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Worksheets

Chemistry Revision IGCSE

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 4hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A charged particle that has gained or lost electrons is called a _____.
a)
molecule
b)
ion
c)
isotope
d)
element
2.
A cation is a ____ ion.
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
d)
ficticious
3.
A anion will be a ____ ion.
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
d)
ficticious
4.

Nitrogen, N, will form which of the following ions?

a)

N

b)

N-3

c)

N-5

d)

N+5

5.

Beryllium, Be, will ____ valence electrons when forming an ionic bond.

a)

lose 4

b)

gain 4

c)

lose 2

d)

gain 2

6.
Write the formula for barium + nitrogen
a)
Ba2N3
b)
Ba3N2
c)
BaN
d)
BaN3
7.
Write the correct chemical formula for Ag +  and  Br -
a)
AgBr
b)
silver bromide
c)
Ag2Br2
d)
gold bromide
8.

What will be the charge of a bromine ion?

a)

+7

b)

-7

c)

-1

d)

+1

9.
Which is the correct name for CaBr2?
a)
Calcium Bromine
b)
Bromine Calcium
c)
Calcium Bromide
10.
Ionic bonds consist of the ____ of valence electrons.
a)
sharing
b)
transfer
11.
Magnesium bromide is an ionic compound with the chemical formula MgBr₂.  What does the "2" tell you?
a)
There are 2 bromide ions for every magnesium ion
b)
Bromide has a 2- charge
c)
Bromide has a 2+ charge
d)
There are 2 magnesium ions to every bromide ion
12.
How do the following two elements bond together?
Al3+  O2-         
a)
AlO
b)
Al2O3
c)
Al3O6
d)
Al3O2
13.
What is the name of Al(NO3)3?
a)
Aluminum trinitrate
b)
Monoaluminum nitrate
c)
Aluminum (III) nitrate
d)
Aluminum Nitrate
14.
What is the name of Mg(OH)2?
a)
Magnesium Hydride
b)
Magnesium Dihydride
c)
Magnesium Dihydroxide
d)
Magnesium Hydroxide
15.

Which of the following is NOT a property of ionic compounds?

a)

They conduct electricity when molten

b)

They conduct electricity when in solution

c)

They have high boiling points

d)

They are insoluble in water

16.
Which of the following is a characteristic property of ionic compounds?
a)
They form hard, brittle crystals with characteristic shapes
b)
They have low melting points
c)
They have low boiling points
d)
They contain no charged particles
17.
In what form can an ionic compound conduct electricity?
a)
when dissolved in water
b)
as a solid
c)
as a crystal
d)
when warmed slightly
18.
What is the formula of Sodium oxide?
a)
Na2O
b)
NaO2
c)
Na2O2
d)
Na2O
19.
An ionic bond is the attraction between:
a)
oppositely charged ions
b)
similarly charged ions
c)
neutral ions
d)
neutral atoms
20.
Which of the following is NOT true of ionic compounds?
a)
Metal ions have a + charge
b)
Non-metal ions have a - charge
c)
They conduct electricity when they are solid
d)
They are arranged in a giant lattice
21.
Magnesium bromide is an ionic compound with the chemical formula MgBr₂.  What does the "2" tell you?
a)
There are 2 bromide ions for every magnesium ion
b)
Bromide has a 2- charge
c)
Bromide has a 2+ charge
d)
There are 2 magnesium ions to every bromide ion
22.

Which is the correct formula for aluminum sulfide?

a)

AlS

b)

Al3S2

c)

S3Al2

d)

Al2S3

23.

Which of the following is true for ionic bonding & ionic compounds?

a)

They must be made of ions with like charges.

b)

The negative ion must be written first.

c)

Compounds must have an overall charge of zero.

d)

They are made of metals and nonmetals.

e)

The positive ion must be written first.

24.
What is the formula for aluminum fluoride?
a)
AlF
b)
Al2F3
c)
AlF3
d)
Al3F2
25.
Metals tend to 
a)
gain electrons
b)
lose electrons
26.

