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Middle School Praxis Practice Test Science

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Symbols on a meteorologist's weather map are best used to show:

a)

location of the asteroid belt.

b)

wind movement.

c)

rotation of the Earth.

d)

composition of comets.

2.

A single transverse mechanical wave travels from left to right. In what directions do the particles in the medium vibrate?

a)

counterclockwise spirals

b)

up and down

c)

left and right

d)

clockwise spirals

3.

Schist is a layered substance. It contains layers visible to the naked eye. The layers are made of various minerals and substances such as muscovite. What type of substance is schist?

a)

element

b)

mineral

c)

rock

d)

gas

4.

What is the description of a metamorphic rock?

a)
Metamorphic rocks are formed from volcanic activity.
b)
Metamorphic rocks are sedimentary rocks that have not changed.
c)
Metamorphic rocks are created from the cooling of magma.
d)
Metamorphic rocks are rocks that have been changed from their original form due to heat, pressure, and chemical processes.
5.

Which of the following is the first step a teacher should take after obtaining a new chemical to use in a student lab?

a)

reading the MSDS for the chemical

b)

handing out a list of safety rules to each student

c)

ensuring that there is enough of the chemical for every student

d)

buying non-latex gloves for each student

6.

Reading the MSDS for a chemical" means carefully reviewing the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), which is a document provided by the manufacturer that details the potential hazards of a chemical, including its physical properties, health risks, safety precautions, and emergency procedures that should be taken in case of exposure or accident; essentially, it provides all the necessary information to handle the chemical safely.

a)
True
b)
False
7.

When Terry put a marble in a graduated cylinder of water measuring 47 mL, the water level increased to 51 mL. Which principle describes the increase in water volume?

a)

conservation of matter

b)

conservation of energy

c)

density

d)

buoyancy

8.

conservation of matter

a)
Matter can be created from energy.
b)
Matter can be destroyed in chemical reactions.
c)
Matter can change its form but not its mass.
d)
The conservation of matter is the principle that matter cannot be created or destroyed.
9.

The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed - only converted from one form of energy to another.

a)
True
b)
False
10.

The density of an object is the mass of the object compared to its volume. The equation for density is: Density = mass/volume or D = m/v. Each substance has its own characteristic density because of the size, mass, and arrangement of its atoms or molecules.

a)
True
b)
False
11.

the ability or tendency to float in water or air or some other fluid.

a)
Density
b)
Viscosity
c)
Surface tension
d)
Buoyancy
12.

Which of the following is the largest structure within a snake?

a)

Tissue

b)

Organ System

c)

Cell

d)

organ

13.

Which percentage is closest to the average salinity of saltwater in Earth's oceans?

a)

34%

b)

20

c)

4%

d)

80%

14.

Which of the following is not an example of asexual reproduction?

a)

A tapeworm produces sperm and uses it to fertilize its own eggs.

b)

A cutting from a strawberry plant is used by a farmer to grow a new plant.

c)

A bacterium undergoes mitosis to produce two new bacterial cells.

d)

Part of a ringworm breaks off and begins to grow, resulting in two ringworms.

15.

Which of the following is a correct order of ecological organization, from smallest to largest?

a)
ecosystem, biome, biosphere, community, population, individual
b)
individual, population, community, ecosystem, biome, biosphere
c)

individual, community, population, ecosystem, biome, biosphere

d)
community, ecosystem, biosphere, biome, individual, population
16.

Xylem primarily transports which of the following substances through a plant?

a)
Pesticides and herbicides
b)
Nutrients and sugars
c)
Carbon dioxide and oxygen
d)
Water and dissolved minerals
17.

Which of the following is the principal type of energy stored behind a hydroelectric dam?

a)
Kinetic energy
b)
Thermal energy
c)
Chemical energy
d)
Gravitational potential energy
18.

chemical potential energy is

a)
the energy released during a chemical reaction
b)
the energy associated with temperature changes
c)
the energy stored in the chemical bonds of a substance
d)
the energy required to break chemical bonds
19.

mechanical energy is

a)
the total energy in a vacuum
b)
the energy stored in a spring
c)
the energy of an object at rest
d)
the sum of potential and kinetic energy in a system
20.

