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BTA Chem Term 2 Review Practice

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two elements would NOT form an ionic bond?

a)

calcium and lithium

b)

calcium and oxygen

c)

lithium and oxygen

d)

calcium and carbon

2.

Fill in the blank: A charged particle that forms when an atom gains or loses electrons is called a(n)

(a)  

3.

What is the correct molecular formula of Calcium Chloride?

a)

CaCl

b)

Ca2Cl

c)

CaCl2

d)

Ca3Cl2

4.

An example of a covalent compound is

a)

sodium floride

b)

calcium chloride

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

all of the above

5.

In all covalent bonds, valence electrons are

a)

lost

b)

gained

c)

shared equally

d)

shared

6.

What is the chemical formula for the compound containing one nitrogen atom and two oxygen atoms?

a)

O2N

b)

N2O

c)

NO

d)

NO2

7.

The force of attraction that holds together atoms that share electrons is a(n) (a)   bond.

8.

The force of attraction that holds together oppositely charged ions is a(n) (a)   bond.

9.
When dissolved in water, the solution is a good conductor of electricity.
a)
ionic compounds
b)
covalent compounds
10.
forms ions in solution
a)
ionic compounds
b)
covalent compounds
11.

The following properties are all characteristics of ionic compounds EXCEPT

a)

high melting and boiling points

b)

soft

c)

crystal lattice structure

d)

conduct electricity when dissolved in water

12.

Is the following compound ionic or covalent?

A material that forms a crystal lattice

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

13.

Is the following compound ionic or covalent?

PBr5

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

14.

Is the following compound ionic or covalent?

A material with a high melting point

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

15.

Name the following covalent compound: N2O5

a)

Nitrogen oxide

b)

Dinitrogen pentoxide

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Nitrogen pentoxide

16.

Name the following ionic compound: Al2S3

a)

Dialuminum Trisulfide

b)

Aluminum sulfide

c)

Aluminum sulfur

d)

Aluminum monosulfide

17.

Name the following ionic compound: NaF

a)

Sodium fluoride

b)

Monosodium fluoride

c)

Sodium monofluorine

d)

Sodium monofluoride

18.

Name the following covalent compound: CF4

a)

Carbon fluoride

b)

Monocarbon tetrafluoride

c)

Carbon tetrafluoride

d)

Carbon fluorate

19.

Name the following ionic compound: Na2S

a)

Disodium sulfide

b)

Sodium sulfer

c)

Sodium sulfide

d)

Sodium monosulfide

20.
The correct chemical formula for magnesium phosphide is
a)
MgP
b)
Mg₂P₃
c)
Mg₃P₂
d)
Mg₃(PO₄)₂
21.

The name of Zn(NO3)2 is

a)

zinc nitride

b)

zinc nitrate

c)

zinc dinitrate

d)

zinc II nitrite

22.
The correct name of Cu₃N₂ is
a)
copper (III) nitride
b)
copper (II) nitride
c)
copper nitride
d)
tricopper dinitride
23.

What covalent formula corresponds to dichlorine monoxide?

a)

Co₃O

b)

ClO₂

c)

Cl₂O

d)

(Cl₂)₂O

24.
Roman numerals tell you the ____ of the metal cation(s) in an ionic compound.
a)
number
b)
mass
c)
type
d)
charge
25.

How can you identify a covalent compound?

a)

2 or more nonmetals

b)

1 metal and 1 nonmetal

c)

all metals

d)

all transition metals

26.

Which particle is responsible for bonding?

a)

protons

b)

valence electrons

c)

neutrons

d)

electrons

27.

What is the chemical formula for Ammonium?

a)

NH4+

b)

NH3

c)

NH4-

d)

NH3+

28.

What is the name for CN-?

a)

Cyanite

b)

Cyanide

c)

Cyanate

d)

Cyan

29.

What is the name for NO3-?

a)

Nitride

b)

Nitrite

c)

Nitrate

d)

Nitrogen Oxygen

30.

What is the name for CO32-?

a)

Bicarbonate

b)

Carbonite

c)

Chromate

d)

Carbonate

31.

What is the element name for Br?

a)

Bromine

b)

Boron

c)

Beryllium

d)

Bohrium

32.

What is the element name for Pb?

a)

Plutonium

b)

Lead

c)

Palladium

d)

Tin

33.

What is the symbol for ARSENIC?

a)

As

b)

Ar

c)

Ae

d)

Ac

34.

chlorate

a)

(ClO3)-1

b)

(ClO2)-1

c)

(ClO)-2

d)

(ClO3)-2

35.

