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DQA1 bio review

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 9hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
capillary action
d)
surface tension
2.
Which end of the water molecule has a slightly positive charge?
a)
the oxygen end
b)
the hydrogen end
c)
both ends are slightly positive
d)
neither end is positive
3.
Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?
a)
Water is an acid.
b)
Water is a versatile solvent.
c)
Water has a high heat capacity.
d)
 Water acts as a buffer.
4.
Which statement explains why water molecules stick together?
a)
both sides are negative
b)
one side has a positive charge and the other side has a negative charge
c)
one side has a negative charge adn the other side has a neutral charge
d)
both sides are positive
5.
When water molecules stick easily to other water molecules, this is called what?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
solution
d)
polar molecule
6.

The ability of water molecules to stick to each other, creating surface tension is called:

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Insulation

d)

Ph

7.

What property of water results in the accumulation of small amounts of water into larger amounts of water? The results in the rivers, lakes, streams, and even the oceans.

a)

Cohesive Behavior

b)

Expansion Upon Freezing

c)

Ability to Moderate Temperature

d)

Universal Solvent

8.

What property of water allows for water to act as a temperature regulator for the world?

a)

Cohesive Behavior

b)

Expansion Upon Freezing

c)

High Specific Heat

d)

Universal Solvent

9.

What property of water causes these Alka-Seltzer tablets to dissolve?

a)

Universal Solvent

b)

Expansion Upon Freezing

c)

Cohesive Behavior

d)

High Specific Heat

10.

Sweating is an example of what property of water?

a)

Ability to Moderate Temperature

b)

Expansion Upon Freezing

c)

Cohesive Behavior

d)

Universal Solvent

11.

Why does ice stay at the top of oceans instead of sinking to the bottom? 

a)

Ice is colder than liquid water

b)

Ice is less dense than liquid water

c)

Ice is more dense than liquid water

d)

Ice is warmer than liquid water

12.

One of the accepted scientific theories describing the origin of life on Earth is known as chemical evolution. According to this theory, which of the following events would need to occur first for life to evolve?

a)

onset of photosynthesis

b)

origin of genetic material

c)

Synthesis of organic molecules

d)

formation of the plasma membrane

13.

Which types of organisms developed first due to the early environmental conditions on Earth?

a)

prokaryotic and aerobic

b)

prokaryotic and anaerobic

c)

eukaryotic and aerobic

d)

eukaryotic and anaerobic

14.

The Miller-Urey experiment of 1953 was designed to test the hypothesis that lightning supplied the energy needed to turn atmospheric gases into organic molecules such as amino acids. Which of the following describes why the Miller-Urey theory is widely accepted today?

a)

Amino acids spontaneously form from molecules in the atmosphere today.

b)

Organic molecules are present today in extremely high concentrations.

c)

The process of synthesizing organic molecules from a mixture of gases has been successfully modeled in the laboratory.

d)

No other alternative hypotheses have been introduced.

15.

The diagram below shows a proposed theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, called endosymbiosis.

Which of the following explains why cells that contained mitochondria-like organelles had an evolutionary advantage?

a)

They were able to photosynthesize

b)

They had more DNA

c)

They were able to make more use of available energy

d)

They were immune to bacterial invasion.

16.
Cells without a nucleus are said to be _____________________.
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
17.
What gas was necessary for complex (eukaryotic) life to evolve?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Oxygen
c)
Dihydrogen monoxide
d)
Methane
18.
Which type of cell came first?
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
Plant
d)
Both Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells evolved around the same time
19.
The idea that Earth's early oceans had organic molecules that became the first life is called the...
a)
Primordial soup hypothesis
b)
Bubble hypothesis
c)
Miller-Urey Experiment
d)
Radioactive dating theory
20.
Why is Deep Sea Vent Theory a possible explanation for life on Earth?
a)
It has biological communities and energy
b)
It is dark and no oxygen
c)
It has a light source and energy from the vents
d)
High levels of electricity are generated there
21.
"Endosymbiosis" means...
a)
Living together
b)
Living inside
c)
Entering together
d)
Joining together
22.
What process is shown within this diagram?
a)
Natural selection
b)
Endosymbiosis
c)
Chemical evolution
d)
Abiogenesis
23.
The theory of Endosymbiosis explains...
a)
The origin of eukaryotes
b)
How species develop
c)
How bacteria evolved
d)
Why cells rely on one another
24.
Which concept refers to life arising from non-living molecules?
a)
Organic evolution
b)
Chemical evolution
c)
Chemosynthesis
d)
Photosynthesis
25.

