10.

It is a thing that is particularly designated or physically segregated from all others of the same class.

a)

A. Generic thing.

b)

B. Determinate thing.

c)

C. Indeterminate thing.

d)

D. Special thing.

11.

Rice, corn and other products of land that come into existence through human labor are examples of:

a)

A. Natural fruits

b)

B. Civil fruits

c)

C. Legal fruits

d)

D. Industrial fruits

12.

The right of Vice Ganda to demand the delivery of the agricultural lot and the crops from the time the obligation to deliver the lot arose is known as:

a)

A. Real right.

b)

B. Personal right.

c)

C. Civil right.

d)

D. Natural right.

13.

The first step in the different stages of a contract is:

a)

A. Perfection

b)

B. Preparation

c)

C. Consummation

d)

D. Performance

14.

Contract that is made for a valuable consideration is:

a)

A. onerous

b)

B. consensual

c)

C. gratuitous

d)

D. real

15.

ELAINE delivered her bracelet to ASHLEY for ASHLEY’S necklace. No written agreement was signed by the parties. Which of the following is appropriate description of the contract between ELAINE and ASHLEY?

a)

A. Onerous and bilateral

b)

B. Onerous and innominate

c)

C. Bilateral and innominated

d)

D. Aleatory and nominate

16.

Economic problem arises due to

a)

Limited resources

b)

Unlimited wants

c)

Alternative uses of resources

d)

All of the above

17.

Self interest of the consumers lies in the maximization of

a)

Profit

b)

Sales

c)

Satisfaction

d)

Wealth

18.

Which point on the curve is an efficient use of resources?

a)

F

b)

D

c)

E

d)

A

19.

Monopolistic competition is a type of

a)

price discrimination

b)

market structure

c)

advertising strategy

d)

oligopoly

20.

An equilibrium price will NOT change unless?

a)

either demand & supply change (or both)

b)

both demand & supply change

c)

only demand changes

d)

only supply changes

21.

A good that is used in place of another good to meet the same need is called

a)

complementary good.

b)

capital good.

c)

substitute good.

d)

consumer good.

22.

Demand is defined as consumers' _____ and _____ to consume a good.

a)

Ability; need

b)

Willingness; ability

c)

Willingness; need

d)

Want; need

23.

Large number of buyers and sellers are the characteristics of which type of market

a)

Perfect competition

b)

Monopoly

c)

Monopolistic competition

d)

Oligopoly

24.
Basic Economic Problem: Mismatch of unlimited wants and needs and unlimited economic resources.
a)
True
b)
False
25.
For the law of demand, as price rises, what happens to quantity demanded?
a)
it goes up
b)
it goes down
c)
it stays the same
d)
it is not effected
26.

What is the study of how humans make decisions in the face of scarcity these can be individual decisions, family, business,or societal decisions?

a)

Economists

b)

Economics

c)

Market economy

d)

Scarcity

27.

Focuses on the actions of individual agents within the economy like households, workers and businesses?

a)

Microfinance

b)

Microeconomics

c)

Macroeconomics

d)

Entrepreneur

28.

It focuses on broad issues such growth of production,the number of unemployed people,the inflationary increase in prices, government deficits and level of exports and imports.

a)

World business

b)

World market

c)

Microeconomics

d)

Macroeconomics

29.

Goods or services that a consumer can obtain for, because that are abundant relative to the demand.

a)

Free service

b)

Profit

c)

Income

d)

Free goods

30.

Goods and services to make a profit: like land , labor, capital and entrepreneur?

a)

Factors Capitalism

b)

World market factors

c)

Factors of production

d)

Business factors

31.

CSR stands for Corporate Social Reputation.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Good governance practices ensure that companies operate transparently and accountably.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Companies that prioritize good governance and CSR practices are less likely to attract and retain customers, investors, and employees.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

CSR initiatives are optional and peripheral to a company's operations.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Companies can ensure the effectiveness of their governance and CSR practices by ignoring feedback from stakeholders.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between governance and CSR?

a)

They are two separate and unrelated concepts.

b)

They are both optional practices that companies can choose to adopt or ignore.

c)

They are closely interconnected, with good governance practices supporting CSR initiatives.

d)

They are important for non-profit organizations, but not for for-profit companies.

