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Circular and Grav Review

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 5hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A pilot experiences centripetal acceleration of 2g's (2 x 9.8 m/s2) while maneuvering a loop at a speed of 400 m/s. What is the radius of the loop?

a)

203 m

b)

8163 m

c)

80,003 m

d)

23 m

2.
What is the SI unit for circumference?
a)
meter
b)
pi
c)
inches
d)
kilometer
3.
What happens to the centripetal force exerted on an object if you triple the velocity?
a)
it increases to 3X
b)
it decreases to 6X
c)
it increases to 6X
d)
it increases to 9X
4.

A satellite of mass m and speed v orbits the Earth at a distance r from the center of the Earth. The gravitational acceleration due to the Earth at the satellite is equal to.

a)

v/r

b)

v2/r

c)

mv/r

d)

mv2/r

5.
Calculate the velocity of an object moved around a circle with a radius of 1.65 m and an acceleration of 3.5 m/s2.
a)
2.4 m/s
b)
3.6 m/s
c)
3.9 m/s
d)
4.2 m/s
6.
Calculate the centripetal force required to make a 5 kg ball move 4 m/s in a circle with a radius of 2 m.
a)
10 N
b)
20 N
c)
30 N
d)
40  N
7.

Centripetal force is...

a)

the inward force acting on a body moving at constant speed in a circle

b)

the outwards force acting on a body moving at constant speed in a circle

8.
Centripetal acceleration acts towards the ___________ of the circular motion
a)
centre
b)
circumference
9.
A horse gallops around a circular arena.  The centripetal force on the horse is ___.
a)
directed outward
b)
tension
c)
directed toward the center of the arena
d)
9.8 N
10.

A ball is moving at constant speed around the circle. Which letter represents the acceleration of the ball?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

Nonsense. The ball can't be accelerating while moving at a constant speed.

11.
Which of the following depict the speed of the blowing ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
12.
Calculate the mass of an object if it took 20 N to rotate it in a circle with a radius of 2 meters with a velocity of 4 m/s
a)
4.1 kg
b)
3.6 kg
c)
2.5 kg
d)
1.8 kg
13.

Why do objects experience centripetal acceleration even though they can have a constant speed?

a)

Because they are speeding up as they move in a circle

b)

Because they are constantly changing direction and hence, velocity changes, and that net change is directed inward.

c)

Because they are constantly changing both speed and direction

d)

Because when you have 100 people pedaling, you can speed up more easily.

14.
A test car moves at a constant speed around a circular track.  If the car is 48.2 m from the track's center and has a centripetal acceleration of 8.05 m/s2, what is the car's tangential speed?
a)
19.7 m/s
b)
5.99 m/s
c)
0.17 m/s
d)
388.01 m/s
15.

The linear velocity is always _____ to the line of a circle.

a)

outwards

b)

towards the center

c)

tangent

d)