A ______________ is a large molecule.

a)

Micromolecule

b)

Polymer

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Macromolecule

26.

Which of the following elements are found in all macromolecules? (Select all that apply).

a)
b)
c)
d)
27.

Which of the following is not one of the four major classes of macromolecules?

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbon

c)

Protein

d)

Carbohydrates

e)

Nucleic Acid

28.

Which macromolecule is used as our main source of energy?

a)

Lipids/Fats

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

29.

Which macromolecule stores energy?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids/Fats

d)

Nucleic Acids

30.

Nucleic acids make up which of the two molecules listed below?

a)

FDA

b)

RNA

c)

DNA

d)

FDR

31.

This is one job proteins do not have in the body.

a)

structure for tissues and organs

b)

transport things through cell membranes

c)

speed up chemical reactions

d)

insulation

32.

This macromolecule breaks down into sugars such as glucose.

a)

Lipids/Fats

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Protein

d)

Carbohydrates

33.
What are the monomers of DNA?
a)
glycerols
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
nucleotides
34.
Lipids can be digested into what smaller subunits?
a)
nucleic acids
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
glucose
35.
All polymers are made up of...
a)
monosaccharides
b)
monomers
c)
proteins
d)
None of these
36.
All organic compounds contain the element
a)
carbon
b)
nitrogen
c)
phosphorus
d)
sulfur
37.

Enzymes belong to which class of macromolecules?

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

38.

DNA belongs to which class of macromolecules?

a)

proteins

b)

nucleic acids

c)

carbohydrates

d)

lipids

39.

Enzyme

a)

proteins that speed up chemical reactions

b)

Changing substances by breaking and forming bonds (includes hydrolysis and dehydration reactions)

c)

the capacity for doing work

d)

the energy needed to start a chemical reaction

40.

Activation energy

a)

proteins that speed up chemical reactions

b)

Changing substances by breaking and forming bonds (includes hydrolysis and dehydration reactions)

c)

the capacity for doing work

d)

the energy needed to start a chemical reaction

41.

Reactants

a)

the substances changed during a chemical reaction (goes into the process)

b)

the substances made by a chemical reaction (comes out of the process)

c)

substance that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction

d)

reactant of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction

42.

Products

a)

the substances changed during a chemical reaction (goes into the process)

b)

the substances made by a chemical reaction (comes out of the process)

c)

substance that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction

d)

reactant of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction

43.

Substrate

a)

the substances changed during a chemical reaction (goes into the process)

b)

the substances made by a chemical reaction (comes out of the process)

c)

substance that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction

d)

reactant of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction

44.

Active site

a)

the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate

b)

a change in the shape of a protein (such as an enzyme) that can be caused by changes in temperature or pH (among other things).

c)

substance that can bind to an enzyme and prevent the substrate from properly binding

d)

macromolecules that contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, include enzymes

45.

Denature

a)

the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate

b)

a change in the shape of a protein (such as an enzyme) that can be caused by changes in temperature or pH (among other things).

c)

substance that can bind to an enzyme and prevent the substrate from properly binding

d)

macromolecules that contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, include enzymes

46.