Hydroxide

a)

HO-1

b)

OH-1

c)

OH-2

d)

OH

36.

Phosphate

a)

PO4-3

b)

PO2-3

c)

PO4-2

d)

PO3-3

37.

Which is the formula for sodium sulfate?

a)

Na2SO3

b)

Na2SO4

c)

Na(SO4)2

d)

NaSO3

38.

Which name–formula pairs are correct?

a)

ammonium sulfate, (NH4)2SO4

b)

magnesium carbonate, MgCO3

c)

calcium sulfate, Ca2(SO4)2

d)

calcium phosphate, Ca3(PO4)2

e)

sodium chlorite, NaClO

39.

Which is the silver ion?

a)

Au2+

b)

Ag2+

c)

Ag+

d)

Si+

40.

Which is the zinc ion?

a)

Zn2+

b)

Zr2+

c)

Zn+

d)

Zr+

41.
What is the chemical formula for Tetrasulfur pentoxide?
a)
SO
b)
S4O
c)
S4O5
d)
S5O4
42.
The chemical formula of sulfur hexabromide is
a)
SBr₆
b)
S₆Br
c)
S(VI)Br
d)
S6Br
43.

Assume that 5.6 L H2 at STP reacts with excess CuO according to the following equation:

CuO (s) + H2 (g) ---> Cu (aq) + H2O (l)


How many moles of Cu are produced?

a)

0.250 mol

b)

2.50 mol

c)

25.0 mol

d)

25.00000 mol

44.

How many liters of NH3 are needed to react completely with 30.0L of NO?

4NH3(g) + 6NO (l)--> 5N2 (g) + 6H2O (l)

a)

5.0 L

b)

20.0 L

c)

7.5 L

d)

120.0 L

45.
Theoretical yield = 73g
Actual yield = 62g
Calculate the percent yield.
a)
1.16%
b)
116%
c)
85%
d)
76%
46.

Solid aluminum react with HCl according to the following balanced equation at STP:

2Al (s) + 6HCl (aq) --> 2AlCl3 (aq) + 3H2 (g)


If 13.5 g of Al (s) reacts with excess HCl, how many liters of H2 gas are generated?

a)

15.2 L

b)

16.8 L

c)

12.5 L

d)

14.8 L

47.

2Al + 3H2SO4 → Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2

How many grams of aluminum sulfate would be formed if 250g H2SO4 completely reacted with aluminum?

a)

0.85 g

b)

290 g

c)

450 g

d)

870 g

48.

Mg(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → MgCl₂(aq) + H₂(g)

How many moles of HCl are consumed in the production of 7.5 moles of MgCl₂?

a)

3.8 moles

b)

15 moles

c)

7.5 moles

d)

23 moles

49.
A metal cube at temperature of 10°C immersed in a liquid at temperature of 70°C.
What is the temperature of the metal cube when thermal equilibrium is achieved between the cube and the liquid?
a)
Between 10°C and 70°C
b)
More than 70°C
c)
Less than 10°C
d)
Same as the room temperature
50.

Heat flows from _______ to _________.

a)

warm to cool

b)

cool to warm

51.

The specific heat of a substance varies with the mass of a sample. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

52.

1 food calorie = _______ chemistry calories

a)

1000

b)

1

c)

500

d)

4.184

53.

What is the SI unit of heat and energy?

a)

calorie

b)

celsius

c)

joule

54.

Sweating is an __________________ process because heat is released.

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

55.

Ice cream melting is an example of an __________ process.

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

56.

If two objects have different temperatures when they come in contact, heat will flow from the warmer object to the cooler one UNTIL ____________

a)

one reaches a temperature of zero

b)

they both have an equal temperature

c)

one runs out of energy

57.
A reaction is performed in a beaker with a temperature probe recording the temperature changes of the reaction.  If the temperature began at 15.0 degrees Celsius and ended at 27.5 degrees Celsius. Is the reaction endothermic or exothermic?
a)
Exothermic
b)
Endothermic
58.
Water has a specific heat of 4184 J/KgºC.  Wood has a specific heat of 1760 J/KgºC.  What material needs more energy to raise the temperature 1ºC
a)
Wood
b)
Water
c)
Both are the same
59.

What is the q of this problem?

a)

3°C

b)

525 J

c)

4.18 J/g°C

d)

unknown (aka ?)

60.

How many calories are absorbed when 100 g of water increases in temperature from 20 o C to 40 o C?

a)

12540 cal

b)

-3000 cal

c)

3000 cal

61.

