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Random Questions

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 6hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What should you do if you do not understand part of the lab instructions?

a)

Ask your instructor for help

b)

Skip that part of the lab

c)

Ask your lab partner

d)

Figure it out during the lab

2.

Identify the dependent variable according to this graph.

a)

Seed Type

b)

Number of Bird Species

c)

Sunflower and Sorghum

d)

Sunflower

3.

Which two units of volume are the same? (select all that apply)

a)

cm3

b)

L

c)

cm2

d)

mL

4.
Which one is not in the metric system?
a)
Kilometer
b)
Yard
c)
Centimeter
d)
Meter
5.

4,000 g = ____ kg

a)

40

b)

400

c)

4

d)

0.04

6.

Convert to scientific notation:


750,000

a)

75 x 107

b)

7.5 x 10-7

c)

7.5 x 108

d)

7.5 x 105

7.

Write 9.2 x 10-4 in standard notation.

a)

0.00092

b)

0.000000092

c)

9,200,000,000

d)

920,000

8.

6 ⋅ 1083 ⋅ 104\frac{6\ \cdot\ 10^8}{3\ \cdot\ 10^4}  

a)

2 ⋅ 1032\ \cdot\ 10^3  

b)

2 ⋅ 1042\ \cdot\ 10^4  

c)

6 ⋅ 1033\frac{6\ \cdot\ 10^3}{3}  

d)

00  

9.

(8 x 102) + (1 x 102)=

a)

9 x 104

b)

7 x 104

c)

7 x 102

d)

9 x 102

10.

This bullseye demonstrates...

a)

High Accuracy & High Precision

b)

High Accuracy & Low Precision

c)

Low Accuracy & High Precision

d)

Low Accuracy & Low Precision

11.
Which of the following is an example of a chemical property?
a)
melting
b)
bending a paper clip
c)

burning

d)
boiling water
12.

Lemonade is

a)

Element

b)

Mixture

c)

Compound

13.

Why isn’t water on the Periodic Table?

a)

because it is a liquid at room temperature

b)

because it doesn't have any protons

c)

because it is a compound

d)

because it is not made up of elements

14.

Of these three states of matter, which one has a medium amount of kinetic energy? 

a)
Solid 
b)
Liquid 
c)
Gas
15.

Why is a hot air balloon able to rise into the sky?

a)

The hot air is less dense then the atmosphere, so it rises

b)

The hot air is more dense then the atmosphere, so it rises

c)

The hot air has the same density as the atmosphere, so it rises

16.

Which of the substance below has a mass of 173.7 grams and a volume of 9 mL?
Density = Mass/Volume

a)
Gold = 19.3 g/mL
b)
Aluminum = 2.7 g/mL
c)
Water = 1 g/mL
d)
Pyrite = 5 g/mL
17.

John Dalton stated:

a)

Atoms are tiny, invisible particles.

b)

Atoms of one element are all the same.

c)

Atoms of different elements are different.

d)

Compounds form by combining atoms.

e)

All of the statements listed.

18.

What is the correct order of scientists in order of their work related to the atomic theory from earliest to most recent?

a)

Ernest Rutherford, JJ Thomson, John Dalton, & Democritus

b)

JJ Thomson, John Dalton, Ernest Rutherford, & Democritus

c)

Democritus, John Dalton, JJ Thomson, Ernest Rutherford.

d)

John Dalton, JJ Thomson, Democritus, & Ernest Rutherford

19.

Look at the picture of Argon from the periodic table. Which of the following is true for this element?

a)

18 protons

b)

40 protons

c)

39.948 protons

d)

21.9 protons

20.

Electrons orbit a certain distance from the nucleus. Either radiate or absorb energy when jumping orbitals.

a)

Dalton

b)

Thomson

c)

Rutherford

d)

Bohr

21.

In a famous experiment conducted by Ernest Rutherford, positively charged alpha particles were scattered by a thin gold foil. Which of the following is a conclusion that resulted from this experiment?

a)

The nucleus is negatively charged

b)

The atom is a dense solid and is indivisible

c)

The mass is conserved when atoms react chemically

d)

The nucleus is very small and the atom is mostly empty space

22.