faster

16.
Centripetal acceleration always points
a)
in the direction of the object's motion
b)
in the opposite direction of the object's motion
c)
towards the center of the circle
d)
towards the outside of the circle
17.
Bruno the bat flies at a speed of 0.5 m/s in circle of radius 1 m. What is his acceleration?
a)
0.25 ms-2
b)
0.5 ms-2
c)
1 ms-2
d)
2 ms-2
18.
Period (T) is measured in cycles per second
a)
True
b)
False
19.
What is the force that causes centripetal acceleration when a car goes around a curve?
a)
Friction
b)
Gravity 
c)
Normal
d)
Tension
20.
At the top of a roller-coaster loop, gravity and the normal force point in opposite directions.
a)
True
b)
False
21.
Who created the Universal Law of Gravitation?
a)
Copernicus
b)
Newton
c)
Kepler
d)
Galileo
22.
Any object with mass is surrounded by a gravitational field.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Inconceivable
d)
Star Wars!
23.
The gravitational force between two bodies is proportional to the product of their masses, and inversely proportional to the cube of the distance between them
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Whatever
d)
Possibly...
24.
Friction acts in a direction_______ to the direction of an object's motion.
a)
unrelated
b)
equal
c)
opposite
d)
perpendicular
25.
If you went to the moon, would your weight change?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Maybe
26.
A particle P is moving in a circle with uniform speed. Which one of the following diagrams correctly shows the direction of the acceleration a and velocity v of the particle at one instant of time?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
27.
What is the unit of measurement for weight
a)
Grams (g)
b)
Newtons (N)
c)
Pounds (lbs)
d)
Kilograms (Kg)
28.
How are mass and weight different?
a)
Mass is the amount of matter in an object;Weight is the amount of gravitational force acting on the object
b)
Mass is the amount of gravitational force acting on an object;Weight is the amount of matter in an object
c)
Mass is a thing;Weight is a place
d)
Mass is an animal;weight is a human
29.
what happens to gravity as distance increases?
a)
there was never any gravity in space
b)
it in increases rapidly 
c)
It decreases rapidly 
d)
It does not change 
30.
does mass or weight change on an object in space 
a)
Only weight
b)
only height 
c)
None of the above 
d)
both of them
31.
What is the value of g on Earth?
a)
9.81 m/s^2
b)
9.81 N
c)
9.81 m
d)
9.81 s/m^2
32.
Two factors effecting the magnitude of the force of gravity between 2 objects are...
a)
mass and distance 
b)
mass and matter
c)
distance and weight 
d)
weight and mass
33.
As distance between two objects increase the pull of gravity 
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
34.
As the product of two objects' masses increases, the pull of gravity
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
35.
Double the distance between two objects
a)
4 times greater gravity attraction
b)
4 times weaker gravity attraction
c)
2 times weaker gravity
d)
2 times greater gravity
36.
Double the product of the masses of two objects
a)
4 times stronger gravity force
b)
4 times weaker gravity force
c)
2 times weaker gravity force
d)
2 times stronger gravity force
37.
If the force of gravity has been reduced by 1/4 which could be true?
a)
Mass was increased 4 times
b)
Mass was decreased 2 times
c)
Distance was increased 4 times
d)
Distance was doubled
38.
How can you explain that we have a stronger gravitational attraction with Earth than the Sun?
a)
The sun has a larger mass
b)
The sun has a smaller mass
c)
Closer to center of sun
d)
Closer to center of Earth
39.
If Earth's mass was cut in half, what would happen to your mass?
a)
increase because gravitational force increases
b)
decrease because gravitational force decreases
c)
decrease because gravitational force increases
d)
nothing, mass is not affected by gravitational force
40.
What would happen to your weight if Earth's mass was cut in half?
a)
increase because gravitational force increases
b)
decrease because gravitational force decreases
c)
decrease because gravitational force increases
d)
increase because gravitational force decreases
41.
The force of gravity on Jupiter is a little more than 2 times the gravitational force on Earth. If an object has a mass of 50 kg and a weight of 490 N on Earth, what would be the object's approximate mass and weight on Jupiter?
