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Earth Science Assessment 1

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Hazard is anything that poses threat, harm, injury, damages to property and even loss of life. Which of the following is not an example of hazard?

a)

Electricity

b)

Landslide

c)

Storm surge

d)

Typhoon

2.

Disaster is a condition wherein there is a sudden disruption of human life due to some factors. Which of the following is not included in the determination of disaster risk of a community?

a)

Exposure

b)

Hazard

c)

Temperature

d)

Vulnerability

3.

Which of the following Philippine agencies and institutes produce geological hazard maps?

a)

Department of Agriculture

b)

Department of Trade and Industry

c)

Department of Environment and Natural Resources

d)

Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology

4.

This refers to expected value of deaths, injuries, and property losses that would be caused by a hazard is known as________.

a)

Exposure

b)

Disaster risk

c)

Hazard

d)

Vulnerability

5.

The sudden shaking of the ground caused by the released of energy may lead to following hazards except.

a)

Liquefaction

b)

Fire

c)

Ground rupture

d)

Tephra falls

6.

What happens during liquefaction?

a)

A mass of hot, dry pyroclastic material moves rapidly along the ground surface.

b)

A mixture of debris and water flows at the slopes of a volcano.

c)

Solid rocks and soil transform into a liquid-like state.

d)

Rock fragments and lava blobs are ejected by a volcano.

7.

Which of the following pairs correctly match?

a)

Earthquake – lahar

b)

Earthquake – tsunami

c)

Volcanic eruption- liquefaction

d)

Volcanic eruption- storm surge

8.

Also known as landslip which occurs when earth materials move downwards along a slope is known as _______.

a)

Avalanche

b)

Lahar

c)

landslide

d)

Lava flow

9.

On the average, how many typhoons does the Philippines experience every year?

a)

15

b)

18

c)

20

d)

25

10.

What happens during a storm surge?

a)

There is a strong wind that rotates on land.

b)

There is a rise in the sea level due to a high tide.

c)

There is an abnormal rise of sea water due to a storm.

d)

There is a displacement of a large volume of water due to an earthquake.

11.

A tropical cyclone as natural hazard become more destructive due to following except.

a)

Acid rain

b)

Heavy rain

c)

Strong wind

d)

Storm surge

12.

What should you do when there is a strong typhoon?

a)

Go to a nearby water resource and check the water level.

b)

Listen to the advisory coming from PAGASA and evacuate when necessary.

c)

Stay inside the house and do not mind the weather forecast

d)

Stay where you are and observe how the water level rises in the area.

13.

Based on the recent theory, life existed approximately _______.

a)

1.5 billion years ago

b)

2.5 billion years ago

c)

3.5 billion years ago

d)

6 billion years ago

14.

What theory proposes that life began in an ocean as a product of the combination of chemicals from the atmosphere and some form of energy to produce the building blocks of life?

a)

Biogenesis

b)

Electric discharge experiment

c)

Panspermia

d)

Primordial soup theory

15.

What did the Miller and Urey's experiment prove?

a)

Complex organic molecules can develop spontaneously under primordial environment.

b)

Life could have evolved on Earth from non-living chemicals.

c)

Protocells were the simplest living organisms to appear on Earth.

d)

RNA can produce new RNA molecules from RNA templates.

16.

The following are characteristics that exhibits life. The ability of organism to respond to a stimulus is also known as ______.

a)

Adaptation

b)

Evolution

c)

Irritability

d)

Movement

17.

An English scientist which started out the beginnings of cytology as subdiscipline of biology and coined the term “cell” is.

a)

Felix Dujardin

b)

Matias Schlieden

c)

Robert Brown

d)

Robert Hooke

18.

Which of the following refers to the process by which changes occur in the characteristics of species of organisms over time?

a)

evolution

b)

homeostasis

c)

metabolism

d)

regulation

19.

Which of these best distinguishes a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Prokaryotic cells are much larger than the eukaryotic cells.

b)

Prokaryotic cells have ribosomes, but eukaryotic cells do not have ribosomes.

c)

Prokaryotic cells have a cell wall and chloroplast, but eukaryotic cells never do.

d)

Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, but eukaryotic cells do have.

20.

What is the process by which the sun's energy is trapped as the source of energy and is converted into chemical energy?

a)

adaptation

b)

evolution

c)

homeostasis

d)

photosynthesis

21.

Which of the following is the function of ribosomes?

a)

aids the movement of the cell

b)

controls all the activities of the cell

c)

protein synthesis

d)

the site of lipid and membrane synthesis

22.

Which structure-function pair is mismatched?

a)

cell wall: protection

b)

mitochondria: powerhouse of the cell

c)

nucleus: control center

d)

peroxisomes: lipid synthesis

23.