Believed that atoms are small, hard particles that were "indivisible" called "atomos".

a)
Democritus
b)
Aristotle
c)
Schrodinger
d)
Greek Philosophers
23.
Which of the following are parts of Dalton's theory?
a)
All substances are made of atoms.
b)
Atoms Join with other atoms to make new substances.
c)
Atoms of different elements are different
d)
All of these are part of his theory
24.

What were J. J. Thomson's three contributions to the atomic theory?

a)

Discovered the electron

b)

Discovered the nucleus -did the gold foil experiment

c)

Used the cathode ray tube in his discovery

d)

Created a model of the atom with electrons moving around the nucleus in fixed orbits

e)

Created the "plum pudding" model of the atom

25.
Which is an electron?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
26.
Which of the following is the most reactive group of metals? 
a)
Alkali
b)
Alkaline Earth
c)
Halogen
d)
Transition Metals
27.

What are the vertical columns on the periodic called?

a)

groups

b)

periods

c)

nonmetals

d)

metals

e)

metalloids

28.

What is the name of the element?

a)

sodium

b)

magnesium

c)

vanadium

29.

How many valence electrons does the element have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

30.

The Periodic Table of Elements is arranged by

a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
valence electrons
d)
number of isotopes
31.

Very little/none of the mass of an atom is found in its _____.

a)
electron cloud
b)
nucleus
c)
atomic number
d)

protons

32.

The periodic table is mostly comprised of what type of element?

a)

Metals

b)

Nonmetals

c)

Metalloids

33.

Which elements are colored red?

a)

nonmetals

b)

metals

c)

metalloids

34.
All of these properties describe metals except...
a)
malleable
b)
conductors
c)

dull

d)
shiny
35.

Elements in the same group or family have _____________.

a)

the same number of valence electrons and different properties.

b)

the same number of valence electrons and similar properties

c)

different number of valence electrons and similar properties.

d)

different number of valence electrons and different properties.

36.

What is the name of the elements that are unreactive and have a full octet?

a)

Halogens

b)

Noble Gases

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Transition Metals

37.
What is the name of this element?
a)
Helium
b)

Agium

c)

Silver

d)
Mercury
38.
Which one of these is not a noble gas?
a)
Helium
b)

Neon

c)

Fluorine

d)
Krypton
39.

What is the force that opposes the motion of objects sliding against each other?

a)

Attraction

b)

Friction

c)

Slipperiness

d)

Resistance

40.

What is the acceleration of an object if its velocity is decreasing?

a)

0 m/s^2

b)

-6 m/s^2

c)

4 m/s^2

d)

9.8 m/s^2

41.

Which type of friction is shown in the picture?

a)

rolling

b)

static

c)

fluid

d)

sliding

42.

What can reduce friction?

a)

Adding more weight

b)

Adding a lubricant

c)

Using a rough material/surface

d)

Increasing the surface area

43.

A person starts pushing a stalled car from rest. What type of friction must he/she overcome in order to start the car moving?

a)
Rolling Friction
b)
Static Friction
c)
Fluid Friction
d)
Sliding Friction?
44.

A roller coasters accelerates from an initial velocity of 10.0 m/s to a final velocity of 60 m/s over 2 seconds.  What's the acceleration?

a)

25 m/s2

b)

35 m/s2

c)

30 m/s2

d)
16 m/s
45.
The SI unit for acceleration is
a)
mph
b)
m/s
c)
m/s2
46.

What is required for an object to begin moving from rest?

a)

A balanced force

b)

An unbalanced force

c)

No force

d)

A decrease in mass

47.

What is acceleration due to gravity on Earth?

a)

98 m/s2

b)

9.8 m/s2

c)

0.98 m/s2

48.

Which of these dot diagrams represents a free falling object dropped from rest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

49.

Abby is driving at a speed of 30 km/hr over a distance of 300 km. How long will it take her?

a)

300 hr

b)

0.1 hr

c)

10 hr

d)

900 hr

50.

A runner races in the 100 meter dash. It takes her 20 seconds to finish. What is her average speed?

a)

10 m/s

b)

5 m/s

c)

200 m/s

d)

10 seconds

51.

Using the graph provided, how long did it take a ball to roll 10 cm?  What was the average speed of the ball?

a)
35 seconds, 1.17 cm/s
b)

20 seconds, 1 cm/s

c)

10 seconds, 1 cm/s

d)

15 seconds, 1 cm/s

52.