a)
50 kg and 490 N
b)
100 kg and 490 N
c)
50 kg and 980 N
d)
100 kg and 980 N
42.
Which of the following will not change in different gravitational fields?
a)
wieght
b)
force
c)
mass
d)
pounds
43.
A measure of the amount of matter in an object
a)
mass
b)
weight
c)
gravity
d)
pounds
44.
Planets orbit the Sun in a shape called a(n)
a)
circle
b)
ellipse
c)
focus
d)
perihelion
45.
An ellipse is drawn around two points called
a)
aphelion
b)
perihelion
c)
foci
d)
axis
46.
When a planet orbits the Sun, one of the foci of the elliptical orbit is 
a)
the axis
b)
the perihelion
c)
the center
d)
the Sun
47.
A planet moves fastest during its orbit around the Sun at the when 
a)
it is closest to the sun and gravity has a stronger pull
b)
it is farthest from the sun and gravity has a stronger pull
c)
it is closest to the sun and gravity has a weak pull
d)
it is farthest from the sun and gravity has a weak pull
48.
Where is the planet moving faster
a)
Position A to B
b)
Position B to C
c)
Position H to I
d)
Position I to J
49.
What is true about the area between points A, B and the Sun, and the area between points H, I and the Sun?
a)
The area between A, B and the Sun is the largest.
b)
The area between H, I and the Sun is the largest
c)
Both areas are equal in size
d)
There is not enough information to determine the areas
50.
The ratio of a planets average distance from the sun and its orbital period is
a)
very different for every planet
b)
about the same for each planet
c)
large when the planet is farther away
d)
not related 
51.
Kepler's 2nd Law deals with 
a)
the shape of the planets' orbits
b)
the speed/area the planet travels 
c)
the length of time it takes the planet to orbit the sun
52.
Kepler's first law states that the orbits of the planets are oval in shape or 
a)
ellipses
b)
perfect circles
53.
The planet with the shortest year is
a)
Earth
b)
Neptune
c)
Pluto
d)
Mercury
54.
On a merry-go-round a person standing further from the center will experience _______ .
a)
a greater tangential velocity
b)
a greater centripetal acceleration
c)
A greater centripetal acceleration and a greater tangential velocity
d)
tangential velocity and centripetal acceleration stay the same
55.
What is the direction of the velocity at point B, if the ball is revolving clockwise?
a)
up
b)
right
c)
down
d)
left
56.
What is the direction of the velocity at point A, if the ball is revolving clockwise?
a)
up
b)
right
c)
down
d)
left
57.
What is the direction of the acceleration at point A, if the ball is revolving clockwise?
a)
up
b)
right
c)
down
d)
left
58.
What is the direction of the acceleration at point B, if the ball is revolving clockwise?
a)
up
b)
right
c)
down
d)
left
59.
If the centripetal force is the only force acting on the ball and it disappears at point B, what direction would the ball travel, if the ball is revolving clockwise?
a)
45° down from right
b)
right
c)
down
d)
left
60.
Centrifugal force is a ______
a)
force that pushes you to the outside of a circle during uniform circular motion.
b)
fictitious force that is really just the linear momentum of an object in uniform circular motion.  
c)
The force that keeps the planets in orbit
61.
Would Henry Cavendish have calculated a different value for G if he would have used copper spheres instead of lead spheres in his experiment. 
a)
no
b)
yes
62.
Why do banked curves allow cars to make turns more easily?
a)
The normal force reduces the centripetal force needed to turn at that particular speed.
b)
The normal force reduces the amount of friction needed to match the required centripetal force.
c)
they provide a centrifugal force to balance the centripetal force
d)
they reduce the force of gravity which also decreases the required centripetal force
63.
Why do astronauts float in their space shuttles? 
a)
They are in a gravity-free environment.
b)
They are in free-fall
c)
The gravity from the sun cancels the gravity from the Earth
d)
The gravity from the moon cancels the gravity from the Earth
64.
Why don't satellites get closer to the Earth even though the Earth pulls on them?
a)
The pull from the sun cancels their movement
b)
The pull from the moon cancels their movement
c)
They are out of Earth's gravitational field
d)
They fall at the same rate that the Earth curves away from them
65.