How do enzymes speed up chemical reactions? Enzymes

a)

lower the activation energy of chemical reactions.

b)

raise the temperature of the cell, speeding chemical reactions.

c)

store ATP, allowing more energy to be used in chemical reactions.

d)

act as miniature "transfer trucks", gathering materials for chemical reactions, and placing them together.

47.

What is the optimum temperature for this enzyme?

a)

20 degrees Celsius

b)

45 degrees Celsius

c)

52 degrees Celsius

d)

64 degrees Celsius

48.

What can be inferred using the graph?

a)

Cells can function equally as well at all pH values.

b)

Cells do not function well at pH values that are too high or too low.

c)

Cells function best at high pH values.

d)

Cells function best at low pH values.

49.

In the enzymatic reaction, the __________ is on the left of the arrow, while the products are to the right of the arrow.

a)

enzyme

b)

filtrate

c)

pre-product

d)

reactant

50.

Each enzyme produced by the body is

a)

open - meaning it is able to catalyze a reaction with any molecule.

b)

immature - meaning it cannot catalyze a reaction until many years later.

c)

incomplete - meaning it requires other parts before it is able to bind to a molecule.

d)

specific - meaning it is only able to catalyze a rection with a certain molecule.

51.

Which of the following two factors affect an enzyme's operation the most?

a)

amount of light and temperature

b)

blood glucose and pH

c)

temperature and pH

d)

amount of light and pressure

52.

What is the optimum pH for the enzyme salivary amylase?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

6.2

d)

9.1

53.

Enzymes are a type of which macromolecule?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

54.

Which labeled part is the substrate?

a)

letter A

b)

letter B

c)

letter D

d)

letter E

55.

Which labeled part is the enzyme?

a)

letter A

b)

letter B and D

c)

letter D

d)

letter E

56.
All living things are made up of...
a)
cells
b)
cell tissues
c)
organ
d)
organ systems
57.
All cells come from___________ cells.
a)
pregnant
b)
pre-existing
c)
paternal
d)
pin size
58.

The 3 parts of the Cell Theory are...?

a)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

All cells are produced from other cells

b)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells are the basic units of dance and vibes in living things

All cells are destroyed from other aliens

c)

All living things are composed of Jell-O

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

All cells are produced from factories in Canada

d)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells do karate and practice eating whole pies in their free time

All cells are produced from other cells

59.

What does it mean to say that a cell membrane is semipermeable?

a)

it allows some materials to pass through

b)

it allows nothing to enter the cell, only to leave

c)

It only allows things into the cell and not out

d)

it allows all materials to pass through

60.

What is the function of an organelle?

a)

to take up space

b)

to carry out a specific function in the cell

c)

to carry out all the functions of a cell

d)

to create new cells

61.

Which organelle uses enzymes to break down waste in a cell?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Ribosome

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Golgi Apparatus

62.

What is the function of the mitochondria?

a)

to capture energy from the sun and turn it to sugar

b)

to release usable energy for the cell

c)

to store energy for when the cell needs it

d)

to remove waste from the cell

63.

What organelle allows plants to create their glucose?

a)

Mitochondira

b)

Lysosome

c)

Ribosome

d)

Chloroplast

64.

Which of the following is not one of the 5 things all cells have?

a)

cell membrane

b)

cytoplasm

c)

DNA

d)

nucleus

65.

What is the difference the key difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotes have a nucleus, Eukaryotes do not

b)

Eukaryotes have a nucleus, Prokaryotes do not

c)

Prokaryotes have a cell membrane, Eukaryotes do not

d)

Eukaryotes have ribosomes, Prokaryotes do not

66.

Which of the following organelles do plants have that animals to not? (Select all that apply)

a)

Cell wall

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Chloroplasts

e)

Ribosomes

67.

Which organelle provides structure and protection to plant cells?

a)

cell membrane

b)

ribosome

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

cell wall

68.

What is the name of the "packages" the golgi body creates?

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Vesicles

d)

Ribosomes

69.

What is the name of the "packages" the golgi body creates?

