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Worksheets

HBio Qs

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 2hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
2.
Which of the following is a base that is NOT contained in DNA?
a)
Adenine
b)
Thymine
c)
Uracil
d)
Guanine
3.

What would be the complimentary DNA Strand for the following:

C-G-T

a)

C-G-T

b)

G-C-U

c)

G-C-A

d)

C-G-U

4.

The subunits of nucleic acids, such as DNA, are nucleotides. What are the 3 parts of a nucleotide?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Sugar group

c)

Hydrogen group

d)

Nitrogenous Base

5.

The process of DNA replication is called semi conservative because it results in

a)

none of these

b)

Two DNA molecules.  One original molecule and one with two new strands

c)

two exact copies with new strands

d)

two DNA molecules, each with 1 original strand and one new.

6.
The enzyme that unwinds the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
7.
The _____ strand is made in short fragments during DNA replication
a)
leading
b)
lagging
8.
what does mRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
9.

WHAT IS #3 (ITS CARRYING AND AMINO ACID)

a)

T RNA

b)

M RNA

c)

R RNA

10.
What type of RNA carries the DNA message out of the nucleus to the ribosomes?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
RNA
d)
DNA
11.
When the RNA gets to the ribosomes, which molecule transfers to the mRNA to amino acids?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
Replicated RNA
12.
_______ is made during transcription and ________ is made during translation.
a)
mRNA / a protein
b)
a protein / mRNA
c)
Ribosome / Nucleus
d)
mRNA / tRNA
13.
Which of the following polypeptides is coded for by the mRNA sequence 5' AUGGUUAAA 3'?
a)
Val, Lys, Phe, Gly
b)
Met, Asp, Phe
c)
Met, Val, Lys
d)
Ile, Gln, Leu, Ser
14.

A sequence of a DNA template strand is shown.


3' TCC AAT GGC TTA TTT 5'


Which of these is the correct amino acid chain produced from the DNA template strand?

a)

Arginine, Leucine, Proline, Asparagine

b)

Tryptophan, Phenylalanine, Leucine

c)

Serince, Leucine, Proline, Asparagine

d)

Tryptophan, Phenylalanine, Leucine, Glycine

15.

What is the purpose of a stop codon?

a)

It tells the ribosome when the gene is done being translated.

b)

It tells DNA when the gene is done.

c)

It tells mRNA when to stop transcribing DNA.

d)

It tells tRNA when to stop bringing in codons.

16.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
17.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
18.

Original DNA segment: CGCAACATA

Mutated DNA segment: CGCAATATA

Which of the following occurred?

a)

Nonsense mutation

b)

Silent mutation

c)

Missense mutation

d)

no mutation

19.

Law which states that different traits are inherited independently of each other

a)

Law of independent assortment

b)

Genetics law

20.

If your genotype is Bb, then you can only pass a B or b to your child but you can't pass both.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

21.
Chromosome pairs 1-22 are referred to as
a)
sex chromosomes
b)
sister chromatids
c)
a karyotype
d)
autsomes
22.

The exchange of genetic information that insures that every gamete is unique is referred to as

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

reduction division

d)

crossing over

23.

The end result of meiosis is ______________

a)

2 identical diploid cells

b)

2 unique diploid cells

c)

4 identical haploid cells

d)

4 unique haploid cells

24.

True or False. In Meiosis II, there are TWO cells that go through each phase at the same time.

a)

true

b)

false

25.

The physical expression of a genetic trait is called a

a)

mutation

b)

genotype

c)

crossing over

d)

phenotype

26.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
27.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
28.

In garden pea plant, long stem is dominant over short stem. How many percent will be short stem garden pea plants that may appear in the first filial generation if both parents are heterozygous for the given trait?

a)

25% short stem pea plant

b)

50% short stem pea plant

c)

75% short stem pea plant

d)

100% short stem pea plant

29.

What are the chances that the offspring will have homozygous recessive traits?

a)

1 in 4

b)

3 out of 4

c)

75%

d)

50%

30.

What is the genotypic ratio of a Bb x BB cross

a)

1:2:1

b)

2:2:0

c)

0:2:2

d)

2:2:2

31.
Using the dihybrid cross and key provided, what is the probability of the offspring being tall and white?
a)
9
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
32.

Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

16/16

33.
What goes in box 6
a)
AaBB
b)
AABB
c)
aaBB
d)
AAbb
34.

Cross Two Homozygous plants

(RRYY x rryy)

R = round seeds, r = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds

What is the probability for an offspring to have Round and Yellow seeds? [Answer in fraction]

(a)  

35.
a)
1/4
b)
1/8
c)
1/2
d)
1/6
36.