Bentley the bat has a mass of 0.58 kg and flies at a speed of 0.8 m/s in circle of radius 0.5 m. What is his centripetal acceleration?

a)

0.25 m/s2

b)

1.3 m/s2

c)

1.6 m/s2

d)

0.74 m/s2

66.

Particle P is moving in a circle with uniform speed. Which one of the following diagrams correctly shows the direction of the acceleration and velocity of the particle at one instant of time?

a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
67.
What is the direction of the velocity at point B, if the ball is revolving clockwise?
a)
up
b)
right
c)
down
d)
left
68.
What is the direction of the acceleration at point A, if the ball is revolving clockwise?
a)
up
b)
right
c)
down
d)
left
69.
What is the direction of the acceleration at point B, if the ball is revolving clockwise?
a)
up
b)
right
c)
down
d)
left
70.
The velocity is always _____ to the line of a circle. 
a)
outwards
b)
towards the center
c)
tangent
d)
faster
71.
Which statement is true about an object that is traveling in uniform circular motion?
a)
The speed of the object varies.
b)
The net force on the object is directed toward the center of the circular path.
c)
The direction of the object's velocity is constant.
d)
The net force on the object is directed away from the center of the circular path.
72.
Centripetal acceleration always points
a)
in the direction of the object's motion
b)
in the opposite direction of the object's motion
c)
towards the center of the circle
d)
towards the outside of the circle
73.
What is the direction of the velocity at point A, if the ball is revolving clockwise?
a)
up
b)
right
c)
down
d)
left
74.

A race car completes three laps of a circular track with a radius of 35 m in 9.0 seconds. Determine the speed of the car.

a)

3.9 m/s

b)

73.3 m/s

c)

24.4 m/s

d)

1.0 m/s

75.

Centripetal force is an acceleration of an object moving in circular path whose direction is _________________________of the circular path and whose magnitude is equal to the square of the speed divided by the radius.

a)

towards the tangent

b)

towards the centre

c)

towards the minimum point

d)

towards the maximum point

76.

Where is the net force when the rollercoaster is at the top of the loop?

a)

Towards the sky

b)

Towards the Right

c)

Towards the left

d)

Towards the center of the circle

77.

In uniform circular motion, the magnitude of the _______________________of an object is constant but the __________ is continually changing.

a)

speed, acceleration

b)

speed, direction

c)

acceleration, speed

d)

acceleration, velocity

78.
The velocity is always _____ to the line of a circle. 
a)
outwards
b)
towards the center
c)
tangent
d)
faster
79.
Which statement is true about an object that is traveling in uniform circular motion?
a)
The speed of the object varies.
b)
The net force on the object is directed toward the center of the circular path.
c)
The direction of the object's velocity is constant.
d)
The net force on the object is directed away from the center of the circular path.
80.
Centripetal acceleration always points
a)
in the direction of the object's motion
b)
in the opposite direction of the object's motion
c)
towards the center of the circle
d)
towards the outside of the circle
81.

________________________ defined as the number of revolutions (cycles/rotations) completed in one second.

a)

frequency

b)

period

c)

distance

d)

centripetal acceleration

82.
Which of the following is the unit for centripetal force?
a)
J
b)
m/s2
c)
kg⋅m/s
d)
N
83.
The time taken for one complete circuit is called the... 
a)
Period
b)
Frequency 
c)
Angular velocity
84.
Which represents the acceleration of the ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
85.
Which of the following depict the speed of the blowing ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
86.

If an object is spinning around on a string and the string was suddenly cut, the object would move in a

a)

curved path

b)

straight line

87.

Why does an object experiencing uniform circular motion have an acceleration?

a)

because it ir changing speed

b)

because it is changing direction

c)

because it is moving n a straight line

d)

because it has mass

88.

The _______________________ supplies the centripetal force requirement for the car to move in a horizontal circle. Without it, the car would turn its wheels but would not move in a circle (as is the case on an icy surface).

a)

friction force

b)

centrifugal force

c)

normal force

d)

applied force

89.

In this diagram, what do the red arrows represent?

a)

the acceleration vector

b)

the velocity vector

c)

the centripetal force vector

d)

the force of gravity

90.
You swing a bucket of water attached to a string in a circle above your head. What keeps the water in the bucket?
a)
Friction
b)
Centripetal Force
c)
Gravity
d)
Inertia
91.
A particularly scary roller coaster contains a loop-the-loop in which the car and rider are completely upside down. If the radius of the loop is  13.2 m with what minimum speed must the car traverse the loop so that the rider does not fall out while upside down at the top? Assume the rider is not strapped to the car.
a)
11.4 m/s
b)
12.5 m/s
c)
10.1 m/s
d)
14.9 m/s
92.

When the car is at the top of the loop it just maintains contact with the tract. What is the car's acceleration at this point?

a)

g upwards

b)

0.5g upwards

c)

zero

d)

g downwards

93.