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Vesicles

d)

Ribosomes

70.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Prokaryote

71.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Prokaryote

72.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Prokaryote

73.
Which number represents the cytoplasm?
a)
3
b)
2
c)
4
d)
6
74.
Which number represents the cell membrane? 
a)
6
b)
5
c)
3
d)
8
75.
Which number represents the cell wall?
a)
6
b)
5
c)
8
d)
2
76.
Which number represents the chloroplasts? 
a)
7
b)
2
c)
8
d)
5
77.
Which number represents the nucleus? 
a)
1
b)
7
c)
5
d)
2
78.
Which number represents the ribosomes?
a)
6
b)
5
c)
2
d)
7
79.
Which number represents the ribosomes?
a)
6
b)
5
c)
2
d)
7
80.
Which organelles work together to provide a plant cell with structure and support
a)
The cell wall and large vacuole
b)
The cytoskeleton and the cell wall
c)
The cytoskeleton and the nucleus
d)
The cell wall and chloroplast
81.
In which structure is protein synthesized? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
82.
What make eukaryotic cells more complex than prokaryotic cells?
a)
the presence of ribosomes
b)
the presence of nucleic acids
c)
the presence of the plasma membrane 
d)
the presence of membrane-bound organelles
83.
Which best describes what type of cell(s) contain a plasma membrane? 
a)
eukaryotic cells
b)
prokaryotic cells
c)
both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells
d)
all eukaryotic cells and select prokaryotic cells
84.
What is the major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Eukaryotic cells only have a flagellum. 
b)
Prokaryotic cells do not have a cell membrane. 
c)
Eukaryotic cells do not have membrane-bound structures. 
d)
Prokaryotic cells do not have membrane-bound structures. 
85.
Which is the best titles for A and B? 
a)
A is eukaryotic and B is prokaryotic. 
b)
A is prokaryotic and B is eukaryotic. 
c)
A is plant and B is animal. 
d)
A is animal and B is plant. 
86.

Which organelle is responsible making food (Glucose) using sunlight?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Mitochondria

87.

Select all that are raw materials for Photosynthesis.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight (Light Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

88.

Select all that are products of Photosynthesis.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight (Light Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

89.

How does most of the water needed by the plant get into its leaves?

a)

It enters through the stomata

b)

The roots absorb it and then it travels up the stem

c)

It's made during a chemical reaction in the leaf

d)

The flowers capture water and deliver it to the leaves

90.
Why do plants conduct photosynthesis?
a)
To make light
b)
To make mitochondria
c)
To make glucose
d)
To release carbon dioxide
91.
How does carbon dioxide get into the leaves of a plant?
a)
It's absorbed by the roots
b)
It's made in a chemical reaction in the stem
c)
It enters through the stomata
d)
It goes through the flowers
92.
Which of these conditions would decrease the rate of photosynthesis in a plant?
a)
Above average precipitation
b)
Changing the daylight hours from 14 hrs to 10 hrs
c)
Changing the CO2 concentration from 380 ppm to 410 ppm
d)
All of these choices
93.
Which choice correctly shows the gases that enter and exit plants during photosynthesis?
a)
Enter: Oxygen
Exit: Carbon dioxide
b)
Enter: Water vapor
Exit: Glucose
c)
Enter: Carbon dioxide
Exit: Oxygen
d)
Enter: Light
Exit: Water vapor
94.

Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?

a)

light + carbon dioxide + water --> glucose + oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide + sugar + water --> oxygen + light

c)

oxygen + light + water --> carbon dioxide + sugar

d)

carbon dioxide + oxygen + water --> Light+ Sugar

95.

Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?

a)

light + carbon dioxide + water --> glucose + oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide + sugar + water --> oxygen + light

c)

oxygen + light + water --> carbon dioxide + sugar

d)

carbon dioxide + oxygen + water --> Light+ Sugar

96.
Which organisms perform Photosynthesis?
a)
Only Autotrophs
b)
Only Heterotrophs
c)
Autotrophs and Heterotrophs
97.
Which of the following is an example of an AUTOTROPH?
a)
Appletree
b)
Dog
c)
Mushroom
d)
Human
98.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
99.
Plants need ________ for photosynthesis
a)
oxygen
b)
soil
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
sugar
100.
What is photosynthesis?
a)
The process in which humans eat their food
b)
When a photographer takes a photo.
c)
To get your pictures from the photo lab.
d)
The process in which plants make their food.
101.

Part of the plant that absorbs water.

a)

Roots

b)

Flowers

c)

Petals

d)

Leaves

102.

Part of the plant that has chlorophyll

a)

Roots

b)

Flowers

c)

Petals

d)

Leaves

103.
What do the leaves of a plant do?
a)
They make the food for the plant.
b)
They soak up the water from the ground.
c)
They deliver water to the other parts of the plants
d)
They make seeds
104.

What is one job of the stem?

a)

To pollinate the plant

b)

To make food for the plant

c)

To carry food and water to the plant

105.
what is the function of xylem tissue?
a)
transports water and minerals salt 
b)
control the opening and closing of stoma
c)
carry out photosynthesis
d)
provide support for young plant
106.
which of this tissues are not known as ground tissue?
a)
perenchyma tissue
b)
collenchyma tissue
c)
epidermal tissue
d)
sclerenchyma tissue
107.
what is the function of phloem tissue?
a)
transport water and minerals
b)
support plants
c)
photosynthesis process occur
d)
transport organic nutrients
108.
What tissue type defends the plant from physical damage and pathogens?
a)
Ground tissue
b)
Protective tissue
c)
Vascular tissue
d)
Dermal tissue
109.
Xylem and phloem are examples of what tissue type?
a)
Vascular tissue
b)
Root tissue
c)
Dermal tissue
d)
Ground tissue
110.
What plant tissue transports material between the root and the shoot of the plant
a)
Ground tissue
b)
Apical tissue
c)
dermal tissue
d)
Vascular tissue 
111.
What is a tissue
a)
A group of cells that share a common goal
b)
a tissue that has a function
c)
A group of cells that share a common function, structure or both
d)
A group of cells
112.
This is the type of meristem found at the tips of roots and stems that causes primary growth?
a)
Lateral meristem
b)
Epidermis
c)
Intercalary meristem
d)
Apical meristem
113.
A region of plant cells that are capable of dividing and developing into specialized plant tissues.
a)
Phloem
b)
Stomata
c)
Tropism
d)
Meristems
114.

Which of the following is a simple tissue that serves as a site for photosynthesis, provides supporting matrix for vascular tissue, and helps to store water and sugar?

a)

Vascular tissue

b)

Collenchyma tissue

c)

Ground tissue

d)

Sclerenchyma tissue

115.

How do cells get energy to perform their necessary functions?

a)

Cells get energy by taking in nutrients from food.

b)

Cells get energy by dissolving waste products.

c)

Cells get energy only by taking in oxygen from the atmosphere.

d)

Cells get energy by moving water from one organelle to another.

116.

Which of the following are products in the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

glucose and oxygen

d)

glucose and water

117.

In which organelle does cellular respiration take place?

a)

chloroplast

b)

mitochondrion

c)

nucleus

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

118.

Cellular respiration is carried out by which of the following?

a)

plants only

b)

plants and animals

c)

plants, algae, and cyanobacteria

d)

all living organisms

119.

Which of the following are reactants in the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide and water

b)

glucose and oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

d)

glucose and water

120.

What is the total number of ATP molecules formed from the breakdown of one glucose molecule during aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

2

b)

34

c)

38

d)

44

121.

Aerobic means __________ .

a)

"requires hydrogen"

b)

"needing electrons"

c)

"forming ATPs"

d)

"requires oxygen"

122.