A reaction takes place in a calorimeter. The water temperature decreased. Which way did energy flow?

a)

Into the system

b)

Into the surroundings

c)

Out of the system

62.

A bowl of hot soup sits on a table. Which is the system?

a)

The air

b)

The soup

c)

both

63.

A glass of water is placed in a freezer. Which way does energy flow?

a)

Into the freezer

b)

Into the glass of water

c)

Energy does not flow

64.

If enthalpy(ΔH) is on the reactants side of a chemical reaction, then the reaction is _________.

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

65.

If an enthalpy (ΔH) value is given outside of a chemical equation and it is a positive value, then the reaction is _______________.

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

66.
What kind of reaction is this?
a)
Endothermic
b)
Exothermic
c)
Cannot be determined
67.

What kind of reaction is shown in graph A on the left?

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

c)

Cannot be determined

68.
What would be the effect on the particles if more heat is supplied to the system?
a)
They would slow down
b)
They would stop moving
c)
They would speed up
d)
There would be no effect
69.

NaCl was heated starting at an initial temperature of 0°C. The heating curve is shown in the picture. What is the melting point of this substance?

a)

0°C

b)

801°C

c)

1000°C

d)

1465°C

70.

In which region(s) of the heating curve would water be a liquid and a gas at the same time?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

71.

If a process has a positive q (+q)

a)

the process absorbs energy

b)

the process releases energy

c)

isothermic

72.

If a process releases heat...

a)

q will be negative

b)

q will be postive

73.

For an exothermic reaction, ΔH\Delta H  is...

a)

negative

b)

positive

74.

In the following reaction, A + 2B --> 3C, ΔH = 640 kJ\Delta H\ =\ 640\ kJ  . How much energy is needed to react 4 moles of A?

a)

2560 kJ

b)

1280 kJ

c)

1920 kJ

d)

3840 kJ

75.

The graph is showing an _________ reaction

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

76.

What is collision theory?

a)

Molecules must collide in the correct orientation with enough energy to bond.

b)

Molecules need enough energy to collide and react.

c)

Atoms constantly collide and react.

d)

The minimum energy needed for atoms to react

77.

What is the purpose of a catalyst?

a)

Helps to slow down a reaction

b)

Replaces the products

c)

Helps to speed up a reaction

d)

Replaces the reactants

78.

Decreasing the concentration of a substance will usually........

a)

Slow down the reaction

b)

Speed up the reaction

c)

Have no affect on the reaction

79.

Which has more surface area?

a)

Large chunks of chalk

b)

Cube of sugar

c)

Powdered sugar

d)

Small chunks of sugar

80.

What criteria must be met for reactant collisions to result in a successful product?

a)

The reactants must collide with each other

b)

The reactants must collide with enough energy and be in the right positions

c)

The reactants must have enough energy to form the activated complex

81.

How could we make this reaction happen more quickly?

a)

Decrease the concentration of the acid

b)

crush the chalk to increase the surface area

c)

Put the test tube in an ice bath

82.

From this screenshot, the how would you describe the surface area of the orange and green compound

a)

a solid with minimum surface area

b)

a solid with MAX surface area

c)

a gas with minimum surface area

d)

a gas with MAX surface area

83.

According to the trends of collision theory, which concentration of catalyst would have the highest reaction rate

a)

0.15 mol / L

b)

0.5 mol / L

c)

1.0 mol / L

d)

0.1 mol / L

84.

Which solution is more concentrated?

Solution 1:

500 mL of water

100 g of salt


Solution 2:

500 mL of water

90 g of salt

a)

Solution 1

b)

Solution 2

c)

They have the same concentration

d)

I have no idea

85.
If an object has particles that are moving very quickly, the object 's temperature is probably _____.
a)
cold
b)
slow
c)
big
d)
hot
86.

If a catalyst for this reaction was present, which arrows would be affected?

a)

Arrow A

b)

Arrow B

c)

Arrow C

d)

Arrow D

e)

Arrows B and C

87.

What letter represents the activation energy for the forward reaction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

88.

Is the forward reaction endothermic or exothermic?

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

89.

What is the value of ΔHrxn for the forward reaction?

a)

-40 kJ

b)

-20 kJ

c)

100 kJ

d)

60 kJ

e)

20 kJ

90.

Which letter represents the activation energy for the reverse reaction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

91.
What factors are required for a chemical reaction to occur?
a)
collision of reactant particles
b)
sufficient energy 
c)
favorable orientation of particles
d)
all of these
92.