The car just maintains contact with the track at the top of the loop. What is it's velocity at this point?

a)

Rg

b)

g/R

c)

Zero

d)

√Rg

94.
A person is standing on a scale in an elevator accelerating downward. Compare the reading on the scale to the person's true weight.
a)
less than their true weight
b)
equal to their true weight
c)
greater than their true weight
d)
zero
95.

Consider the case of vertical circular motion when you are riding in a Ferris Wheel. What is the correct expression that relates all the forces when you are at the top of the circle?

a)

Fc = mg + Reaction

b)

Fc = mg - Reaction

c)

Fc = mg

d)

Fc = -Reaction - mg

96.

Which one is the right relationship when you are at the bottom of a Ferris Wheel ride?

a)

W = Fc

b)

Reaction = mg + Fc

c)

Fc = mg - Reaction

d)

mg = Reaction

97.
Which of the following force is zero whereby you do not feel any force coming from the seat?
a)
Normal reaction force
b)
Weight
c)
Centripetal Force
d)
Gravitational Force
98.

A fighter aeroplane flying in the sky dives with a speed of 100 ms-1 in a vertical circle of radius 200 m. Mass of the pilot sitting in it is 75 kg. What will be the value of force with which the pilot presses his seat when the aeroplane is at highest position (g = 10 ms-2)

a)

3000 N

b)

1500 N

c)

(75 × g)N

d)

300 N

99.

A motor cyclist loops a vertical circular loop of diameter 18 m. What should be his minimum speed at the highest point of the loop?

a)

9.4 m/s

b)

16 m/s

c)

21 m/s

d)

30 m/s

100.

A Ferris wheel has radius 5.0 m and makes one revolution every 8.0 s. A person who normally weighs 670 N is sitting on one of the benches attached at the rim of the wheel. What is the apparent weight (the normal force exerted on her by the bench) of the person as she passes through the highest point of her motion?

a)

460 N

b)

132 N

c)

763 N

d)

284 N

101.

Pulling out of a dive, the pilot of an airplane guides his plane into a vertical circle with a radius of 600 m. At the bottom of the dive, the speed of the airplane is 150 m/s. What is the apparent weight of the 70-kg pilot at that point?

a)

3300 N

b)

690 N

c)

2600 N

d)

490 N

102.

When describing gravitational field strength, we can use

a)

N/kg

b)

m/s2

c)

both

d)

neither

103.

When visualizing gravitational field strength, we know that it is stronger in some places because

a)

the gravitational field lines are longer

b)

the gravitational field lines are shorter

c)

the gravitational field lines are further apart

d)

the gravitational field lines are closer together

104.

True or false? Gravitational fields only act on places that have objects there

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Why would we experience less of a gravitational pull toward Earth when standing on a very tall mountain?

a)

We are further away from the center of the Earth

b)

Air is less dense at that altitude

c)

The gravitational field lines are closer together

d)

We have greater gravitational potential energy

106.

In which of these locations would we feel the weakest gravitational pull from Earth?

a)

In the mall

b)

In a space station orbiting Earth

c)

In a castle in the sky

d)

On a tall mountain

107.

If you are trying to get somewhere, can gravitational field lines "get in your way?"

a)

Yes

b)

No

108.

g = Gm/r2 describes the magnitude of a gravitational field. In which direction does the field act?

a)

away from the mass in the equation (push)

b)

toward the mass in the equation (pull)

c)

toward the 4th dimension

d)

toward the Earth

109.

Select all that apply. When on the surface of Earth, we only consider g = GM/r2 = 9.8 N/m. This is because

a)

the Earth is the only mass that is generating a gravitational field

b)

the Earth generates a gravitational field that is approximately 9.8 N/m

c)

every mass that we see generates a gravitational field, pulling us toward them, but are much smaller and negligible compared to the gravitational field of Earth

d)

Mars has a gravitational field strength of 0.375 N/m near its surface

110.