37.

Which of the following is a benefit of adopting good governance and CSR practices?

a)

Attracting and retaining negative publicity

b)

Increasing the likelihood of regulatory penalties

c)

Building a positive reputation and brand image

d)

Losing customers and investors

38.

Which of the following is an example of a CSR initiative that companies can undertake?

a)

Using unethical labor practices to reduce costs

b)

Ignoring environmental concerns to maximize profits

c)

Investing in social and environmental causes

d)

Promoting discrimination and exclusion

39.

Which of the following is NOT a way that companies can ensure the effectiveness of their governance and CSR practices?

a)

Regularly monitoring and evaluating their practices

b)

Engaging with stakeholders

c)

Reporting on their performance

d)

Ignoring feedback from stakeholders

40.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of adopting good governance and CSR practices in the business world?

a)

Mitigating risks

b)

Complying with regulations

c)

Reducing employee engagement

d)

Creating shared value

41.

The following are the features of modern governance, except:

a)

It is not a set of rules or an activity, but a process.

b)

It refers to administrative and political activities related to national public affairs.

c)

The process of governance is not based on control, but on coordination.

d)

It involves both public and private sectors.

e)

It is not a formal institution, but continuing interaction.

42.

In a general sense, this refers to the sum of the many ways individuals and institutions, public and private, manage their common affairs.

a)

Government

b)

Management

c)

Governance

d)

Sustainable Development

e)

Bureaucracy

43.

[1] Governance includes formal institutions and regimes empowered to enforce compliance. [2] But governance has nothing to do with informal arrangements that people and institutions either have agreed to or perceive to be in their interest.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Only the first statement is true

c)

Both statements are false

d)

Only the first statement is false

44.

[1] The body of government is necessarily the public institutions in a society. [2] On the other hand, the body of governance can either be a public institution, a private one, or even a cooperation between the two.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Only the first statement is true

c)

Both statements are false

d)

Only the first statement is false

45.

[1] Governance can compensate for certain deficiencies of the State and the market in regulation and coordination, but it is never a panacea. [2] State and market can fail in social resource allocation; so can governance.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Only the first statement is true

c)

Both statements are false

d)

Only the first statement is false

46.

The meaning of the acronym HRM is ________

a)

Human Resourceful Management

b)

Human Relation Management

c)

Humanistic Resource Management

d)

Human Resource Management

47.

The following is concerned with developing a pool of candidates in line with the human resources plan.

a)

Development

b)

Training

c)

Recruitment

d)

All the above

48.

Majority of the disputes in industries are related to the problem of ________

a)

Wages

b)

Salaries

c)

Benefits

d)

All the above

49.

The following person has created the principle of 8 hours work, 8 hours rest and 8 hours sleep.

a)

Elton Mayo

b)

Flippo

c)

Robert Owen

d)

Elliot Jacque’s

50.

________ is the on the training.

a)

Coaching

b)

Workshop

c)

Audio visual

d)

Case studies

51.

Which is not on the job training?

a)

Job rotation

b)

Internship

c)

Coaching

d)

Classroom lectures

52.

In an addition to regular compensation, ________ are monetary incentives that an employee earns as a result of good performance.

a)

Motivational techniques

b)

Financial reward

c)

Non financial reward

d)

All the above

53.

______ is the current minister of Human Resource development of India

a)

Smriti Irani

b)

Rajnath Singh

c)

Nirmala Sitharaman

d)

Ramesh Pokhriyal

54.

HRP is _________

a)

Human Resource Performance

b)

Human Recruitment Planning

c)

Human Resource Planning

d)

Human Resource Protection

55.