Trisomy 21, or having 3 copies of chromosomes 21 is known as which type of mutation?

a)

Point

b)

Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

Gene Translocation

37.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
38.

A tall tomato plant is crossed with a short tomato plant, resulting in all medium-sized offspring. Tomato plant size most likely follows which inheritance pattern?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Complete Dominance

39.

What is the blood type of parent 2?

(a)  

40.

What are possible blood types of the children?

(a)  

41.

Examples include skin color and height (the individual's phenotype exists somewhere along a spectrum)

a)

polygenic inheritance

b)

multiple alleles

c)

linked genes

d)

incomplete dominance

42.

Colorblindness is a recessive X-linked disorder.

Which genotype represents a male with normal vision?

a)

XN YN

b)

Xn Yn

c)

XN Y

d)

Xn Y

43.

Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because......

a)

fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only

b)

the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome

c)

the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome

d)

males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness

44.
The sex of a child is determined by
a)

whether the father's sperm contains an x or y chromosome

b)

whether the mother's egg contains an x or y chromosome

c)

the age of the parents

d)

whether the mother's egg contains an xx or xy

45.

The woman who is colorblind marries a man with normal vision. What is the probability that their sons will be colorblind?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

46.

Suppose a skin cell acquired a mutation from exposure to the sun. Can the mutation get passed on if the person has children?

a)

Yes, but there is a 50/50 chance

b)

Yes, but only if the mutation is dominant

c)

No.

47.
Huntington's Disease is a dominant trait.
What is the correct genotype for individual I-2?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
H_
48.
What is the genotype of the father?
a)
AA
b)
aa
c)
Aa
d)
AA or aa
49.
Does this pedigree show a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
50.

The laboratory process that makes many copies of DNA

a)

PCR

b)

Electrophoresis

c)

Gene Therapy

51.

This technique used to analyze DNA involves the

a)

synthesis of new DNA strands from subunits

b)

separation of DNA fragments based on size

c)

production of genetically engineered DNA molecules

d)

removal of defective genes from DNA

52.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
53.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
54.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
55.
Correcting mistakes in DNA is _______
a)
Gene therapy
b)
Gene modification
c)
Selective breeding
d)
animal husbandry
56.

Natural Selection states that...

a)

Genetic mutation is random

b)

Organisms will change to adapt to their environment

c)

The best adapted organisms will live longer and reproduce more than others

d)

Organisms are naturally selected by God to reproduce

57.

Mutations...

a)

Are always a bad thing

b)

Cannot change a large population

c)

Only occur in microevolution

d)

Increase genetic variation within a population

58.

An inherited trait that allows an organism to better survive in its environment.

a)

variation

b)

adaptation

c)

population

d)

mutation

59.

In a population there are red bugs and green bugs. The birds prefer the taste of the red bugs. The green bugs end up surviving longer and reproducing more. Over time the red bugs go extinct. What adaptation did some bugs have that increased their chances of survival?

a)

They were less visible

b)

They were more visible

c)

They tasted better

d)

They tasted worse

60.

Why does overproduction of offspring increase the chance of survival?

a)

It results in more competition for resources

b)

It allows for better adaptation

c)

It leads to natural selection

d)

It ensures genetic variation

61.

Starting in 1954, commercial fishers in the northwest Pacific were paid by weight, rather than by the individual fish, for pink salmon. The fishers increased the use of a type of net that selectively catches larger fish. Which of the following effects did this change in fishing technique most likely have on the salmon population over the next 20 years?

a)

The average body size of the salmon population decreased significantly.

b)

The average body size of the salmon population increased significantly.

c)

The average body size of the males in the salmon population increased, and the females stayed the same.

d)

None of the above.

62.

The Asian shore crab invaded parts of the eastern coast of the United States about 15 years ago. The Asian shore crab preys on blue mussels. In the time since the Asian shore crab arrived, the average shell thickness of the blue mussel population has increased.

Which of the following is the most likely reason that this increase in shell thickness has occurred?

a)

Blue mussels with thick shells attract more crabs that mussels without thick shells.

b)

Blue mussels with thick shells grow in larger colonies than mussels without thick shells.

c)

Blue mussels with thick shells catch more food per day than mussels without thick shells.

d)

Blue mussels with thick shells survive and reproduce more successfully than mussels without thick shells.

63.

Individuals with intermediate traits are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

64.

the selection pressure favors the extreme phenotypes, dividing the population into 2 distinct groups

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

65.

Due to the differences in the food source of the Galapagos finches, they were able to develop adaptations that will allow them to effectively consume their food. This led to the development of different species of Galapagos finches. Does this show microevolution or macroevolution?

a)

Macroevolution

b)

Microevolution

66.
The flowers of pink tulips open in the morning, while the flowers of lavender tulips open in the early afternoon. The bees that pollinate these tulips cannot carry pollen back & forth between the two types of tulips because of their flowers being closed at different times of day. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
67.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)

behavioral isolation

b)

temporal isolation 

c)

gametic isolation

d)

geographic isolation 

68.