We experience gravitational fields due to

a)

masses around us

b)

charges around us

c)

colors around us

d)

heat around us

111.

 r3T2 = \frac{r^3}{T^2}\ =\  constant, is known as which law?

a)

Newton's law of gravitation

b)

Kepler's first law

c)

Kepler's second law

d)

Kepler's third law

112.

In Fields, The constant of proportionality, G, is called the

a)

gravitational field strength

b)

universal constant of gravitation

c)

Gibb's free energy

d)

acceleration due to gravity

113.

The gravitational force between two objects is (a)   proportional to the distance between them

114.

The units of G are

a)

N m2 kg2N\ m^{2\ }kg^2

b)

N m−2 kg−2N\ m^{-2\ }kg^{-2}

c)

N m2 kg−2N\ m^{2\ }kg^{-2}

d)

N m−2 kg2N\ m^{-2\ }kg^2

115.

Newton's Law of Gravitation assumes the masses are point masses. This means that the masses have zero (a)  

116.

The value of G is

a)

6.67x10−116.67x10^{-11}

b)

6.67x10116.67x10^{11}

c)

6.67x10−16.67x10^{-1}

d)

6.67x1016.67x10^1

117.

True or false:

 m s−2 = N kg−1m\ s^{-2}\ =\ N\ kg^{-1}  

a)

True

b)

False

118.

True or false:

You and the Earth exert an equal magnitude gravitational force on each other.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

The path which a small mass would follow towards a large mass is called the line of force or (a)  

120.

The symbol for gravitational field strength is

a)

GF

b)

gfs

c)

g

d)

G

121.

The unit for gravitational field strength is

a)

N s−2N\ s^{-2}

b)

N kg−1N\ kg^{-1}

c)

m s−2m\ s^{-2}

d)

N kgN\ kg

122.

What sort of field pattern is shown here?

A (a)   field.

123.

Which definition is correct?

a)

Gravitational potential energy is the energy of an object due to its position in a gravitational field.

b)

Gravitational potential energy is the energy of an object due to its position in a magnetic field.

c)

Gravitational potential energy is the energy of an object due to its position in a field.

d)

Gravitational potential energy is the acceleration of an object due to its position in a gravitational field.

124.

The gravitational potential energy is zero at

a)

just above the surface

b)

the surface

c)

infinity

d)

just before infinity

125.

The gravitational potential, V, at a point is the work done to move a small object from (a)   to that point

126.

Surfaces of constant potential are called

(a)  

127.

True or false:

 g = GMrg\ =\ \frac{GM}{r}  

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Which equation shows the gravitational potential, V?

a)

V = − G Mr2V\ =\ -\ \frac{G\ M}{r^2}

b)

V = − G MrV\ =\ -\ \frac{G\ M}{r}

c)

V = G Mr2V\ =\ \frac{G\ M}{r^2}

d)

V = G MrV\ =\ \ \frac{G\ M}{r}

129.

The radius of the Earth is 6400 km
The mass of the Earth is 6 x 102410^{24}  kg

G = 6.67 x  10−1110^{-11}  N  m2 kg−2m^2\ kg^{-2}  


Which is the correct approximation for the escape velocity of the Earth?

a)

12.0  km s−1km\ s^{-1}  

b)

11.5  km s−1km\ s^{-1}  

c)

11.2   km s−1km\ s^{-1}  

d)

10.8  km s−1km\ s^{-1}  

130.

What is the time period of a geostationary satellite?

a)

24 h

b)

12 h

c)

0 h

d)

6 h

131.

Suppose a body of large mass is close to a body of small mass. Which statement correctly describes the force due to gravity in this system?

a)

The small body alone experiences a force.

b)

Both bodies experience a force of equal magnitude.

c)

Each body experiences a different force in proportion to its mass.

d)

Each body experiences a different force in proportion to the square of its radius.

132.

What is meant by a quantity having an inverse-square relationship with distance?

a)

The quantity is proportional to the reciprocal of the square of a distance.

b)

The quantity is not proportional to the square of the distance.

c)

The quantity is proportional to the reciprocal of the square root of a distance.

d)

The square of the quantity is proportional to the reciprocal of a distance.