Which of the following represents the correct cycling of gases?

a)

b)

c)

d)

123.

Which statement best describes a relationship between mitochondria and chloroplasts?

a)

Mitochondria release chemical energy from molecules and store it in chloroplasts.

b)

Chloroplasts release chemical energy from molecules and store it in mitochondria.

c)

Mitochondria convert chemical energy into light energy that can be used by chloroplasts.

d)

Chloroplasts convert light energy into chemical energy that can be used by mitochondria.

124.

Four students classified the main energy conversions that occur during photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Which student best classified the energy conversions that occur in the two processes?

a)

student 1

b)

student 2

c)

student 3

d)

student 4

125.

A cell in the leaf of a green plant performs both photosynthesis and cellular respiration, often at the same time. Which statement best describes how these processes are related to each other?

a)

Both processes produce carbon dioxide.

b)

Both processes require energy directly from the Sun.

c)

Products of one process are used as some of the reactants for the other process.

d)

Thermal energy from one process is used as the energy source for the other process.

126.

An organism carries out both photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Which statement describes a difference between these two processes?

a)

Only cellular respiration creates chemical energy.

b)

The processes occur in different types of animal cells.

c)

Only photosynthesis changes light energy into chemical energy.

d)

The processes occur at different times during the animal’s life cycle.

127.

The Letter “X” is pointing to ____________ and the _____________ reactions take place here.

a)

Inner membrane, Electron Transport Chain

b)

Matrix, Electron Transport Chain

c)

Inner membrane, Krebs Cycle

d)

Matrix, Krebs Cycle

128.
The first step in getting energy in the cell by breaking down glucose is known as
a)
the Krebs cycle
b)
electron transport
c)
fermentation
d)
glycolysis
129.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
130.
Fermentation involves
a)
aerobic respiration
b)
anaerobic respiration 
131.
Which of the following complementary base pairs are correct?
a)
A  - T
b)
A - G
c)
T - C
d)
G - U
132.
Replicate the following strand of DNA: 
AATCATGGA
a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
133.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
134.
Order of replication
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
135.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
136.
What is the correct complimentary strand for the following DNA?  ATCGAG
a)
TACGAG
b)
ATCGAG
c)
TAGCTG
d)
TAGCTC
137.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
138.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
139.
Describes the twisted ladder-like shape of a DNA molecule
a)
Nitrogen Base
b)
Hexagon
c)
Double Helix
140.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
141.
After analyzing a sample of DNA, a scientist recorded the data shown in the table. What percentage of the DNA sample is cytosine?
a)
22%
b)
25%
c)
28%
d)
56%
142.
The nucleic acid DNA is composed of
a)
sugar, protein, and nitrogenous bases.
b)
protein, nitrogenous bases, and phosphate.
c)
nitrogenous bases, phosphate, and RNA.
d)
sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous bases.
143.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
144.

the longest phase of the cell cycle

a)

telophase

b)

metaphase

c)

interphase

d)

anaphase

145.

portion of interphase when the primary function is to grow

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S

d)

cytokinesis

146.

During which portion of interphase is DNA copied

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

anaphase

147.

During which portion of interphase is the cell preparing for mitosis

a)

prophase

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

148.

During which portion of interphase are copies of organelles made?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Telophase

149.

Which portionof the cell cycle involves division of the nuclear material

a)

mitosis

b)

interphase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

prophase

150.

Which portion of mitosis involves chromatin condensing into chromosomes?

a)

G2

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

prophase

151.

In which phase of mitosis do the spindle apparatus form and attach to the sides of a cell?

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

S phase

d)

interphase

152.

Which phase of mitosis involves the nucleolus and nuclear envelope diappearing?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

telophase

d)

G1

153.

Which of the following is the longest phase of mitosis?

a)

metaphase

b)

interphase

c)

G1

d)

prophase

154.

Which of the following is represented by chromosomes lining up in the middle (on the equator) of the cell?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

telophase

d)

cytokinesis

155.