What is the charge of ion "X" in the formula XF3?

a)

+3

b)

-3

c)

+1

d)

-1

27.

Which of the following pairs of elements will NOT form an ionic compound?

a)

sodium and fluorine

b)

phosphorous and aluminum

c)

potassium and magnesium

d)

strontium and oxygen

28.
How are covalent bonds explained?
a)
When one atom takes the other atom's electron
b)
When the atom shares an electron with an another atom
c)
When the two nucleus merge
d)
When the neutrons leave the nucleus
29.
What region of the periodic table contains atoms that form covalent bonds?
a)
the left side
b)
the middle
c)
the right side
d)
top left
30.

Generally high melting & boiling points

a)

Ionic compounds

b)

Covalent compounds

31.

What type of bonding does this picture show?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

32.
Carbon atoms bond together because of all of the following except:
a)
They become more stable when they bond together.
b)
They have 4 valence electrons.
c)
8 valence electrons provide the most stability.
d)
They have 6 valence electrons.
33.

Li+ is a cation and F- is an anion. When bonded together they form what type of chemical bond?

a)

Covalent

b)

Ionic

c)

Metallic

d)

None are correct

34.

When identifying an element on the Periodic Table, the PERIOD refers to the

a)

Column or # of valence electrons

b)

Row or # of electron orbitals surrounding the nucleus

c)

Both are correct

d)

None are correct

35.

Refer to the diagram. What can be concluded regarding the amount of energy needed to break the single bonds of water molecules and/or elements within a molecule?

a)

Intramolecular forces that bond elements in a water molecule require 415 kJ/mol per bond to break

b)

Intramolecular forces that bond hydrogen & oxygen total 830 KJ/mol for 1 molecule of water to break

c)

Intermolecular forces that bond water molecules together require 41KJ/mol to break

d)

All are correct

36.
What is the basis of a metallic bond?
a)
the attraction of neutral metal atoms.
b)
the attraction between protons and neutrons.
c)
the attraction between positive metal ions and interlocking electrons.
d)
the attraction between positive metal ions and free floating electrons.
37.
What does malleable mean?
a)
able to be shaped
b)
will break easily
c)
can be used for wire
d)
is shiny
38.
Why do metals conduct
a)
They are shiny
b)
The electrons are held tightly within the lattice
c)
The electrons are delocalised and able to move
d)
The electrons are shared between two metal ions
39.
What is the ability of a substance to be pulled into a thin strand?
a)
Malleability
b)
Ductility 
c)
Conductivity
d)
Solubility
40.

Why are metals malleable?

a)

They are shiny

b)

The electrons are held tightly within the lattice structure making it strong

c)

The electrons are delocalized and able to move between the atoms

d)

The electrons are shared between two metal ions and this holds the atoms together

41.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

42.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

43.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

45.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

46.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

47.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

48.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

49.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

50.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

51.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

52.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

53.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

54.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

55.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

56.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

57.

Which of the following metals is extracted by electrolysis?

a)

K

b)

Ca

c)

Al

d)

Fe

58.

Graphite is used as an electrode because it

a)

does not burn

b)

has mobile electrons

c)

is a metal

d)

is a reducing agent

59.

Which of the following reactions never goes completion in a closed container?

a)

H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI

b)

C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O

c)

NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

d)

CuSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Cu

60.

For the reaction pictured, 
If the concentration of SO2 is increased, the equilibrium position of the reaction will shift ___________.

a)

to the left

b)

to the right

c)

to the left and right

d)

no change

61.

Consider the sulfur trioxide synthesis reaction again:

Which of the following will NOT shift the equilibrium to the right?

a)

add mor O2

b)

increase the pressure

c)

add catalyst

d)

lowering the temperature

62.

At what time on the graph will the reaction reach equilibrium?

a)

t1

b)

t2

c)

t3

d)

t4

63.

For the Haber process pictured, if the pressure of the system is increased, which substance(s) will increase in concentration?

a)

H2

b)

N2

c)

H2 and N2

d)

NH3

64.