______ is the process of choosing the most suitable candidate for the vacant position in the organisation.

a)

Recruitment

b)

Training

c)

Selection

d)

Performance Appraisal

56.

This is the organization’s norms and value system

a)

Company Culture

b)

Company Policy

c)

Company Vision and Mission

57.

Which of the primary factors contribute to the failure of U.S. expatriates?

a)

the manager’s lack of cultural understanding

b)

challenges related to work-life balance

c)

the expatriate's inability to adapt to the new environment

d)

the manager’s leadership style

58.

The ability to understand why people of other countries behave the way they do

a)

Self-Orientation

b)

Perceptual Ability

c)

Cultural Toughness

59.

It is concerned with developing the skills of the manager over his or her career with the firm

a)

Training

b)

Management development

c)

Professional Development

60.

Seeks the best people, regardless of nationality for key jobs

a)

geocentric staffing policy

b)

polycentric staffing policy

c)

ethnocentric approach

61.

It is the power of state by which the sovereign raises revenue to defray the necessary expenses of the government.

a)

Taxation

b)

Eminent Domain

c)

Police Power

d)

Taxes

62.

it is generally regarded as excise (pivilege) tax?

a)

estate tax

b)

income tax

c)

business tax

d)

real property tax

63.

what are the classification of individual income taxpayers?

a)

Resident Citizen and Non Resident Citizen

b)

Resident Alien and Non Resident Alien

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

64.

Sweepstakes winning of a resident alien, P 100,000.00 how much is the tax due?

a)

P 20,000.00

b)

P 0.00

c)

P 10,000.00

d)

P 15,000.00

65.

_________ are taxable only on income from the Philippines whether resident or non-resident?

a)

Domestic Corporation

b)

Foreign Corporation

c)

Domestic and Foreign Corporation

d)

None of the above

66.

THE INHERENT POWER OF THE GOVERNMENT ARE PRIMARILY ___________ IN CHARACTER

a)

EXECUTIVE

b)

LEGISLATIVE

c)

JUDICIAL

d)

QUASI-JUDICIAL

67.

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DOCTRINE OR THEORY IS CALLED THE "DOCTRINE OF SYMBIOTIC RELATIONSHIP"?

a)

BENEFIT-RECEIVED THEORY

b)

NECESSITY THEORY

c)

LIFEBLOOD DOCTRINE

d)

HOLMES DOCTRINE

68.

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING THEORY JUSTIFIES TAXES BEING A PREFERRED CREDIT?

a)

NECESSITY THEORY

b)

LIFEBLOOD DOCTRINE

c)

MARSHALL DOCTRINE

d)

DOCTRINE OF EQUITABLE RECOUPMENT

69.

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING THEORY JUSTIFIES TAXES BEING A PREFERRED CREDIT?

a)

NECESSITY THEORY

b)

LIFEBLOOD DOCTRINE

c)

MARSHALL DOCTRINE

d)

DOCTRINE OF EQUITABLE RECOUPMENT

70.

WHEN THE LAW ITSELF PROVIDES FOR NON-PAYMENT OF TAXES, SUCH TAX ESCAPE IS KNOWN AS:

a)

TAX EVASION

b)

TAX HOLIDAY

c)

TAX MINIMIZATION

d)

TAX AVOIDANCE

71.

Sustainability refers to accepted principles of right or wrong that govern the conduct of a person, the members of a profession, or the actions of an organization.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Ethical issues can arise when environmental regulations in host nations are inferior to those in the home nation.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Corruption has been a problem in almost every society in history and continues to be one today.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Countries should specialize in the production of goods for which they have an absolute advantage and then trade these goods for those produced by other countries.

a)

Absolute Advantage

b)

Comparative Advantage

75.

It refers to the nature of home demand for the industry's product or service.

a)

Factor Endowments

b)

Demand Conditions

c)

Related and Supporting Industries

76.

It refers to the presence or absence of supplier industries and related industries that are internationally competitive.

a)

Factor Endowments

b)

Demand Conditions

c)

Related and Supporting Industries

77.