During which phase of mitosis are chromosomes pulled apart and move to opposite ends of the cell?

a)

anaphase

b)

telophase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

interphase

156.

During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes unwind?

a)

cytokinesis

b)

G1

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

157.

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope and nucleoli reappear?

a)

telophase

b)

S

c)

G1

d)

prophase

158.

During which phase of mitosis does the spindle apparatus disappear?

a)

metaphase

b)

interphase

c)

telophase

d)

anaphase

159.

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cytoplasm divide and two new cells are formed?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

anaphase

d)

metaphase

160.

95% of the cells life cycle

Stage where DNA is copied

a)

Interphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Prophase

161.

Nuclear membrane disappears

Chromosomes can now be seen

Centrioles move to opposite sides

a)

Metaphase

b)

Interphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Prophase

162.

Chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell

Spindle fibers extend from the centrioles to the middle of the chromosomes

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Interphase

163.

Nuclear membrane reforms around the new daughter cells.

Cytoplasm begins to "pinch" in.

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Interphase

164.

Two replicated cells split from each other and are able to move on their own.

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase

165.

Students are observing particles moving against the concentration gradient in a lab investigation. Which type of transport are they observing?

a)

osmosis

b)

active Transport

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

diffusion

166.

This picture shows molecules of red dye that have moved. What is this type of movement called?

a)

Osmosis; the water molecules are moving from high concentration to low

b)

Diffusion; the dye molecules are moving from low to high concentration

c)

Diffusion; the dye molecules are moving from high to low concentration.

d)

Facilitated diffusion; because the molecules are moving through a protein channel.

167.

Passive transport is when molecules move ________ the concentration gradient.

a)

against

b)

up

c)

down

d)

with

168.

Active transport is when molecules move ________ the concentration gradient.

a)

against

b)

up

c)

down

d)

with

169.

This picture is a representation of what type of transport?

a)

Osmosis because it is diffusing through a protein from an area of high concentration to low concentration.

b)

Facilitated diffusion because it is diffusing through a protein from an area of high concentration to low concentration.

c)

Facilitated diffusion because it is diffusing through a protein from an area of low concentration to high concentration.

d)

Simple diffusion because it is diffusing through a protein from an area of high concentration to low concentration.

170.

This picture is a representation of what type of transport?

a)

Osmosis because it is diffusing through a protein from an area of high concentration to low concentration.

b)

Facilitated diffusion because it is diffusing through a protein from an area of high concentration to low concentration.

c)

Facilitated diffusion because it is diffusing through a protein from an area of low concentration to high concentration.

d)

Simple diffusion because it is diffusing through a protein from an area of high concentration to low concentration.

171.

This a picture of an animal and plant cell placed in a solution. Describe the solution?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

172.

This a picture of an animal and plant cell placed in a solution. Describe the solution?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

173.

What type of solution was this plant placed in?

a)

hypotonic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypertonic

174.

The cell shrunk in size, which means it was placed in a ____ solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

175.

What part of the cell regulates what can enter and leave the cell?  

a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Cytoplasm
176.
What does "bilayer" mean?
a)
one layer
b)
two layers
c)
laminated
d)
bilateral
177.
All cells have a:
a)
Nucleus
b)
Plasma membrane
c)
Cell wall
d)
Buddy
178.
A ______________ is composed of a phosphate and glycerol head and 2 fatty acid chain tails. 
a)
phospholipid 
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Cholesterol 
d)
Protein 
179.
What is the diffusion of water only across a cell or semi-permeable membrane?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Passive Transport
180.

A cell that is 90% water and 10% solute is placed in a solution that is 90% water and 10% solute. Which of the following is correct?

a)

it is hypertonic because water is exiting the cell.

b)

it is isotonic because the concentration is the same inside and outside the cell.

c)

it is hypotonic because water is entering the cell.

d)

it is hypertonic because water is entering the cell.

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