Which one is not a renewable energy sources

a)
nuclear energy
b)

solar energy

c)

biomass

d)

wind energy, hydroelectric power

e)

geothermal energy

21.

What is nuclear energy?

a)
Energy derived from fossil fuels
b)
Nuclear energy is the energy released from nuclear reactions, primarily fission and fusion.
c)
Energy generated by solar panels
d)
Energy produced by wind turbines
22.

Nuclear energy is a form of energy released from the nucleus, the core of atoms, made up of protons and neutrons. This source of energy can be produced in two ways: fission – when nuclei of atoms split into several parts – or fusion – when nuclei fuse together. Why is nuclear energy considered non-renewable?

a)
Nuclear energy is non-renewable due to its high efficiency.
b)
Nuclear energy is renewable because it uses solar power.
c)
Nuclear energy is considered non-renewable because it relies on finite resources like uranium and plutonium.
d)

Nuclear energy is considered non-renewable because it relies on finite resources like sun and gas.

23.

Which are not examples of mechanical energy?

a)
A stationary rock
b)
A burning candle
c)

a swinging pendulum.

d)

a moving car

e)

a drawn bow

24.

The water is stored in a reservoir behind the dam, creating ______energy due to its elevated position

a)

potential gravitational

b)

potential chemical

c)

elastic potential

d)
kinetic
25.

An example of electric energy is

a)
the energy stored in a battery
b)
the energy used to power a light bulb
c)

energy converted from a battery

d)
the energy released during a chemical reaction
e)

An electric eel generating electricity

26.

Meiosis in multicellular animals results in the production of _____ cells.

a)

prokaryotic

b)
gametes
c)

parent

d)
somatic
27.

prokaryotes reproduce asexually through

a)
fragmentation
b)
binary fission
c)

meiosis

d)
spore formation
e)

mitosis. 

28.

Select the false statement

a)

prokaryotic cells do not have organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, or Golgi apparatus, which are all enclosed by membranes.

b)

All eukaryotes undergo mitosis: This process is essential for growth, development, and tissue repair in multicellular organisms

c)

Genetically identical daughter cells: Mitosis produces two daughter cells that have the same genetic makeup as the parent cell

d)

Meiosis for sexual reproduction: Only eukaryotes that reproduce sexually use meiosis to create gametes.

e)

Prokaryotic cells do not have have a cell membrane plasma membrane

29.

The formula for the electrostatic force between two charged particles

a)
F = k * (|q1 - q2|) / r
b)
F = (q1 * q2) / (k * r^2)
c)
F = k * (|q1 * q2|) / r^2
d)
F = k * (q1 + q2) / r
30.

Which of the following is not true of mutations?

a)
Mutations are always harmful.
b)

Mostly all mutations lead to genetic diversity.

c)
Mutations occur only in DNA.
d)
Mutations can be beneficial.
31.

Which of the following is not true of mutations?

a)

Genetic mutations can be beneficial to organisms.

b)

Genetic mutations are only present in physically deformed organisms.

c)

Genetic mutations can be passed down from parents to offspring.

d)

Genetic mutations can have no change on the function of an organism's cells.

32.

Which of the following is a likely cause of the mass extinction event known as "the end of the dinosaurs" that occurred 60 million years ago?

a)
Asteroid impact
b)
Volcanic eruptions
c)
Ocean acidification
d)

rising sea level

33.

A graduated cylinder is best used for which of the following experiments?

a)

an experiment in which students determine the boiling points of different solutions

b)

an experiment in which students measure the effect temperature has on plant growth

c)

an experiment in which students determine the density of irregular objects

d)

an experiment in which students measure plant growth over a period of time

34.

Which atomic particles are located inside the nucleus?

a)
Photons and neutrinos
b)
Protons and neutrons
c)
Electrons and positrons
d)
Quarks and leptons
35.

Mr. Sanford wants to pre-assess the class regarding their knowledge of the periodic table of elements, inquire about their interest in the subject, then follow up with what students have learned. Which of the following formative assessment tools would be a good choice for Mr. Sanford?

a)

Concept Map

b)

Venn Diagram

c)

T-Chart

d)


K-W-L chart

36.

Which of the following systems in humans is mainly responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the body and taking in oxygen

a)
Digestive system
b)
Circulatory system
c)
Nervous system
d)
Respiratory system
37.