A bus carrying Ava's friends to a soccer game traveled 10 km in 15 minutes. What was the average speed of the bus in km/hr?

a)
300 km/hr
b)

150 km/hr

c)

40 km/hr

53.
The picture of the position vs. time graph shows an object that is...
a)
accelerating/speeding up
b)
moving at a constant speed 
c)
not moving 
d)
accelerating/slowing down. 
54.

Which graph represents the greatest acceleration?

a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
55.

Which section of the graph shows acceleration?

a)

DE

b)
BC
c)
EF
d)

GH

56.

According to the graph how far does the person travel in the first 2 seconds?

a)
2 m
b)
10 m
c)
0 m
d)
5 m
57.

Jennifer stands on one side of a table and pushes with a force of 50 N towards Sam. If Sam wants to help Jennifer demonstrate balanced forces, what does he need to do?

a)

push with a force of 50 N toward Jennifer

b)

push with a force of 100 N toward Jennifer

c)

push with a force of 50 N in the same direction as Jennifer

d)

push with a force of 100 N in the same direction as Jennifer

58.

Which block has the greatest net force on it?

a)

Block 1

b)

Block 2

c)

Block 3

d)

Block 4

59.

If the man pushes with an equal amount of force, which object will accelerate more?

a)

Car because it has more mass

b)

Lawnmower because it has less mass

c)

Car because it has less mass

d)

Lawnmower because it has more mass

60.
What is Newtons 1st law of motion?
a)
Force= Mass multiplied by acceleration 
b)
An object at rest stays at rest unless acted on an unbalanced force. (inertia)
c)
For every action there is a equal and opposite  re-action.
d)
law of gravity 
61.

A 20-kg crate is being pushed across a floor with a force of sliding friction of 20 N. If the pushing force is also 20 N, what is the acceleration of the crate?

a)

0 m/s2

b)

2 m/s2

c)

0.5 m/s2

d)

40 m/s2

62.

A net force of 15 N is exerted on an encyclopedia to cause it to accelerate at a rate of 5 m/s2. Determine the mass of the encyclopedia?

a)
 m = 3.0 kg
b)
m = 4.0 kg 
c)
m = 3.0 ml 
d)
m = 30.0 g
63.

What would the strength of gravity be for this planet?

a)

7 N/kg

b)

0.2 N/kg

c)

0.5 N/kg

d)

5 N/kg

64.

Which rocket component provides thrust?

a)

engine

b)

nose cone

c)

launch lug

d)

fin

65.

What is the function of the nose cone?

a)

to hold the nose cone to the body tube

b)

provides thrust

c)

provides stability

d)

increases drag

e)

reduces drag

66.

The force supplied by the rocket engine must be strong enough to overcome...

a)

Gravity

b)

Weight

c)

Thrust

67.

How does Newton's third law explain how a rocket will take off?

a)

The rocket doesn't move until ignition

b)

The more mass the rocket has the more force is needs to take off

c)

Gas pushes down, the rocket goes up.

68.

Explain how Newton's second law affects a rocket:

a)

A rocket stays at rest until ignition

b)

Gas pushes down, the rocket goes up

c)

The more mass the rocket has the more force it needs to take off

69.

A rocket is launched into space going 1000m in 20s. What is the velocity of the rocket?

a)

The velocity of the rocket is 50m/s going down.

b)

The velocity of the rocket is 500m/s going up.

c)

The velocity of the rocket is 50m/s going up.

d)

The velocity of the rocket is 50mi/hr going up.

70.

Rockets have nose cones becase

a)

They look cool

b)

They help reduce drag

c)

They help reduce gravity

d)

They hold the payloads of rockets

71.

When the rocket launches, the water inside the rocket applies a force downward to the launchpad, and the the launchpad applies a force upward to the...

a)

air

b)

grass

c)

rocket

d)

string

72.

A rocket will remain on the launch pad until an unbalanced force is exerted on the rocket, propelling it upward.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

The altitude of a rocket is the dependent variable, on which axis would this variable be graphed?

a)

X-axis

b)

Y-axis

74.

What is aerodynamics?

a)

How loud the rocket is when it launches

b)

The study of rocket science

c)

How high the rocket goes during flight

d)

The study of how objects move through the air

75.

If an engineer is testing a new product and notices that it does not always perform well, the engineer should

a)

Quit, because only bad engineers have product ideas

b)

Ignore the test results and continue to the next step of the Design Process

c)

Go back and change the design, then test the product again