What is the main difference between punctuated equilibrium and gradualism?

a)

Punctuated equilibrium suggests changes are not influenced by environmental pressures, while gradualism does.

b)

Gradualism suggests changes only occur due to environmental pressures, while punctuated equilibrium does not.

c)

Punctuated equilibrium and gradualism both suggest rapid changes over short periods.

d)

Punctuated equilibrium suggests rapid changes occur over short periods, while gradualism suggests slow, incremental changes.

69.
The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs gradually over time as a slow and constant process is known as
a)
speciation
b)
punctuated equilibrium
c)
gradualism
d)
microevolution
70.

Evolution occurring gradually and slowly over long periods of time

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Stasis

c)

Punctuated Equilibrium

d)

Gradualism

71.

What comparative anatomy structure has similar form/structure but different function?

a)

Analogous Structures

b)

Homologous Structures

c)

Vestigial Structures

72.

What comparative anatomy structure has a different form/structure but the same function?

a)

Analogous Structures

b)

Homologous Structures

c)

Vestigial Structures

73.

What comparative anatomy structure is a result from left over traits that are no longer needed for survival and no longer serve a purpose?

a)

Analogous Structures

b)

Homologous Structures

c)

Vestigial Structures

74.

___________Evolution occurs when similar organisms become more dissimilar in order to adapt to their environments. The organisms' still retain features with similar structure but different function.

a)

Convergent

b)

Parallel

c)

Divergent

75.
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.

Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram
a)
The organisms share a common ancestry.
b)
The organisms belong to the same genus.
c)
The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.
d)
The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.
76.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
77.

What is this an example of?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial organs

d)

Functional adaption

78.

How does Pangaea support the Theory of Evolution? Select all that apply

a)

It provides an explanation for why similar fossils are found on different continents

b)

The movement of continents provides an example of a big change in environment that would cause evolutionary pressures that would drive species to evolve

c)

It explains how the planet became warmer over the years

d)

It provides evidence that continents are growing in size slowly

79.

Which of the following list the following taxon in the correct order from biggest to smallest: (this will be SHORT ANSWER ON YOUR TEST)

a)

Domains

Kingdoms

Phylum

Class

Order

Family

Genus

Species

b)

Species

Genus

Family

Order

Class

Phylum

Kingdoms

Domains

c)

Domains

Genus

Phylum

Order

Class

Family

Kingdoms

Species

d)

Domains

Kingdoms

Family

Order

Class

Phylum

Genus

Species

80.

The first of each kind were created by God during

a)

the crustaceous period

b)

the creation week

c)

all kinds have evolved from an original ancestor

d)

Mesozoic era

81.

Which level of biological classification is the MOST specific?

a)

Phylum

b)

Kingdom

c)

Order

d)

Species

82.

On the cladogram, which organism is the closest relative of the parrot?

a)

Frog

b)

Hare

c)

Caiman

d)

Parrot

83.

All the animals to the right of the salamander would have the common characteristic of...

a)

Fur

b)

Claws or nails

c)

Lungs

d)

Jaws

84.

According to the cladogram, which organism is most distantly related to the human?

a)

crayfish

b)

grasshopper

c)

perch

d)

frog

85.

Who is most closely related to Taxidea taxus?

a)

Lutra lutra

b)

Panthera pardus

c)

Canis latrans

d)

Canis lupus

86.
What is the domain system in biological classification based on?
a)
Genetic data, specifically rRNA genes
b)
Fossil evidence
c)
Morphological features
d)
Behavioral traits
87.

A nonliving condition or thing, such as climate or habitat, that influences or affects an ecosystem and the organisms in it.

a)

biotic factor

b)

abiotic factor

c)

parasite

d)

organism

88.

A biological community of interacting organisms and their physical environment

a)

ecosystem

b)

community

c)

food chain

d)

biodiversity

89.

An interacting group of various species in a common location

a)

population

b)

species

c)

community

d)

competition

90.
The role or function or job of a species in a community.
a)
habitat
b)
diet
c)
niche
d)
ecosystem
91.

The burning of fossil fuels is known as...

a)

Decomposition

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Combustion

d)

Respiration

92.

___________ is the process by which dead matter is broken down into simpler substances by detritivores.

a)

Respiration

b)

Decomposition

c)

Combustion

d)

Photosynthesis

93.

In ______________, plants use sunlight and carbon dioxide to make glucose and oxygen

a)

Combustion

b)

Respiration

c)

Decomposition

d)

Photosynthesis

94.