An organelle that is responsible for food making process among plants and plant-like organisms.

a)

Chlorophyll

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Lysosome

d)

Mitochondria

24.

The central part of the cell that controls and regulate the activities of the cell including protein synthesis is known as ___.

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Golgi body

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

25.

Which of the following cells would need a lot of mitochondria?

a)

blood cells

b)

intestine cells

c)

muscle cells

d)

nerve cells

26.

Where does Calvin cycle/Dark Cycle take place in the chloroplast?

a)

Grana

b)

Stomata

c)

Stroma

d)

Thylakoid

27.

Which of the following are the products of light-dependent reaction?

a)

ADP and NADPH

b)

ATP and NADPH

c)

CO2 and H2O

d)

RuBP and O2

28.

Which of the following is not true about the thylakoid membrane?

a)

It contains the chlorophyll.

b)

It is a membrane-bound compartment inside the chloroplasts.

c)

It is the site of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis

d)

It is present only in plants.

29.

All of the following are true about the Calvin cycle except _.

a)

It fixes the CO2 to form 3-phosphoglycerate.

b)

It produces glucose.

c)

It splits the H2O molecules to free O2.

d)

It takes place in the stroma within the chloroplast.

30.

Where does the released O2 during light-dependent reaction come from?

a)

formation of ATP

b)

generation of glucose

c)

splitting of H2O molecules

d)

splitting of CO2 molecules

31.

Which of the following factors limit the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis?

a)

CO2, light, and water

b)

CO2, pressure, and light

c)

CO2, water, and temperature

d)

CO2, temperature, and light

32.

Where does the released O2 during light-dependent reaction come from?

a)

formation of ATP

b)

generation of glucose

c)

splitting of H2O molecules

d)

splitting of CO2 molecules

33.

They are organisms that cannot make their own food.

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Consumers

c)

Heterotrophs

d)

Producers

e)

Both b and c

34.

Which of the following food source would give you more energy if consumed?

a)

Beef

b)

Chicken

c)

Pork

d)

Vegetables

35.

Which is the actual product of the Kreb’s Cycle?

a)

acetyl-CoA

b)

acetate

c)

NAD

d)

pyruvate

36.

Where does the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA occur?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

mitochondrion

d)

nucleus

37.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of cellular respiration?

a)

Electron transport chain-Krebs cycle

b)

Electron transport chain-glycolysis-Krebs cycle

c)

Glycolysis – krebs cycle – electron transport chain

d)

Krebs cycle-glycolysis-electron transport chain

38.

Which is the product of glycolysis?

a)

ethanol

b)

lactic acid

c)

NADH

d)

pyruvic acid

39.

Which of the following refers to the female reproductive part of a flowering plant?

a)

Anther

b)

Petal

c)

Pistil

d)

Stamen

40.

What is the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther to the stigma?

a)

fertilization

b)

germination

c)

pollination

d)

seed development

41.

What do you call the union of sperm cell and egg cell?

a)

budding

b)

fertilization

c)

fission

d)

reproduction

42.

What type of reproduction does not need two parents to produce an individual?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

external fertilization

c)

internal fertilization

d)

sexual reproduction

43.

Most mammals reproduce the same way except for monotremes (echidnas and platypus). This is because monotremes _.

a)

lay eggs

b)

give birth to young

c)

reproduce asexually

d)

fertilize eggs externally

44.

While walking at your favorite beach, you have noticed an organism. From time to time, one of its appendages detach and gradually grow into a whole new organism, similar to the first. This is an example of _.

a)

budding

b)

fission

c)

fragmentation

d)

internal fertilization

45.

Which of the following are abiotic pollinating agents?

a)

Animals

b)

Clouds

c)

water

d)

wind

46.

What is the difference between autogamy and xenogamy?

a)

Autogamy is self-pollination while xenogamy is cross-pollination.

b)

Autogamy is cross-pollination while xenogamy is self-pollination.

c)

Autogamy is the transfer of the pollen grain to the stigma of a different flower while xenogamy is the transfer of the grain to the same flower.

d)

Autogamy is the transfer of the ovule to the stigma of the same flower while xenogamy is the transfer of the ovule to a different flower.

47.

Which of the following animals fertilize the eggs outside the female reproductive tract?

a)

frogs

b)

humans

c)

hydra

d)

turtles

48.

What advantage would animals that reproduce sexually have over animals that reproduce asexually when there is a change in environmental conditions? Animals that employ sexual reproduction _.

a)

allows species to adapt to new conditions

b)

decreases the species variation

c)

produces offspring that are identical to parents

d)

restricts the spread of harmful features

49.

