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APES Semester 1 Test Review

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 3hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
If the number of births is greater than the number of deaths in a population, what will happen to the growth of the population?
a)
It will increase.
b)
It will decrease.
c)
It will stay the same.
d)
It will fluctuate.
2.
Largest number of individuals of a population that the environment can support...  
a)
carrying capacity
b)
population crash
c)
lag phase
d)
mutualism
3.
What is the carrying capacity for this sheep population?
a)
1.8 million
b)
1.25 million
c)
1.6 million
d)
1.o million
4.
What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
5.
Any thing or organism that regulates the size of a population of another organism is known as __________.
a)
a limiting measure
b)
a limiting factor
c)
factorization
d)
materialization of precipitation
6.

What is the correct equation for calculating population growth rate?

a)

Births + Deaths

b)

Births - Deaths

c)

Deaths / Births

d)

Deaths x Births

7.
Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a population?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
8.
Which of these would NOT be true of a specialist species?
a)
They are more likely to go extinct during changes to an ecosystem. 
b)
They have a very narrow niche.
c)
They often lose in competition for resources to generalists. 
d)
They often feed on a very specific diet. 
9.
A species described as r-strategist would definitely NOT have which of the following characteristics?
a)
clumped population pattern
b)
much parenting
c)
many offspring
d)
random population pattern
10.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
11.

factors that affect a population depending on its size​

- these include food, predation, parasitism, and disease​

a)

Density-Dependent factor

b)

Density-Independent factors

12.

Describes how many individuals of different ages make up a population​

a)

Age Structure

b)

Age Layout

c)

The youths collation

d)

Age Spread

13.

Which population has the greatest potential for rapid growth?

a)

Populations with a large number of middle aged individuals

b)

Older populations

c)

Populations with large numbers of young offspring

d)

None of these

14.

What growth rate does this population pyramid represent?

a)

Rapid Growth

b)

Slow Growth

c)

Negative Growth

d)

Zero Growth

15.

Is this country Developed or Developing?

a)

Developed

b)

Developing

16.

Tracks organisms that tend to live long lives (low death rate and high survivorship rate); toward the end of their life expectancies, however, there is a dramatic increase in the death rate.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

17.

Describes organisms with a high death rate (or low survivorship rate) immediately following birth. Examples include bacteria, fishes, and invertebrates.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

18.

These organisms occupy stable environments, are larger in size and have longer life expectancies. They produce, during their life spans, fewer offspring, but place a greater investment in each.

a)

k-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

19.

A pattern of survival over time in which there is high survival throughout most of the life span, but then individuals start to die in large numbers as they approach old age.

a)

Type i survivorship

b)

Type ii survivorship

c)

Type iii survivorship

20.

A pattern of survival over time in which there is a relatively constant decline in survivorship throughout most of the life span.

a)

Type ii survivorship

b)

Type i survivorship

c)

Type iii survivorship

21.

A pattern of survival over time in which there is low survivorship early in life with few individuals reaching adulthood.

a)

Type III survivorship

b)

Type II survivorship

c)

Type I survivorship

22.

A generalist species is a species that generally has a wide range of things in their diets as well as a relatively large area of habitat.

a)

Generalists

b)

Specialist

23.

Organisms adapted to narrow habitats, limited food resources, or other specific environmental conditions.

a)

Specialist

b)

Generalist

24.

Toxins that get passed up the food chain in increasing amounts

a)

biomagnification

b)

compaction

c)

compounding

d)

non-elimination

25.

Lack of adequate calories

a)

malnutrition

b)

undernutrition

c)

overnutrition

d)

anemia

26.

environmental advantage of no-till agriculture

a)

less erosion

b)

decrease in labor costs

c)

increased use of herbicides and pesticides

d)

increased need for irrigation

27.

Emphasis on use of pesticides, herbicides, and monoculture

a)

green revolution

b)

agricultural revolution

c)

industrial revolution

d)

subsistence agriculture

28.

Agriculture that features large numbers of animals in a small area with corn or other feeds being shipped in rather than pasture

a)

IPM

b)

aquaculture

c)

hydroponics

d)

CAFO

29.