2SO2(g)+O2(g)⇌2SO3(g)

Removing O2(g) will

a)

shift equilibrium forward

b)

shift equilibrium reverse

c)

no shift

65.

2SO2(g)+O2(g)⇌2SO3(g)

Adding SO2(g) will

a)

shift equilibrium forward

b)

shift equilibrium reverse

c)

no shift

66.

What is the effect of increasing the pressure on the following equilibrium: 2NO(g) + O2 (g) ⇌2NO2(g)?

a)

The yield of NO2 increases

b)

The yield of NO2 decreases

c)

The reaction is slower

d)

The concentration of O2 increases.

67.
For the reaction...
SO2 + O2 <=>  SO3
If the equilibrium position shifts to the right, the concentration of O2 will ___________.
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
remain the same
d)
double
68.
For the reaction...
N2  +  O2  <=>  2NO:  Δ H = +182 kJ mol-1.
If the temperature is increased the equilibrium position will shift _______.
a)
to the left
b)
to the right
c)
to the left and right
d)
neither left nor right
69.
A crystal of iron(II) sulfate is in a state of equilibrium with a saturated solution of iron(II) sulfate, as shown in the diagram.
Which of the following statements are correct?
a)
The colour of the solution darkens as the crystal continues to dissolve
b)
The concentration of the iron(II) sulfate solution increases as the water evaporates
c)
The shape of the iron(II) sulfate crystal does not change
d)
The colour of the solution does not change but the shape of the crystal may change
70.

Water and a white solid are produced when blue copper(II) sulfate is heated. On the addition of water to the white solid, heat is released and the white solid turns blue.

Which statement correctly describes the reaction and the blue copper(II) sulfate?

a)

non-reversible

b)

reversible

c)

anhydrous

d)

hydrated

71.

Which of the following reactions cannot be reversed?

a)

Melting ice

b)

Thermal decomposition of hydrated cobalt(I) chloride

c)

Combustion of propane

d)

Hydration of anhydrous copper(II) sulfate

72.

Reversible reactions occur when products formed in the forward reaction behave as reactants and proceed in the reverse direction to produce the original reactants again.

Which of the following statements is correct for a reversible reaction?

a)

If the forward reaction is exothermic, then the reverse reaction must be endothermic.

b)

Both directions are exothermic.

c)

Both directions are endothermic.

d)

If the forward reaction is endothermic, then the reverse reaction must be exothermic.

73.

Carbon and steam react together as shown in the equation.

C(s) + H2O (g) ↔ CO(g) + H2(g)

Forward reaction is endothermic. Which conditions of pressure and temperature would provide the highest yield of H2?

a)

low pressure

b)

high pressure

c)

low temperature

d)

high temperature

74.

The reversible reaction between nitrogen dioxide and dinitrogen tetroxide is shown in the diagram.

Which of the following statements about the equilibrium mixture in this reaction is correct?

a)

If the pressure is decreased, the amount of N2O4 formed increases.

b)

If the pressure is increased, the amount of NO2 formed increases.

c)

The decomposition of N2O4 is exothermic.

d)

The decomposition of N2O4 is endothermic.

75.

Methane and steam react together endothermically to produce carbon monoxide and hydrogen as shown in the diagram.

Which changes to the pressure and temperature of the reaction would provide the highest equilibrium yield of CO?

a)

increase pressure

b)

decrease pressure

c)

increase temperature

d)

decrease temperature

76.

A part of the Contact process involves the production of sulfur trioxide from the reversible reaction of sulfur dioxide and oxygen, as shown in the diagram.

Which of the following changes would increase the yield of SO3 at equilibrium?

a)

Decreasing the temperature

b)

Increasing the pressure

c)

Decreasing the concentration of O2

77.

Which of the following statements best describe equilibrium position?

a)

Equilibrium position refers to the concentration of reactants and products relative to one another at equilibrium.

b)

Equilibrium position refers to the physical state of the reactants and products at equilibrium.

c)

Equilibrium position refers to the relative reactivity of the reactants and products for a reaction at equilibrium.

d)

Equilibrium position refers to the obtainable yield of product for the forward reaction only.