It refers to the nation's position in factors of production, such as skilled labor or the infrastructure necessary to compete in a given industry.

a)

Factor Endowments

b)

Demand Conditions

c)

Related and Supporting Industries

78.

An individual with a strong sense of personal ethics is more likely to behave in an unethical manner in a business setting.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The best starting point to improve ethical decision-making in a multinational firm is to better understand how individuals make decisions that can be considered ethical or unethical in an organizational environment.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

The culture in some businesses does encourage people to think through the ethical consequences of business decisions.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

It is the procurement of selected value-adding activities, including production of intermediate goods or finished products, from independent suppliers.

a)

Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

b)

Outsourcing

c)

Offshoring

82.

It is the birth certificate of the goods being shipped and indicates the country of origin.

a)

Commercial invoice

b)

Bill of Lading

c)

Certificate of Origin

83.

It refer to the payment methods in Import and Export when the exporter uses an open account, the buyer pays the exporter at some future time following receipt of the goods.

a)

LETTER OF CREDIT

b)

OPEN ACCOUNT

c)

Countertrade

84.

It refers to the official forms and other paperwork required in export transactions for shipping and customs procedures

a)

Documentation

b)

Incoterms

c)

Certificate of Origin

85.

It is also known as global procurement, or global purchasing, the strategy of buying products and services from foreign sources and bringing them into the home country or a third country.

a)

Exporting

b)

Importing

c)

None of the above

86.

He is responsible for for planning, organizing, staffing, implementing, and controlling operations of a business.

a)

CEO

b)

Manager

c)

Board of Directors

d)

Employees

87.

It includes all activities involved in obtaining, training, and compensating the employees of a business.

a)

Staffing

b)

Planning

c)

Organizing

d)

Implementing

88.

This contains all of the rules, policies, and procedures that a business should follow to function effectively.

a)

Management

b)

Organizing

c)

Operations Management

d)

Operations Manual

89.

It also called stock control, is the process of managing a company's inventory levels

a)

Purchasing Plan

b)

Inventory

c)

Inventory Control

d)

Inventory Needs

90.

This method keeps track of inventory levels on a daily basis.

a)

Perpetual Inventory Method

b)

Periodic Inventory Method

c)

Cost of Being Out of Stock

d)

Cost of Carrying Inventory

91.

It involves taking a physical count of your merchandise at regular intervals

a)

Perpetual Invetory Method

b)

Periodic Invetory Method

c)

Cost of Being Out of Stock

d)

Cost of Carrying Inventory

92.

It is the rate at which the inventory of a product is sold and replaced with new inventory.

a)

Cost of Being Out of Stock

b)

Cost of Carrying Inventory

c)

Stock Turnover Rate

d)

Analyze Sales

93.

It is how to use the information in your financial statements to determine the level of sales you need to achieve to earn a profit.

a)

COST OF BEING OUT OF STOCK

b)

COST OF CARRYING INVENTORY

c)

STOCK TURNOVER RATE

d)

ANALYZE SALES

94.

It is an important skill of every small business owner or manager

a)

Financial Management

b)

Managing Cash Flow

c)

Improving Cash Flow

d)

Cash Budget

95.

Way to improve your cash receipts is to decrease by getting customer who owe you money to pay more quickly.

a)

Prepare Financial Statement

b)

Purchasing Plan

c)

Increase Cash Receipts

d)

Decrease Cash Disbursements

96.

•Operational Management means _______________ your business for a particular outcome through changes at the operational level.

a)

Redundancy

b)

Entertaining

c)

Playing

d)

Optimizing

97.

Strategic Operations are ______________________ employed by an organization for growth and more profitability.

a)

Funds

b)

Business Strategies

c)

People

d)

Assets

98.

IKEA products are the example of _____________ Production

a)

Continuous

b)

Mass

c)

Batch

d)

Job

99.

Six Components Operations Strategy are

a)

Facility planning

b)

Technology selection & process development

c)

Planning for entertainment activities

d)

Allocation of resources to strategic alternatives

100.