"Round-up ready" crops are genetically modified to

a)

be resistant to glyphosates

b)

resist freezing temperatures

c)

reproduce quickly and enable farmers to save seeds

d)

be easier to harvest

30.

Which of the following would be best addressed with contour plowing?

a)

eutrophication

b)

soil erosion

c)

soil salinization

d)

pesticide tredmill

31.

Which of these would be least likely to affect water holding capacity of soil?

a)

manure

b)

humus

c)

pesticide

d)

sand

e)

clay

32.

When roots become saturated with water due to over-irrigation, it causes death in plant roots. This is called:

a)

salinization

b)

desertification

c)

agroforestry

d)

waterlogging

33.

Which of the following is a positive outcome of tilling?

a)

reduced soil drainage

b)

increased soil erosion

c)

increased aeration

d)

decreased crop production

34.
Top-level predators often eat indirectly absorb toxins as a result of 
a)
bioaccumulation
b)
persistence
c)
overnutrition
d)
biomagnification
35.

Which IPM control relies on predation and parasitism?

a)

Biological Control

b)

Mechanical Control

c)

Cultural Control

d)

Genetic Control

36.

Which of the following is a benefit of using organic fertilizer

a)

Organic fertilizers do not require fossil fuels for production.

b)

exact amounts of needed nutrients is not easily determined

c)

more difficult to spread

d)

help decrease the water retention ability of soil

37.

The most expensive but most efficient method of irrigation is

a)

Sprinkler

b)

surface

c)

Drip

d)

Basin

38.

Which of the following is a commercially used method for harvesting trees and is most likely to lead to a fragmented landscape with serious impacts on biodiversity?

a)

Selective cutting

b)

Clear-cutting

c)

Shelter-wood cutting

d)

Slash and burn clearing

39.

This type of irrigation uses a large system of sprinklers that must be manually moved from field to field and has very large evaporative losses.

a)

Drip Irrigation

b)

Flood irrigation

c)

Furrow irrigation

d)

Spray irrigation

40.

Which of the following best illustrates the concept of the tragedy of the commons?

a)

Depletion of an aquifer by regional farmers

b)

Destruction of landscape by surfacing mining on private land

c)

Selective harvesting of trees by a timber company in a national forest

d)

Legislation of catch limits to avoid depletion of fish stocks in a shared lake

41.

A farmer discovers pests have become resistant to the atrazine she's been using so she must use larger, more frequent doses. This is known as

a)

the pesticide treadmill

b)

Acute biological effect

c)

a synergistic effect

d)

GMO

42.

"Roundup ready" GM crops are genetically modified to

a)

be resistant to Roundup, a glyphosate herbicide

b)

resist freezing temperatures

c)

reproduce quickly and enable farmers to save seeds

d)

be easier to harvest

43.

DDT, an insecticide, is ____________ in the environment. This means it doesn't break down/decompose. It lasts a long time.

a)

persistent

b)

synergistic

c)

acute

d)

threshold

44.

What are considered "the commons"

a)

Common house hold items like knifes, spoons, and forks.

b)

A renewable resource owned by no one and available for use by anyone at little or no charge

c)

A field where college students can sit outside in between classes

45.
Which would NOT be a reason to use GM crops?
a)
Using GM crops can increase crop yields.
b)
Using GM crops can reduce use of insecticide sprays.
c)
Using GM crops may be able to feed more people faster.
d)
Using GM crops can increase pesticide resistance in pests.
46.

Compared with people in developing countries, people in industrialized countries are more likely to eat

a)

beef

b)

beans

c)

rice

d)

corn

47.

Cattle release what type of greenhouse gas as a result of fermentation in their digestive tract?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Phosphorus

d)

Methane

48.