Which is not true about the RNA?

a)

It can serve as a messenger.

b)

It contains the sugar ribose.

c)

It comes from a DNA template

d)

It is a double-stranded molecule.

50.

Genetic engineering involves the modifying and transferring of _.

a)

Enzymes

b)

genes

c)

proteins

d)

sugars

51.
Last NAme, Given Name, Middle Name
a)
ABALOS, JARED KYL LIQUIRAN
b)
BALANSAY, ADRIAN NOAH, BANDONG
c)
BALANSAY, KURT, PERALTA
d)
CANCINO, CARL ERNEST, VILLAFANIA
e)
CARDAÑO, IAMJECH ANGELO, DE LEON
52.
Which of the following is not true about the hydrosphere?
a)
Half of the Earth's surface is composed of the oceans and the seas.
b)
It serves as thermostat and heat reservoir, especially the ocean.
c)
It is also a way for transportation.
d)
The hydrosphere contains all the water on our planet including ice and vapor.
53.
How does ozone layer support life on Earth?
a)
by providing significant insulation
b)
by providing energy needed by organisms
c)
by protecting it from the sun’s harmful radiation
d)
by giving protection against small to medium size meteorites
54.
Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a)
Living organisms can harness energy from the sun.
b)
All living organisms cannot survive without sunlight.
c)
Living organisms cannot harness energy from chemical substances.
d)
All of the statements are true.
55.
Given its current position, if Earth is bigger than its size, how will you describe ats atmosphere?
a)
It will have a thinner atmosphere
b)
It will have a thicker atmosphere
c)
Size will not affect the Earth’s atmosphere
d)
it wont have atmosphere
56.

From the concepts you have learned in Module 1, what do you think is the most vital/important factor that capacitates our planet to be habitable? Answer is a one word term and must be in CAPSLOCK

(a)  