Which of the following are the two main reasons rivers meander as they move from mountains onto a plain?

Select all answers that apply.

a)

obstacles or resistant ground

b)

fish populations increase

c)

decreasing flow rate

d)

decreasing flow volume

38.

Which of the following should be done before using a triple beam balance to measure the mass of an object?

a)

Slide the weights to their estimated positions

b)
Calibrate the balance to zero.
c)

Ensure the sliding masses move freely

d)
Measure the volume of the object before weighing it.
39.

Which of the following systems work together to provide structure and movement for the body?

a)
Skeletal and muscular systems
b)
Nervous and endocrine systems
c)
Digestive and respiratory systems
d)
Circulatory and lymphatic systems
40.

Which of the following behaviors would most reduce someone's impact on the environment?

a)

drinking carbonated water instead of tap water

b)

carpool instead of driving alone

c)

skipping eating lunch

d)

walking their dogs daily

41.

Which of the following analysis questions after a laboratory activity would best help students reflect on the fact that the scientific process often results in a feedback loop?

a)

Summarize your results in one sentence. What do these results tell you about the topic?

b)

Was your hypothesis supported or rejected? What data supports this conclusion?

c)

Which part of your lab was most successful? Why?

d)

Based on your results, what research question or experiment could you pursue next in order to learn more about this topic?

42.

Which of the following is the best example of a response to an internal stimuli?

a)

You squint to try to see better in the bright sunlight.

b)
Eating when hungry
c)

You walk by a delicious bakery, and the smell makes your mouth water.

d)

You hear a loud noise and jump.

43.

What is an example of an external stimuli?

a)

A decrease in blood sugar levels can cause a hunger response

b)

A drop in water levels can cause a thirst response

c)

An increase in carbon dioxide in the blood can cause a yawn

d)

You hear a loud noise and jump.

44.

Which of the following is the most important rationale for the scientific study of Mars?

a)

understanding the evolution of the solar system

b)

establishing a colony for humans

c)

gaining access to rare or exotic resources

d)

investigating the existence of intelligent life

45.

In which phase of mitosis do two nuclei appear?

a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
46.

What device is used to measure the magnitude of an Earthquake?

a)
Seismometer
b)

Richter scale

c)
Barometer
d)


seismogram

47.

Which of the following is a metamorphic rock?

a)
Schist
b)
Basalt
c)
Limestone
d)
Granite
48.

Ecologists refer to a large collection of food chains as a:

a)
ecosystem structure
b)
food web
c)
trophic level
d)
food chain
49.

Which of the following is required for aerobic respiration and allows cellular respiration to continue from glycolysis to the Krebs cycle?

a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Glucose
c)
Nitrate
d)
Oxygen
50.

In a combustion reaction, a compound containing carbon and hydrogen reacts with oxygen gas ___________. This is a combustion reaction of butane and oxygen gas.

a)
producing carbon dioxide gas and water vapor
b)
producing only carbon monoxide
c)
producing nitrogen gas and steam
d)
producing methane and oxygen
51.

Mr. Sanford is planning a lesson designed to meet the needs of all learners in his science class. The goal of his lesson is to help the learner enjoy learning science. Which of the following should Mr. Sanford incorporate first into the lesson in order to reach his goal?

a)

the explanation of difficult science concepts

b)

activities focused on a variety of interests and learning styles

c)

stories about former students who did not like science, then learned to like it

d)

a worksheet for review of major content

52.

Which of the following represents a decomposition reaction?

a)

Mg + O → MgO

b)

NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

c)

Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

d)

H2CO3 → H2O + CO2

53.

Which of the following elements has the lowest reactivity?

a)

Kr

b)

Fe

c)

Ca

d)

Cu

54.

Which of the following is present in plant cells but not in animal cells?

choose 2

a)
Mitochondria
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Nucleus
d)
Chloroplasts
e)

cell wall

55.

Plant cells have a cell wall and no cell membranes, while animal cells only have a cell membrane

a)
True
b)
False
56.

What are the 3 best examples of a behavioral adaptation?

a)

Flounders on the floor of the Gulf coast use colored scales to hide from predators.

b)

A tiger's sharp claws allows it to easily tear open its prey.

c)
Birds migrating to warmer climates during winter.
d)
Bears hibernating in caves during winter.
e)

some animals enlarge themselves to discourage predators or try to startle a predator with a loud hiss

57.