Doing Things Right is

a)

Effectiveness

b)

Economy

c)

Element

d)

Efficiency

101.

1.This tool analysis examines both internal and external factors – that is, what's going on inside and outside your organization.

a)

a.       External Analysis

b)

B. Internal analysis

c)

c.    Swot analysis

d)

d.       Competitive analysis

102.

2. What factor is this (  trade restrictions ,foreign trade policy ,tax policy )

a)

A .political Factor

b)

b.social factor

c)

c. Swot analysis

d)

d.       Competitive analysis

103.

3.what factor is this  (consumer protection laws health and safety laws)

a)

A .political Factor

b)

B . social factor

c)

C. Legal factor

d)

D. all answer are correct

104.

4.what factor is this ( unemployment trend inflation rate exchange rate )

a)

A.  economic factor

b)

B environmental  factor

c)

C. both A and B

d)

D. Social factor

105.

5.what factor is this (. Recyling standars attitudes towards green prdoucts support for renewable energy )

a)

A.    Economic factor

b)

B. Environmental factor

c)

C.    Both A and B

d)

D.    Technology Factor

106.

6. This is a framework or tool used to analyses and monitor the macro-environmental factors that may have a profound impact on an organization’s performance. This tool is especially useful when starting a new business or entering a foreign market.

a)

A. competitive analysis

b)

B.pestel analysis

c)

C. Swot analysis

d)

D.no correct answer

107.

7.  These factors are all about how and to what degree a government intervenes in the economy or a certain industry

a)

A .political Factor

b)

 B . social factor

c)

C. Legal factor

d)

D. no correct answer

108.

8 . These factors pertain to innovations in technology that may affect the operations of the industry and the market favorably or unfavorably. This refers to technology incentives, the level of innovation, automation, research and development (R&D) activity,

a)

A.        Economic factor

b)

B. Technology

c)

C.    Both A and B

d)

D.    Technology Factor

109.

9.  factors have come to the forefront only relatively recently. They have become important due to the increasing scarcity of raw materials, pollution targets and carbon footprint targets set by governments.

a)

A.        Economic factor

b)

B.  Environmental Factor

c)

C. Both A and B

d)

D.    Technology Factor

110.

10.   an assessment of your competitors' products, services and sales tactics, evaluating their strengths and weaknesses relative to your own..

a)

a.         External Analysis

b)

b.       Internal analysis

c)

c.  Swot analysis

d)

D. Competitive analysis

111.

The purpose of this is to gather information and to analyze it systematically and thoroughly. None of us would be wise to make an important decision about anything in life without adequate and relevant information, and nor would tourism, hospitality, and events organizations.

a)

Strategic Analysis

b)

Strategic Implementation

c)

Strategic Selection

112.

Which of the following statements is incorrect

a)

Mission is a general statement of how you will achieve your vision.

b)

Values are the fundamental beliefs of a person or organization.

c)

Vision is a specific action and timeline for achieving the goal

113.

A stage in the strategic process involves taking the important information gathered from the strategic analysis stage and using it to make an intelligent and informed strategic selection or choice of the most appropriate courses of action for the future.

a)

Strategic Analysis

b)

Strategic Implementation

c)

Strategic Selection

114.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Strategic analysis is an examination of the internal environment only.

b)

In implementing the strategic process it is necessary to be aware not only of changes occurring to the internal and external environment but also of changes to the subject matter itself.

c)

Strategic analysis is an examination of the external environment only.

115.

Once we have established the organization’s internal strengths and weaknesses, and its external opportunities and threats, the challenge becomes the selection of an appropriate strategy. Such a strategy is required to address the weaknesses and threats whilst at the same time, building upon the identified strengths and exploiting opportunities. It is important to understand that a detailed internal and external analysis is a necessary prerequisite for producing a summary of the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats – the SWOT. In other words, the SWOT emerges from the internal and external analyses and is a summary of the main results.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

MAYBE