78.

Which of the following statement best describes a reversible reaction at equilibrium?

a)

At equilibrium the concentration of reactants and products are the same.

b)

At equilibrium the concentrations of reactants and products are constant and the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of reverse reaction.

c)

At equilibrium the concentration of reactants and products are different.

d)

At equilibrium the concentrations of reactants and products are constant and the rate of the forward reaction is different to the rate of the reverse reaction.

79.
Mole ratios are obtained from the
a)
balanced chemical equation
b)
periodic table
c)
molar mass
80.

How many step will it take for me to go from moles given to moles unknown?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

81.

How many steps will it take me to go from grams to grams?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

82.

I use molar mass when the problem gives me grams?

a)

False

b)

True

83.
Balance the following reaction :
 
CaC₂(s)   +   H₂O(l)   -->   C₂H₂(g)   +   Ca(OH)₂(aq)
a)
1,2,2,2
b)
1,2,1,1
c)
2,1,1,1
d)
2,1,2,1
84.
2NaClO3 (s) → 2NaCl (s) + 3O2 (g)  
12.00 moles of NaClO3 will produce how many grams of O2?
a)
256 g of O2
b)
576 g of O2
c)
288 g O2
85.
Cl2 + 2KBr → Br2 + 2KCl
How many grams of potassium chloride (KCl) can be produced from 356 g of potassium bromide (KBr)?
a)
749 g
b)
223 g
c)
479 g
d)
814 g
86.
N2 +  3H2 −->  2NH3 
How many moles of hydrogen are needed to react with 2 moles of nitrogen?
a)
6
b)
2
c)
3
d)
1
87.
2 KClO3 → 2 KCl + 3 O2
How many moles of oxygen are produced when 6.7 moles of KClO3 decompose completely?
a)
6.7 mol
b)
1.0 mol
c)
10.1 mol
d)
4.5 mol
88.
 SiO2 + 3C → SiC + 2CO
I need to add 8 moles of Carbon to the reaction. How many grams of Carbon should I weigh?
a)
96 g
b)
0.67 g
c)
2.67 g
d)
48 g
89.
What is the mole ratio of H2O to H3PO4 in the following chemical equation?   P4O10 + 6 H2O --> 4 H3PO4 
a)
6:4
b)
4:6
c)
1:3
d)
3:1
90.
When does a chemical reaction stop?
a)
When the lab is finished
b)
When the excess reactant is used up
c)
When the limiting reactant is used up
d)
Chemical reactions never stop
91.

In the equation 2 Al2O3 --> 4 Al + 3 O2, what is the mole ratio of aluminum to oxygen (aluminum is asked for, oxygen is given)?

a)

10/6

b)

3/4

c)

4/3

d)

2/3

92.
What is the molar mass of C6H12O6?
a)

180.18 g/mol

b)

180.12 g/mol

c)

180.24 g/mol

d)

180.06 g/mol

93.
If a chemist calculates the maximum amount of product that could be obtained in a chemical reaction, he or she is calculating the
a)
theoretical yield
b)
mole ratio
c)
actual yield
d)
percentage yield
94.
CH4  +  2O2  →  CO2  +  2H2O
24 grams of CH4 was added to the above reaction. Calculate the theoretical yield of CO2.
a)
66 grams
b)
132 grams
c)
33 grams
d)
8.72
95.
The ______________ yield is the maximum amount of product possible in a reaction. This determines the amount of product that should be produced in a perfect setting
a)
Percent
b)
actual
c)
stoichiometry
d)
theoretical
96.