A "behavioral adaptation" refers to an action or behavior an organism performs to survive in its environment, while a "physical adaptation" is a structural feature of an organism's body that helps it survive, meaning the key difference is that behavioral adaptations are actions, while physical adaptations are physical traits; both are developed through evolution to enhance an organism's chances of survival in its habitat.

a)
True
b)
False
58.

which is not an example of a physical adaptation

a)

Flounders on the floor of the Gulf coast use colored scales to hide from predators.

b)
Migration patterns of birds
c)

Brightly colored male birds attract female birds for reproduction.

d)
Thick fur of polar bears
59.

Which of the following characteristics always describes a solid?

Select all answers that apply.

a)

always clear

b)

definite shape

c)

fixed volume

d)

rigid

60.

A copper wire is connected to a battery. When a compass needle is brought near the wire, the needle deflects from true north. If the wire is disconnected, what would most likely happen if the needle were again brought near the wire?

a)
The compass needle will deflect towards the wire.
b)
The compass needle will spin wildly.
c)
The compass needle will point to the battery instead of true north.
d)
The compass needle will not deflect from true north.
61.

Which of the following is an inquiry-based activity that could be used during a unit on specific heat?

a)

looking up and restating the definition of specific heat

b)

measuring and graphing temperature versus time for different materials placed under a heat lamp

c)

using the internet to categorize different materials by their specific heats

d)

making a poster to explain the meaning of specific heat

62.

Which of the following are possible detrimental effects of runoff?

a)
Water pollution, soil erosion, habitat destruction, spread of invasive species.
b)

overwatering

c)

algae growth

d)

increased infiltration

63.

Small ticks often live on deer. The ticks pierce the skin of the deer and drink its blood for nutrition. This relationship between the ticks and deer can best be described as:

a)
commensalism
b)
parasitism
c)
mutualism
d)
symbiosis
64.

In a combustion reaction, a compound containing carbon and hydrogen reacts with _______ gas producing carbon dioxide gas and water vapor. This is a combustion reaction of butane and oxygen gas.

a)
hydrogen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
nitrogen
d)
oxygen
65.

Commensialism – where one species benefits while the other is unaffected. Mutualism – both species benefit. Parasitism – one species benefits while one is harmed. Competition – neither benefits. Predation – one species benefits while the other dies,

a)

true

b)

False

66.

Which is an example of mutualism

a)
Barnacles on a whale
b)

Orchids Growing On Branches.

c)

bees and flowering plants

d)
Moss growing on a tree
67.

A swimming pool heats up during the day and cools off at night. Which is the primary type of heat transfer that warms the pool?

a)
Evaporation
b)
Conduction
c)
Convection
d)
Radiation
68.

A population of fruit flies are placed in a terrarium with fresh water, food, and air. In the first few weeks, their population grows rapidly. Which term describes this type of growth?

a)

doubling growth

b)

biological growth

c)
Exponential growth
d)
Linear growth
e)

logarithmic growth

69.

Which of the following choices provides an example of homologous structures?

a)

the bones in a cat's leg and whale's flipper

b)

a bat's wings and a butterfly's wings

c)

a human's eye and an octopus' eye

d)

a turtle's eggs and a frog's eggs

70.

In which of the following types of bonds are electrons transferred from one atom to another?

a)
Hydrogen bonds
b)
Metallic bonds
c)
Covalent bonds
d)
Ionic bonds
71.

Of the following, which describes an abyssal plain?

a)
A steep cliff in the ocean
b)
A shallow coastal area
c)
A region with abundant marine life
d)
A flat or gently sloping area of the deep ocean floor.
72.

Gasoline is a nonpolar material. Gasoline acts as a solvent for which of the following?

a)

neither polar nor nonpolar molecules

b)

both polar and nonpolar molecules

c)

polar

d)

nonpolar

73.

Which of the following is the best example of a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

Table salt in the salt shaker.

b)

Apple cider in a big, tall, glass.

c)

Fine potting soil around a potted plant.

d)

Layered gravel at the bottom of an aquarium.

74.

What are force vectors?

a)
Force vectors are representations of forces that have both magnitude and direction.
b)
Force vectors can exist without a direction.
c)
Force vectors are always perpendicular to the surface they act on.
d)
Force vectors are only defined by their magnitude.
75.