Which of the following is an example of how Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations (CAFO's) can have a negative effect on the natural environment?

a)

bad smells

b)

livestock could escape

c)

water pollution due to runoff

d)

improvement of feeding efficiency

49.
Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?
a)
clay-sand-silt
b)
sand-clay-silt
c)
silt-clay-sand
d)
clay-silt-sand
50.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
51.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)
A, B, E,C, O
b)
O, A, B, C, E
c)
O, E, A, B, C
d)
O, A, E, B, C
52.
The layer where minerals that were leached out of layers above accumulate
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
53.
A mixture of soil, loam, and detritus; the topsoil
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
54.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

55.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
56.
_______ is the type of soil used most often with plants and on farms. It is a mixture of clay, sand, and silt.
a)
loam
b)
humus
c)
soil
d)
dirt
57.
Ellen grabs a topsoil sample in her hand. She rolls it into a ball. The soil feels gritty and the ball falls apart. What part of the topsoil most likely made the topsoil feel gritty?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
silt
d)
humus
58.
Water gets into the cracks of rock and freezes, causing the rock to break.  What is this an example of?
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
59.
Soil is made of
a)
weathered rocks and minerals
b)
dead plants and animals
c)
air and water
d)
all of the above
60.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
61.

What type of plate boundary is shown here?

a)

Convergent

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergent

d)

Transform

62.

What type of plate boundary is shown here?

a)

Convergent

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergent

d)

Transform

63.

David and Charlotte are discussing their new project on aquaculture. What does aquaculture involve?

a)

Raising aquatic species in water

b)

Raising land animals for food

c)

Fishing in deep-sea waters

d)

Breeding wild fish populations

64.

Grace, Michael, and Jackson are discussing the benefits of aquaculture. What is one benefit they might mention?

a)

Requires less water space and fuel compared to deep-sea fishing

b)

Increases the risk of fishery collapse

c)

Takes up a large amount of land space

d)

Causes outbreaks of e.coli in the water

65.

Hannah, Aria, and Ava are discussing the drawbacks of aquaculture. What is one drawback they mention related to aquaculture?

a)

High density of waste concentration

b)

Avoids the risk of fishery collapse

c)

Does not require the use of antibiotics

d)

Uses a large amount of land space

66.

Ava, Benjamin, and Mason are on a field trip to a wastewater treatment plant. They learn that the 1st step in treating wastewater is

a)

Wastewater flows through screens to catch large particles such as food and lot of trash.

b)

The water is pumped into open pools where air and sunlight is used to purify it.

c)

Particles that are still present in the water settle down forming sludge

d)

The water flows through a bed of gravel which is covered with colonies of bacteria.

67.

Which of the following is a step of wastewater treatment?

a)

Aeration

b)

Chlorination

c)

Filtration

d)

All of these

68.

Cultural eutrophication is caused by

a)

runoff of excessive fertilizer and nutrients from man-made fertilizers

b)

people cleaning up waterways

c)

people using nuclear energy

d)

people using solar energy

69.
A stair-like structure that allows migrating fish to get around a dam.
a)
dike
b)
levee
c)
fish ladder
d)
dam
70.
How would cutting down trees affect water quality in a watershed?
a)
There would be no affect on water quality.
b)
Rivers and streams might become clogged with silt.
c)
Water levels would be reduced.
d)
The watershed divide would change.
71.

In which part of the wastewater treatment process are bacteria introduced to the wastewater to feed on organic particles, such as food and feces? (Select 2 choices)

a)

sedimentation

b)

aeration

c)

disinfection

d)

primary treatment

e)

secondary treatment

72.

In the wastewater treatment process, what is the role of bacteria for water purification?

a)

digesting organic matter

b)

adding chlorine

c)

nothing, we don't want them in there

d)

add nutrients to the sludge

73.

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of

a)

: the amount of oxygen in the water

b)

: the amount of oxygen that aerobic micro-organisms will need to decompose the waste

c)

the amount of oxygen needed by micro-organisms and other aquatic organisms

d)

the concentration of water contaminants

e)

All of the Above

74.

Requires maximum level of contaminants (MCLs) to meet safety regulations for community tap water supplies

a)

Clean Water Act

b)

Kyoto Protocol

c)

Montreal Protocol

d)

Safe Drinking Water Act

75.

Presence of fecal coliform bacteria suggests that

a)

a factory polluted the river

b)

a nearby treatment plant added chlorine to the waste water

c)

the water is safe for drinking

d)

untreated animal waste contaminated the water

76.