57.
Which of the following is not true about the earth's atmosphere?
a)
It contains the ozone layer that absorbs the ultraviolet wavelengths.
b)
The atmosphere only consists of nitrogen, carbon dioxide, oxygen, and argon
c)
The earth’s atmosphere protects us from the sun’s radiation.
d)
Thirty percent of the radiation is reflected away by the atmosphere, clouds, and surface
58.
Which of the following is true about the Earth’s subsystems?
a)
Each subsystem did not change since the formation of the Earth.
b)
Earth’s subsystems are similar to the subsystems of other planets.
c)
Each subsystem works independently and does not depend on other subsystems.
d)
Earth’s subsystems interact with each other making life possible on Earth.
59.
What are the two ultimate sources of energy for the Earth system?
a)
I. Wind
b)
II. Sun
c)
III. Lightning
d)
IV. Earth’s interior
60.
The atmosphere acts like a blanket for the planet, shielding it from too much harmful UV radiation from the Sun. What will happen if the atmosphere on Earth is removed?
a)
Solar energy will not reach the Earth’s surface.
b)
The Earth will be able to sustain life.
c)
Ultraviolet rays will easily penetrate the Earth.
d)
The Earth will maintain its current temperature.
61.
What are the thickest and thinnest layers of the earth, respectively?
a)
crust, mantle
b)
inner core, mantle
c)
mantle, crust
d)
mantle, outer core
62.
Why is the inner core solid, but the outer core liquid, if both regions have very high temperatures. ( 2 possible answers)
a)
The pressure in the outer core is lower than the pressure in the inner core.
b)
The pressure in the outer core is higher than the pressure in the inner core.
c)
The temperature in the outer core is lower than the temperature in the inner core.
d)
The temperature in the outer core is higher than the temperature in the inner core.
63.
It is a solid, inorganic, naturally occurring substance with a fixed structure and a definite composition.
a)
magma
b)
mineral
c)
rock
d)
salt
64.
Diamond and graphite are both carbon based minerals yet they have different characteristics and properties. Which among the criteria of minerals justify this differences
a)
fixed chemical formula
b)
naturally occuring
c)
specific chemical arrangement
d)
solid
65.
Hardness is the measure of the resistance of a surface to abrasions or scratches. The ability of mineral to reflect light is ____________.
a)
cleavage
b)
crystal habit
c)
hardness
d)
luster
66.
William found an unknown mineral that has not been reported before. He observed the behavior of the mineral when he tried to cut and crush it. What physical characteristic of the mineral was examined?
a)
cleavage
b)
fracture
c)
hardness
d)
tenacity
67.
What is the difference between rock and mineral?
a)
mineral is crystalline substance while rock is solid
b)
mineral is crystalline substance while rock is a mixture of minerals
c)
they both formed naturally in the Earth
d)
mineral is a solution while rock is a solvent
68.
Which of the following rocks are formed from preexisting rocks exposed to extreme heat and pressure in the Earth’s interior?
a)
igneous
b)
metamorphic
c)
plutonic
d)
sedimentary
69.
Extrusive igneous rock is formed by the cooling or solidification of lava, which is the molten rock ejected on the surface which is also known as ___________.
a)
Aphanitic
b)
Porphyritic
c)
Plutonic
d)
Volcanic
70.
Which of the following describes the texture of volcanic rock?
a)
coarse-grained
b)
fine-grained
c)
medium-grained
d)
foliated
71.
A mafic extrusive igneous rock is formed on the surface of the Earth with a dark color. The dark color of this type of rock indicates the presence/ absence of what element?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Helium
c)
Oxygen
d)
Silicon
72.
Talc is to baby powder while ___________ is to toothpaste
a)
Apatite
b)
Calcite
c)
Fluorite
d)
Halite
73.
Which of the following metamorphic rocks are non-foliated?
a)
Gneiss
b)
marble
c)
slate
d)
schist
74.
How can an igneous rock become a metamorphic rock?
a)
when it melts and forms magma
b)
when it disintegrates into smaller pieces
c)
when it undergoes weathering and erosion
d)
when it is subjected to high temperature and pressure
75.
Running water is classified as what exogenous process/es that help/s in the rock cycle.
a)
Chemical weathering
b)
Erosion
c)
Erosion and weathering
d)
Weathering
76.
A sedimentary rock derived from sediments that precipitated from concentrated solutions (e.g. seawater) or from the accumulation of biologic or organic material (e.g. shells, plant material is called ______.
a)
Bio clastic
b)
Clastic
c)
Intrusive igneous
d)
Non clastic
77.
_ is the process of change in the structure and form of rocks due to intense heat and pressure.
a)
Crystallization
b)
Compression
c)
metamorphism
d)
tension
78.
A metamorphic rock with a foliated texture ________.
a)
has mineral grains that have lined up in parallel lines
b)
has mineral grains that have lined up perpendicular to each other.
c)
has mineral grains that form no distinct pattern
d)
has mineral grains that have lined up in diagonal lines
79.
Gold and silver are minerals that are composed of individual elements known as _________.
a)
Carbonates
b)
Halides
c)
Native
d)
Silicate
80.
These are specialized rocks on the ground that people mine and gather to extract valuable materials.
a)
Fossils
b)
Mineral
c)
Ore deposits
d)
Ores
81.
How do you separate ore minerals from unwanted rocks near the surface of the earth?
a)
by analysis
b)
by blasting
c)
by dewatering
d)
by sampling
82.
What are the primary components involved in processing of minerals?
a)
comminution, dewatering, crushing, grinding, and analysis
b)
dewatering, comminution, analysis, sampling, and surface mining
c)
sampling and analysis, comminution, concentration, and dewatering
d)
sampling, analysis, comminution, filtration, and dewatering
83.
Which of the following is not true about surface mining?
a)
Open-pit mining is an example of surface mining.
b)
Ores are extracted above the surface of the earth.
c)
Ores covered with soil and rocks are removed through blasting.
d)
Tunnels are created to extract ore minerals.
84.
The by-product of milling ores that are usually dumped in a pond or a water reservoir are _.
a)
acids
b)
cyanides
c)
heavy metals
d)
tailings
85.
What is the average percentage of wastes generated in mining?
a)
1% of the mineral
b)
1% of the ore
c)
99% of the mineral
d)
99% of the ore
86.
What is the first requirement for the remains of a living organism to transform into a fossil fuel?
a)
complete decomposition
b)
partial to no decomposition
c)
pressurized by sediments
d)
subjected to heat
87.
What makes the Philippines a good producer of geothermal energy?
a)
It is an archipelagic nation.
b)
It is closest to the shoreline of major oceans.
c)
It is located along the Pacific Ring of Fire.
d)
It is surrounded by various water resources
88.
The following are uses of geothermal energy EXCEPT:
a)
bathing
b)
heating
c)
milling
d)
power generating
89.
Which of the following is NOT true about the impact of geothermal energy resource to the environment?
a)
Geothermal power plants do not burn fuel to generate electricity, so the levels of air pollutants they emit are low.
b)
Geothermal features in national parks, such as geysers and fumaroles, making the site promotes sustainability.
c)
Most geothermal power plants inject the geothermal steam and water that they use back into the earth for recycling purposes.
d)
The construction of geothermal power plants destroys natural habitat disrupting ecological niche.
90.
Recently, price of oil, petroleum products and electricity constantly increased. In your own context, list 5 ways to conserve energy. Note: Focus on the current situation of our country.
4 lines

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