How many force vectors are needed when drawing a free body diagram of the stationary wheelbarrow, shown?

a)
2
b)
1
c)
3
d)
4
76.

Which of the following molecules are moved using active transport?

a)
Ions (e.g., Na+, K+, Ca2+), glucose, amino acids
b)
Oxygen gas
c)
Carbon dioxide
d)
Water molecules
77.

What is active transport?

a)
Active transport is the movement of substances with their concentration gradient, requiring no energy.
b)
Active transport is the passive movement of water across a membrane.
c)
Active transport is the diffusion of gases in and out of cells.
d)
Active transport is the movement of substances against their concentration gradient, requiring energy.
78.

What is the primary source of energy for most life on earth?

a)
The Sun
b)
Volcanic activity
c)
The Moon
d)

Plants

79.

In the water cycle, energy from the sun heats the water, changing the liquid water into a gas. It loses energy and falls back to Earth. Which step in the water cycle is depicted by #1 in the diagram shown?

a)

runoff

b)

condensation

c)

precipitation

d)

evaporation

80.

All atoms of a single element have the same number of:

a)
electrons
b)
neutrons
c)
protons
d)
nuclei
81.

Which of the following is the name for the region where the continental slope meets the abyssal plain?

a)
mid-ocean ridge
b)
oceanic trench
c)
continental rise
d)
continental shelf
82.

Cara would like to research the effects of plants on students' self-reported stress levels. She places potted plants in student common areas for two weeks, taking surveys before and after. She then makes a graph of her findings. Which parts of the scientific method is Cara performing?

a)

hypothesis and observation

b)

communicating data and designing a new experiment

c)

observation and data analysis

d)

experimentation and data analysis

83.

Which of the following correctly identifies a major difference between plant and animal cells?

a)

Plant cells have a cell wall in addition to a cell membrane, while animal cells only have a cell membrane.

b)

Plant cells have several smaller vacuoles, while animal cells have a large central vacuole.

c)


Plant cells have a more rounded shape, and animal cells are more rigid.

d)

Plant cells have a cell wall in place of a cell membrane, while animal cells have a cell membrane.

84.

Which of the following is the correct chemical equation for photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide+water+light energy→oxygen+glucose

b)

oxygen+water+light energy→carbon dioxide+glucose

c)

carbon dioxide+glucose→oxygen+water+energy

d)

oxygen+glucose→carbon dioxide+water+energy

85.

Which of the following is the strongest explanation of why biodiversity decreases during a mass extinction event?

a)

Inability of most organisms to adapt to the changing geology and climate.

b)

Predators increase and many organisms are killed off.

c)

Diseases wipe out large numbers of organisms.

d)

Small animals are not affected by the event and overrun the habitats of larger animals.

86.

Which of the following lists Earth's eons in the correct order from most ancient to most recent?

a)
Archean, Hadean, Phanerozoic, Proterozoic
b)
Hadean, Proterozoic, Archean, Phanerozoic
c)
Hadean, Archean, Proterozoic, Phanerozoic
d)

Hadean, Archean, Phanerozoic, Proterozoic

87.

Which of the following is a response to an internal stimulus?

a)

A raccoon comes out to eat after the sun sets.

b)

A cat's eyes dilate in dim light.

c)

A dog salivates when it smells a pot roast.

d)

A cranky toddler asks for a snack.

88.

A child of mass m pushes on the wall with a force of magnitude F. What is the magnitude of the normal force from the wall on the child?

a)
0
b)
m
c)
2F
d)
F
89.

Which of the following rocks is an igneous rock?

a)
Sandstone
b)
Limestone
c)
Shale
d)
Granite
90.

In which model of the atom do electrons move in waves around the nucleus?

a)
Bohr Model
b)
Rutherford Model
c)
Quantum Mechanical Model
d)
Thomson Model
91.

Which of the following land formations were created by glaciers?

a)

faults, folds, and trenches

b)
U-shaped valleys, moraines, fjords
c)

aretes, hornes, and cirques

d)

domes, cones, and bulges

92.

Which of the following macromolecules is responsible for holding genetic information?

choose 2

a)


nucleic acid

b)
DNA
c)
Proteins
d)
Lipids
e)

carbohydrate

93.