Which of the following will DECREASE the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

a)

Combustion of fossil fuels

b)

Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Decomposition

95.

Which type of organisms are responsible for turning nitrogen gas into a form useable by other organisms?

a)

Animals

b)

Plantae

c)

Fungi

d)

Bacteria

96.

What is the original cause of eutrophication?

a)

Too many predators

b)

Too many herbivores

c)

Excess fertilizer

d)

Too much oxygen

97.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
98.
What is the energy source for the water cycle?
a)
the sun
b)
the earth
c)
water
d)
the moon
99.

Which of the following activities could cause the water table of ground water to go down?

a)

Adding more parks and green areas to a city.

b)

Conserving the amount of water used in big cities.

c)

Concrete covering the soil blocking infiltration from taking place.

d)

More precipitation due to more evaporation in an area.

100.

Which of the following would happen if decomposers disappeared?

a)

consumers would have more food

b)

nutrients would never recycle

c)

biomass would decay faster

d)

producers would have more sunlight

101.

In mutualism, both organisms (a)  

102.

In commensalism, one organism benefits while the other one is (a)  

103.

Select the best symbiotic relationship that these two organisms would express

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

parasitism

104.

Select the best symbiotic relationship that these two organisms would express

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

parasitism

105.

According to the graph, what is causing the deer population to decrease

a)

They got sick

b)

The wolf population is decreasing

c)

The wolf population increased

d)

They ran out of food

106.
What statement is TRUE about the graph?
a)
The prey is the green line because there needs to be more prey than predators.
b)
The prey is the red line because there needs to be more predators than prey.
c)
The green line is the producers
d)
The red line is the producers
107.

Which of these is NOT an example of interspecific competition?

a)

Oysters and barnacles competing for settling space on the rocky shore

b)

Goats and sheep in the same paddock competing for grass

c)

Ferns and kawakawa competing for shaded locations in a forest

d)

Stags competing for mates

108.
Bile is produced by the
a)
gallbladder
b)
liver
c)
stomach
d)
pancreas
109.
All are functions of the digestive system except
a)
bringing oxygen to the body
b)
absorption of nutrients
c)
breakdown of food
d)
elimination of waste
110.

What does the small intestine do?

a)

reabsorbs the water after the process of the system.

b)

Absorbs most of the end of the nutrients and minerals from where the food takes place.

c)

keeps the stomach in balance for when the system starts.

d)

Absorbs most of the food that's left from the process.

111.

What is muscular tube that moves food from the pharynx to the stomach?

a)

Uvula

b)

Esophagus

c)

Palate

d)

Salivary glands

112.

What is the last section of the digestive system, where water is absorbed from food and the remaining material is eliminated from the body?

a)

Large Intestine

b)

Small Intestine

c)

Appendix

d)

Pharynx

113.
a dome shaped sheet of muscle, the _________, separates the chest from the abdomen
a)
diaphragm
b)
epiglottis
c)
alveoli
d)
bronchial tubes
114.
After air moves through the pharynx it continues downward. The _____, or windpipe, directs the air into 2 separate branches or tubes.
a)
mucus
b)
trachea
c)
larynx
d)
epiglottis
115.
The air sacs that are covered with capillaries where gas exchange takes place
a)
bronchi
b)
lungs
c)
oxygen
d)
alveoli
116.

In diagram A, the diaphragm is contracted. The volume of the rib cage will ​___ & the pressure will ___causing you to ​ ___ .

a)

increase, decrease, inhale

b)

decrease, increase, inahle

c)

increase, decrease, exhale

d)

decrease, increase, exhale

117.

Oxygen is in ___ concentration in the alveoli & ___ concentration in the blood capillary. This causes oxygen to move by ___.

a)

low, high, active transport

b)

high, low, osmosis

c)

high, low, diffusion

118.

Arteries carry oxygen rich blood away from the heart.

a)

True

b)

False

119.
This chamber of the heart RECEIVES blood returning from the body
a)
Right Atrium
b)
Right Ventricle
c)
Left Atrium
d)
Left Ventricle
120.

This chamber of the heart pumps the blood from the heart to the lungs through the pulmonary artery

a)

Right Atrium

b)

Left Atrium

c)

Right Ventricle

d)

Left Ventricle

121.

What are the main functions of the excretory system?

a)

deliver oxygen to the body

b)

deliver nutrients to the body

c)

remove water and waste from the body

d)

remove disease from the body

122.

Which organ filters blood?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Large Intestine

c)

Lungs

d)

Bladder

123.
The ________________holds urine until you are ready to go to the bathroom.
a)
Kidney
b)
Ureter
c)
Urethra
d)
Bladder