Which of the following describe the relationship between D.O. and B.O.D.?

a)

When D.O. decreases, the B.O.D. decreases

b)

When D.O. decreases, the B.O.D. increases

c)

When B.O.D. decreases, the D.O. decreases

d)

When B.O.D. increases, the D.O. decreases

77.

Sewage leaking from a pipe.

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

78.

Septic tank leaking and contaminating groundwater.

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

79.

Chemicals dumped into a river from an unknown source.

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

80.

A long, floating, apparatus that is interconnected and creates a barrier to minimize the spread of spilled oil is called...

a)

an oil skimmer

b)

dispersants

c)

an oil boom

d)

an oil fence

e)

an oil rig

81.

A chemical mixture of emulsifiers and solvents that helps break oil into small droplets to spread out throughout the entire water column of the ocean is called...

a)

contaminants

b)

dispersants

c)

cleaners

d)

petroleum

e)

polymers

82.

An apparatus that is designed to remove thin layers of oil from the surface of a body of water is called...

a)

an oil skimmer

b)

dispersants

c)

an oil boom

d)

an oil fence

e)

an oil rig

83.

The April 20th, 2010 offshore oil rig explosion that resulted in 11 deaths and 200 million gallons of oil spilled into the Gulf of Mexico was called...

a)

Exxon Valdez

b)

Chevron Valdez

c)

BP Deepwater Horizon

d)

BP Shallowater Waves

e)

Love Canal

84.
Snow, sleet, hail, and rain are all examples of  ________________. 
a)
evaporation
b)
condensation
c)
accumulation
d)
precipitation
85.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
86.
What is the energy source for the water cycle?
a)
the sun
b)
the earth
c)
water
d)
the moon
87.
What is the process during which water changes from a liquid to a gas as it heats up?
a)
Condensation
b)
Runoff
c)
Precipitation
d)
Evaporation
88.

What is an aquifer?

a)

a body of permeable rock which can contain or transmit groundwater.

b)

a well in which water is under pressure especially : one in which the water flows to the surface naturally.

c)

confining layer

d)

solid rock underlying loose deposits such as soil or alluvium.

89.

What is an confined aquifer?

a)

a well in which water is under pressure especially : one in which the water flows to the surface naturally.

b)

solid rock underlying loose deposits such as soil or alluvium.

c)

an aquifer below the land surface that is saturated with water with layers of impermeable material are both above and below.

d)

water that collects on the surface of the ground.

90.

Eutrophication is caused by

a)

excess nutrients building up in the water.

b)

industrial point-source pollution.

c)

unlined landfills and septic tanks.

d)

wastewater from homes mixing with drinking water.

91.

How does eutrophication cause the death of aquatic organisms

a)

the build up of carbon dioxide in the water

b)

the lack of nitrogen in the water

c)

the lack of carbon dioxide in the water

d)

the lack of oxygen in the water

92.

The two critical nutrients in eutrophication are... (select two)

a)

nitrates

b)

phosphates

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

dissolved oxygen

93.

Where is the most likely location of a dead zone in this watershed?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

I

e)

H

94.

In eutrophication, what directly causes the death of fish?

a)

The plants use up oxygen in respiration

b)

The fish are poisoned by high CO2 levels

c)

Bacteria use up oxygen in respiration

d)

The fish use up oxygen in respiration

95.

Meteors begin to burn up in the...

a)

stratosphere

b)

thermosphere

c)

troposphere

d)

mesosphere

96.
The ________ is between the mesosphere and troposphere.
a)
stratosphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
mesosphere
97.

What is an ozone layer?

a)

a thin protective layer around the earth (in the stratosphere)

b)

a cloud blanket in the sky

c)

water vapors from the ocean

98.

The Ozone layer is located in the

a)

mesosphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

exosphere

99.

Which type of radiation is absorbed by the ozone layer?

a)

infrared

b)

gamma

c)

visible light

d)

ultraviolet

100.

CFCs are responsible for the damage caused to the ozone layer. Select ALL of chemical elements make up CFCs.