Which chemicals are the reactants and which are the products in the following combustion reaction?

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

a)

Reactants: CO2 and H2O Products: CH4 and O2

b)

Reactants: CH4 and O2 Products: CO2 and H2O

c)

Reactants: O2 and H2O Products: CH4 and CO2

d)

Reactants: CH4 and CO2 Products: O2 and H2O

94.

Marcey plants a strawberry plant in a pot. Her little brother accidentally knocks the pot on its side. After a few days, Marcey returns to water the plant. What kind of plant growth can Marcey expect to find in her strawberry plant?The strawberry plant's stem will turn and begin growing upwards.

a)

The strawberry plant's stem will turn and begin growing upwards.

b)

The strawberry plant's stem will turn and begin growing downwards.

c)

The strawberry plant will die from being placed on its side.

d)

The strawberry will continue to grow away from the pot as before.

95.

In a combustion reaction, a compound containing ______ and hydrogen reacts with oxygen gas producing carbon dioxide gas and water vapor. This is a combustion reaction of butane and oxygen gas.

a)
phosphorus
b)
nitrogen
c)
carbon
d)
sulfur
96.

A woman accidentally left her purse on top of her car and drove out of her driveway. She traveled a short distance down the road and a deer darted out in front of her, causing her to quickly apply the brakes. When she hit the brakes, she saw her purse slide down her windshield and onto the hood of her car. Which one of Newton's Laws does this scenario relate to?

a)
Law of Universal Gravitation
b)
Newton's Third Law of Motion
c)
Newton's First Law of Motion
d)
Newton's Second Law of Motion
97.

newton's second law of motion

a)
F = ma
b)
F = m/a
c)
F = m^2
d)
F = mv
98.

Newton's third law

a)
For every action, there is a greater reaction.
b)
Every action has no reaction.
c)
For every action, there is a similar reaction.
d)
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
99.

Which of the following is not an accurate descriptor of nonvascular plants?

a)

Nonvascular plants include ferns.

b)

Nonvascular plants have no internal transport system for food.

c)

Nonvascular plants have no internal transport system for water.

d)

Nonvascular plants cannot control water loss.


100.

Why are the fossils of mammals relatively rare?

a)

Relatively few mammals have ever existed at any given time.

b)

Fossils form only when remains are preserved by quick burial. Most mammals decay before they are fossilized.

c)

Mammals are generally eaten by carnivores before they have time to become fossils.

d)

Mammals have only soft body parts, which do not fossilize.

101.

Electronegativity describes the ability of an atom to pull the electron cloud closer to its nucleus in a covalent bond. Electronegativity increases from left to right across periods and from bottom to top in groups on the periodic table.

Which of the following physical properties determine the electronegativity for an element?

Select all answers that apply.

a)

number of electrons in the element's outer shell

b)

atomic radius

c)

number of neutrons in the nucleus

d)


mass number

102.

The ionization energy of selenium is higher than that of calcium. Which of the following best explains the reason for this?

a)

Selenium has a greater number of protons than calcium.

b)

Selenium has a greater atomic radius than calcium.

c)


Ionization energy increases from the bottom row to the top row of the periodic table.

d)


Calcium is a metal and selenium is a nonmetal.

103.

Nitrogen gas, N2, is classified as which of the following?

a)

an element

b)

a salt

c)

a solvent

d)


a compound

104.

One of the most commonly used examples of a solution is:

a)

the rock layers comprising the fossil record.

b)

a bowl of cereal.

c)

a peanut butter and jelly sandwich.

d)

the atmosphere.

105.

A scientist is trying to identity a sample of an unknown element. The sample is a gas at room temperature and does not react with any known elements. To which family would this element most likely belong?

a)

halogens

b)

metalloids

c)

noble gases

d)


alkali metals

106.

A teacher seals an empty metal container and places it in an ice bath. The sides of the container collapse. Students are asked to describe their observations and use scientific reasoning to explain what happened. One student records the following response.

"When the container was placed in ice, I saw the sides get pushed in. This happened because the air particles that were sealed inside the container got smaller when they got colder."

What misconception should the teacher address?

a)

There is a force pushing on the outside of the container.

b)

The container is physically attached to the air particles.

c)

Cold molecules are smaller than warm molecules.

d)

Energy is transferred from the container to the ice.