When reacting Na with Cl2, we calculated that the theoretical yield should be 13 grams. Our actual yield was 12.5 grams. What is the percent yield?

a)

90.4%

b)

104%

c)

96.15%

d)

1.04%

97.
Theoretical yield = 73g
Actual yield = 62g
Calculate the percent yield.
a)
1.16%
b)
116%
c)
85%
d)
76%
98.
When 12 moles of O2 reacts with 1.1 mole of C10H8 what is the limiting reactant?  C10H8 + 12 O2 --> 10 CO2 + 4 H2O
a)
Oxygen
b)
C10H8
c)
Water
d)
Carbon Dioxide
99.
A reactant that remains after a chemical reaction stops
a)
stoichiometry
b)
mole ratio
c)
excess reactant
d)
limiting reactant
100.
Fe + S --> FeS
If 7.62g Fe react with 8.67g S, what is the limiting reactant?
a)
Fe
b)
S
c)
FeS
d)
none 
101.
P4 + 3O2 --> P4O6 
What is the limiting reactant is 12 moles of P4 react with 15 moles of O2?
a)
P4
b)
O2
c)
P4O6 
d)
none of the above
102.
You need 2 pieces of bread, 1 tablespoon of peanut butter and 2 tablespoons of jelly to make a sandwich.  If you have 10 pieces of bread, 4 tablespoons of peanut butter and 20 tablespoons of jelly, what is the limiting reactant?
a)
bread
b)
jelly
c)
peanut butter
d)
sandwich
103.

Superheating gas so that it becomes ionized is one of the methods to form this state of matter.

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

104.

This state of matter has a firm, unchanging physical structure.

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

105.

I can compress the volume of these states of matter.

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

106.

An ice cube turning to water is an example of what phase change?

a)

Condensation

b)

Melting

c)

Sublimation

d)

Vaporization

107.

Solid dry ice turning into gaseous carbon dioxide is an example of what phase change?

a)

Condensation

b)

Melting

c)

Sublimation

d)

Recombination

108.

Adding large amounts of energy to transform a gas into plasma is known as what?

a)

Condensation

b)

Ionization

c)

Sublimation

d)

Recombination

109.

In colder environments, gaseous water vapor can turn directly to solid ice on a window. What is this process called?

a)

Deposition

b)

Evaporation

c)

Freezing

d)

Vaporization

110.
At higher temperatures
a)
particles in an object have less energy
b)
particles in an object move faster
c)
a gas contracts
111.
Particles of a liquid
a)
are tightly packed together and stay in a fixed position.
b)
have no viscosity.
c)
decrease in volume with increasing temperature.
d)
are free to move around one another but still touch.
112.
What does this picture represent? 
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
plasma
113.
Which state of matter has particles that are stuck in one spot but vibrate?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
114.
What is diffusion?
a)
when molecules move 
b)
when molecules move from a high concentration to a low.
c)
no movement 
d)
molecules move everywhere
115.

How can you stop the movement of particles?

a)

Increase the temperature

b)

Decrease the temperature

c)

You can't.

d)

Hold them still with your hands.

116.
a)
It remains the same.
b)
It changes greatly.
c)
It changes minimally.
d)
Unable to tell.
117.
A gas
a)
has a definite shape but no definite volume
b)
has a definite volume but no definite shape
c)
has fast-moving particles
118.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

119.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

120.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

121.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

122.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

123.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

124.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

125.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

126.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

127.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

128.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

129.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

130.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

131.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

132.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

133.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

134.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

135.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

136.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

137.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

138.

If a chemical reaction releases heat to the surroundings, it is called an...

a)

endothermic reaction

b)

exothermic reaction

c)

existential reaction

d)

extinct reaction

139.

In an endothermic reaction, the temperature of the surroundings...

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Stays the same

140.

Combustion reactions are always what type of reaction?

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

c)

existential

d)

extinct

141.

Melting ice into liquid water is what type of process?

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

c)

Existential

d)

Extinct

142.

When acids react with alkalis exothermically. What happens to the temperature of the water that the reaction happens in?

a)

Never stops increasing

b)

Never stops decreasing

c)

Always stays the same

d)

Increases initially then decreases when the reaction finishes.

143.

The molar energy change (called enthalpy, ΔH) is equal to:

a)

Q/moles

b)

Q x moles

c)

Moles / Q

d)

Moles + Q

144.

For an exothermic reaction, the enthalpy change (ΔH) has what sign?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

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