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Fluorine

e)

Chlorine

101.

How many oxygen atoms does a molecule of ozone contain?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

102.

Which of the following represents ozone gas molecule:

a)

O6

b)

O4

c)

O9

d)

O3

103.

What is the name of the international agreement committing parties to phasing out ozone depleting substances and phasing out chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)?

a)

Vienna Protocol

b)

Paris Agreement

c)

Montreal Protocol

d)

Antarctic Convention

104.

Depletion of the ozone layer is caused by:

a)

Methane

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

UV rays

d)

Chlorofluorocarbons

105.

The rotation of the Earth causes winds to bend due to the...

a)

coriolis effect

b)

doldrums

c)

trade winds

d)

westerlies

106.

what is the main cause of the coriolis effect?

a)

earth’s rotation

b)

trade winds

c)

the sun and ocean

d)

temperature

107.
In which direction do prevailing westerlies flow?
a)
from east to west
b)
from west to east
c)
from north to south
d)
from south to north
108.
Steady winds that flow from east to west between 30°N latitude and the equator and 30°S latitude and the equator.
a)
Prevailing westerlies
b)
Horse latitudes
c)
Trade winds
d)
Polar easterlies
109.
Which global winds have the greatest impact on the weather in the US?
a)
trade winds
b)
prevailing westerlies
c)
doldrums
d)
polar easterlies
110.

What is the initial source for global winds and convection in the atmosphere?

a)

heat from the Earth's core

b)

the rotation of the Earth

c)

Moon's gravity

d)

unequal heating of the Earth by the sun

111.

This Image represents...

a)

Downwelling

b)

Upwelling

c)

Thermohaline circulation

d)

Rip Current

112.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the southern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter-clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
113.
Warm ocean currents generally come from
a)
The North Pole
b)
The South Pole
c)
The Equator
d)
Both A and B
114.

______ causes surface currents.

a)

The Coriolis Effect

b)

gravity

c)

density differences

d)

wind

115.

The more scientific name of the Global Conveyor Belt is _____.

a)

halinethermal circulation

b)

thermohaline circulation

c)

thermodensity circulation

116.
The large, circular surface-current pattern found in each ocean.
a)
California Current
b)
Surface Current
c)
Gyre
d)
Global Conveyor Belt
117.
Ocean water is more dense than fresh water at the same temperature due to differences in:  
a)
Wind patterns
b)
 Lifeforms
c)
Currents
d)
Salinity
118.

The vertical movement of water toward the ocean’s surface

a)

Upwelling

b)

Coriolis Effect

c)

Thermohaline Ocean Circulation

119.

What causes upwelling?

a)

Changes in density rather than wind

b)

Wind

c)

It carries or moves things around the world

d)

When wind blows across the ocean’s surface and pushes water away from an area. Deeper colder water then rises to replace it

120.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the northern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
121.

The image is of a(n):

a)

El Nino event

b)

La Nina event

c)

Non-El Nino (normal conditions)

122.

The picture below is of a(n) ____ event.

a)

Non-El Nino (Normal)

b)

El Nino

c)

La Nina

123.

The picture represents a(n) ___ event.

a)

El Nino

b)

La Nina

c)

Non-El Nino (normal conditions)

124.

El Niño ___________________ the trade winds causing the warm pool to move ___________.

a)

weakens or reverses; west

b)

intensifies; west

c)

weakens or reverses; east

d)

intensifies; east

125.

Why do the fisherman of Peru and South America not welcome a strong El Nino?

a)

El Nino poisons the fish

b)

El Nino causes strong winds and currents which move fish westward

c)

El Nino bring cold water to the surface which kills the base of the food chain

d)

El Nino shuts off upwelling and nutrients needed for the marine food chain do not rise to the surface

126.

Which best explains what type of weather the Gulf Stream usually brings

to North Carolina?

a)

increased wind speed

b)

increased air pressure

c)

increased temperature

d)

increased evaporation

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7th Grade - University

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8th - 12th Grade

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Foundations of A&P Ch 1 Test

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11th - 12th Grade