107.

Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

a)

Zn

b)

Cr

c)

K

d)

Cl

108.

Nicole makes two solutions of salt water. For solution 1, she adds 1 tablespoon of salt to 1 cup of water and stirs until the salt has dissolved and the solution is clear. For Solution 2, she adds more than 1 tablespoons of salt to 1 cup of water, and although she stirs and stirs, the solution remains cloudy. Which of the following describes the most likely end results?

a)

solution 1: saturated; solution 2: saturated

b)

solution 1: saturated; solution 2: unsaturated

c)

solution 1: unsaturated; solution 2: unsaturated

d)

solution 1: unsaturated; solution 2: saturated

109.

A solid gold bar is melted in a smelter. Which of the following statements correctly compares the volume of the solid bar to the volume of the liquid gold?

a)

The volumes will be different because the solid takes up less space than the liquid.

b)

The volumes will be the same because the surrounding pressures are the same.

c)

The volumes will be the same because they both have the same number of molecules.

d)

The volumes will be different because the solid holds its shape.

110.

Excess HCl is added to 234 g of Na2S solution as shown by the equation below:

Na2S(aq) + 2HCl(aq) →2NaCl(aq) + H2S(g)

How many liters of H2S gas are produced at standard temperature and pressure (STP)? The molar mass of Na2S is 78 g.

a)

67 L

b)


230 L

c)

78 L

d)

6.9 L

111.

Which of the following describes the process of sublimation?

a)

Pure water breaks into charged ions of hydrogen and hydroxide.

b)

The atoms in a material combine with pure oxygen.

c)

A pure solid changes directly into a gas.

d)

A pure liquid changes directly into a gas.

112.

Which of the following characteristics always describes a liquid?

Select all answers that apply.

a)

has a fixed volume

b)

has a non-fixed shape

c)

always clear

d)

can be compressed

113.

Based on its position in the periodic table, which of the following elements is likely to LACK ductility and conductivity?

a)

ru

b)

br

c)

zr

d)

ga

114.

An atom containing 46 protons and 46 electrons with a mass number of 106 has how many neutrons?

a)
60
b)
64
c)

46

d)

92

115.

Name the smallest unit of an element that retains the properties of that element.

a)

atom

b)

molecule

116.

Which statement is true about the phase diagram shown?

a)

Arrow A represents melting.

b)

Arrow B represents sublimation.

c)

Arrow C represents condensation.

d)


Arrow D represents two phase changes.

117.

A frozen popsicle was left in the sun and melted. Which statement is true?

a)

The temperature of the popsicle decreased.

b)

The molecules started to move more and became more loosely packed.

c)

Energy was removed from the popsicle.

118.

Which of the following scientists' models of the atom is referred to as the "plum pudding" model and first introduced the existence of electrons?

a)
Erwin Schrödinger
b)
J.J. Thomson
c)
Niels Bohr
d)
Albert Einstein
119.

Juan makes two solutions of salt water. For solution 1, he adds 1 tablespoon of salt to 1 cup of water and stirs until the salt has dissolved and the solution is clear. For Solution 2, he adds more than 1 tablespoons of salt to 1 cup of water, and although he stirs and stirs, the solution remains cloudy. Which of the following describes the most likely end results?

a)

solution 1: concentrated; solution 2: dilute

b)

solution 1: dilute; solution 2: dilute

c)

solution 1: dilute; solution 2: concentrated

d)

solution 1: concentrated; solution 2: concentrated

120.

Which of the following is the chemical formula for ozone?

a)
N2O
b)
O2
c)
O3
d)
CO2
121.

Which of the following represents a combustion reaction?

a)
A + O2 -> N2 + H2
b)

MgO + C → Mg + CO

c)

2C4H10 + 13O2 → 8CO2 + 10 H2O

d)

2HCl + Zn → ZnCl2 + H2

122.

In a combustion reaction, a compound containing carbon and _______ reacts with oxygen gas producing carbon dioxide gas and water vapor. This is a combustion reaction of butane and oxygen gas.

a)
hydrogen
b)
phosphorus
c)
sulfur
d)
nitrogen
123.