Catalysts permit reactions to proceed along a ___________energy path.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

magnetic

d)

psycho's

93.
What is the activation energy?
a)
100 kJ
b)
175 kJ
c)
50 kJ
d)
75 kJ
94.

Observe the diagram. Which statement is true about the kinetic energy of the molecules in the containers?

a)

The molecules are moving faster in Diagram A

b)

The molecules are moving slower in Diagram A

c)

The molecules are moving at the same rate in both diagrams

95.
Blocking Active site of an enzyme
a)
competitive inhibition
b)
allosteric inhibition
96.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
97.

2SO2(g)+O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Increasing the temperature will...

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase pressure

d)

have no change

98.

2SO2(g)+1O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Increasing the pressure on the system will...

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

slow rate of reaction

d)

have no change

99.
For the reaction...
N2  +  O2  <=>  2NO
If  O2 is removed, the  concentration of N2 will _______.
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
remain the same
d)
double
100.

Which of the two graphs reaches equilibrium?

a)

Neither

b)

The left

c)

Both

d)

The right

101.

If the pH of a solution is 4.0, what is the pOH?

a)

4.0

b)

10.0

c)

1.0 x 10 -4

d)

cannot be determined from the information

102.

Ammonia has a pOH of 2. Ammonia is a(n) __________.

a)

acid

b)

base

c)

neutral

d)

metal

103.

What is the [H+] if the pH is 4.0?

a)

1.0 x 10-10 M

b)

1.0 x 10-14 M

c)

1.0 x 10-4 M

d)

1.0 x 10-7 M

104.
A solution with a [H+] of 9.4 x 10-5 mol/L is said to be
a)
Acidic
b)
Basic
c)
Neutral
d)
negative number, no solution.
105.

Of the metals gold, iron, and sodium, which will not give up its electrons to silver (Ag) in a redox reaction?

a)

Au

b)

Fe

c)

Na

d)

Cd

106.

Of the metals Fe, H, K, and Mg, which spontaneously donate electrons to sodium (Na)?

a)

Fe

b)

H

c)

K

d)

Mg

107.

Which metal is more reactive than calcium?

a)

magnesium

b)

potassium

c)

silver

d)

aluminum

108.

The electrons in a nonpolar covalent molecule are shared...

a)

Evenly

b)

Unevenly

c)

Electrons are not shared

d)

None of the Above

109.

A diatomic molecule like O2 is always _____ because electrons are shared _____

a)

nonpolar; unequally

b)

polar; equally

c)

nonpolar; equally

d)

polar; unequally

110.

What must the difference in electronegativity between two atoms be in order for the bond between them to be nonpolar covalent?

a)

less than 0.4

b)

greater than 1.7

c)

between 0.4 and 1.7

d)

exactly 0

111.

Order the types of bonds based on the charge of their molecules. (lowest amount of charge to greatest)

a)

Polar Covalent --> Ionic --> Nonpolar Covalent

b)

Ionic --> Nonpolar Covalent --> Polar Covalent

c)

Ionic --> Polar Covalent --> Nonpolar Covalent

d)

Nonpolar Covalent --> Polar Covalent --> Ionic

112.
This could be the dot diagram of
a)
Mg
b)
Cl
c)
C
d)
O
113.
Ionization Energy is defined as.....
a)
The smallest amount of energy possible to excite an electron to a higher energy level
b)
The amount of energy given off when an electron returns to a ground state
c)
The amount of energy in one photon
d)
The energy required to remove one electron from a neutral atom
114.
Electronegativity is...
a)
how good an atom is at attracting electrons
b)
the ability of an atom to lose electrons
c)
the energy required to remove an electron from a specific atom
d)
how easy it is to make friends. 
115.
Name the following ionic compound: MgSO4
a)
magnesium sulfoxide
b)
magnesium sulfide
c)
magnesium sulfate
d)
magnesium oxide
116.

Which of the following formulas represents a polar molecules?

a)

CO2

b)

CCl4

c)

H2

d)

H2O

117.

Is this molecule polar or non-polar?

a)

Polar

b)

Non-polar

118.
In this Lewis structure, the symbol above F means...
a)
electrons are being transferred to Fluorine
b)
electrons are less attracted to F than H
c)
electrons are more attracted to F than H
d)
Fluorine has formed a cation
119.

Is the following molecule polar or non-polar?

a)

polar

b)

non-polar

120.

CH4 is

a)

polar

b)

non-polar

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