When potassium and chlorine react, they form potassium chloride: KCl. What is the chemical formula when iodine reacts with potassium?

a)
KCl
b)
KBr
c)
KI
d)
KCl2
124.

How do we name main group cations? In general, the cation name is the same as the element name, but with the word _____ added to the end.

a)
molecule
b)
compound
c)
ion
d)
atom
125.

To name main group anions, we take the root of the element's name and add ____to the end.

a)
ate
b)
ous
c)
ic
d)
ide
126.

Which of the following is a chemical reaction?

a)

water boiling

b)

smashing a rock into pieces

c)


mixing oil and vinegar in a table dressing

d)

digesting food

127.

Boiling water is a physical change. It is only a change in the state of matter (water to gas), not in the composition.

a)
True
b)
False
128.

A student carries out an experiment in a test tube in the lab. Which of the following signs indicate that an endothermic process has occurred?

a)

The substance inside the test tube starts to give off light and heat.

b)

The test tube feels cold to the touch.

c)

The test tube feels hot to the touch.

129.

A young man approaches, then drives past and away from a factory which is loudly blowing its noon whistle. Which of the following describes the frequency of the sound heard by the young man as compared with what the stationary factory workers starting their lunch break hear?

a)

approaching: higher---driving away: lower

b)

approaching: the same---driving away: the same

c)

approaching: higher---driving away: higher

130.

Which of the following correctly lists types of electromagnetic radiation from longest to shortest wavelength?

a)

infrared > radio > visible > microwaves

b)

radio > microwaves > infrared > visible

c)

microwaves > infrared > visible > radio

131.

Which of the following is the correct order of the electromagnetic spectrum from lowest to highest frequency?

a)

radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, x-rays, gamma rays

b)

radio waves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, microwaves, x-rays, gamma rays

c)

radio waves, visible light, infrared, ultraviolet, microwaves, gamma rays, x-rays

d)

infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, radio waves, microwaves, x-rays, gamma rays

132.

What is the shortest light wave?

a)
Gamma rays
b)
Radio waves
c)
Infrared rays
d)
Ultraviolet rays
133.

What light wave has the most frequencies?

a)
Gamma rays
b)
Radio waves
c)
Ultraviolet rays
d)
Infrared waves
134.

What light wave is the longest?

a)
Visible light waves
b)
Ultraviolet waves
c)
Infrared waves
d)
Radio waves
135.

What light wave is second shortest?

a)
X-rays
b)
Ultraviolet light
c)
Infrared light
d)
Radio waves
136.

Which of the following energy transformations occurs when gasoline is burned in a combustion engine?

a)

chemical energy into mechanical energy

b)

light energy into thermal energy

137.

Which of the following is often an unwanted energy byproduct of electromagnetic devices such as motors, electromagnets, speakers, and generators?

a)
Magnetism
b)
Light
c)
Heat
d)
Sound
138.

The amplitude of a transverse wave is:

a)
The wavelength of the wave.
b)
The average speed of the wave.
c)

half of the distance between the top of a crest and the bottom of a trough.

d)


the full distance between the top of a crest and the bottom of a trough.

139.

is ionic bond a molecule

a)
Yes, an ionic bond is a type of molecule.
b)
An ionic bond is a molecule made of ions.
c)
No, an ionic bond is not a molecule.
d)
Ionic bonds are formed between two molecules.
140.

Is carbon dioxide molecule, compound or both?

a)
Element
b)

compound

c)

molecule

d)
Both
141.

Is water molecule, compound or both?

a)
Element
b)

compound

c)

molecule

d)
Both
142.

Copper-65 (mass number 65) is the most stable isotope of copper. How many neutrons are in one atom of Cu-65?

a)
30
b)
36
c)
34
d)
40
143.

Which of the following physical properties stems from the many shared electrons in a metal?

a)
Thermal conductivity
b)
Malleability
c)
Ductility
d)

magnetism

144.

A solid gold bar is melted in a smelter. Which of the following statements correctly compares the volume of the solid bar to the volume of the liquid gold?

a)

The volumes will be different because the solid takes up less space than the liquid.

b)

The volumes will be the same because the surrounding pressures are the same.

c)


The volumes will be different because the solid holds its shape.

145.

Sodium and potassium are both

a)
transition metals
b)
noble gases
c)
halogens
d)
alkali metals

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