133.

 r3=GMT24π2r^3=\frac{GMT^2}{4\pi^2}  Using this equation it can be shown that a geostationary satellite orbits the earth at a radius of 42 000 km. Approximately how high in metres is the satellite above the Earth's surface?

a)

 3.6×107 m3.6\times10^7\ m  

b)

 4.2×107 m4.2\times10^7\ m  

c)

42000 m

d)

36000 m

134.

We generally think of satellites of small mass in orbit around bodies of much larger mass. In the case of two bodies of equal mass is it proper to treat one as being at the centre and the other as its satellite?

a)

The two bodies can be treated as each being in orbit around a point in space equidistant between them.

b)

The equal bodies collide rather than orbit each other, so the situation does not arise.

c)

It is possible for a heavenly body to have a moon equal to its own mass, but the separation would need to be 2r for the system to be stable.

d)

If a 'moon's' mass is too large, gravitational attraction will exceed the centripetal force needed to keep it in orbit, therefore the situation is unstable in the long term.

135.

Which of the following statements is true about the gravitational field around a body?

a)

A gravitational field only exists around the body if there is a test mass nearby to be attracted to it.

b)

A gravitational field exists around the body even if there is no test mass nearby but the field has no direction.

c)

A gravitational field exists around the body even if there is no test mass nearby and the field points inwards towards the body.

d)

The direction of the gravitational field around the body depends on the position of a test mass placed nearby.

136.

The energy involved in moving a 1 kg mass from infinity to the surface of a planet or star is -GM/r. Does this imply that to move a 1 kg mass from infinity to a black hole singularity of radius zero, would involve an infinite negative amount of energy?

a)

Theoretically, the equation does indeed predict that an infinite energy would be involved.

b)

Since an infinite amount of energy is obviously not possible, there must be an area over which this equation cannot apply.

c)

Black holes are a mathematical concept and do not describe bodies in the real world.

d)

Since the 1 kg mass would never come out again, the problem of explaining the disappearance of an infinite amount of energy disappears with it.

137.

The graph shows how the force of gravity on a 1 kg mass varies with the distance r from the centre of the Earth. What does the area beneath the curve of the graph represent?

a)

The work done to move a 1 kg mass from the surface of the Earth to infinity.

b)

The force required to move a 1 kg mass from the surface of the Earth to infinity.

c)

The work done to move a 1 kg mass from the centre of the Earth to infinity.

d)

The force required to move a 1 kg mass from the centre of the Earth to infinity.

138.

What are the units of the gravitational constant, G?

a)

 r3=GMT24π2r^3=\frac{GMT^2}{4\pi^2}  

b)

 N kg m−2N\ kg\ m^{-2} 

c)

 N m kg−2N\ m\ kg^{-2}  

d)

 N kg−2 m2N\ kg^{-2}\ m^2  

139.
The definition of gravitational field strength is:
a)
The region of space surrounding a body where other bodies will feel an attractive force due to it.
b)
The region of space surrounding a body where other bodies will feel an repulsive force due to it.
c)
The region of space surrounding a charge where other charges will feel an attractive force due to it.
d)
The region of space surrounding a charge where other charges will feel an repulsive force due to it.
140.
How far out from a mass should the gravitational field lines go....
a)
to where the gravitational field becomes negligable
b)
to twice the diameter of the mass
c)
infinitely far
d)
to four times the diameter of the mass
141.
In this equation...
a)
G is the gravitational field strength
b)
r is the distance between the 2 masses
c)
F is the repulsive gravitational force
d)
m is the momentum of the mass
142.
The gravitational field strength of Earth is...
a)
uniform far away from the surface and radial close to the surface
b)
uniform close to the surface and radial far away from the surface
143.
Gravitational potential at a point is....
a)
the work done in bringing a unit mass from infinity to the point
b)
the work done in bringing a unit mass from the point to infinity
c)
the work done in bringing a unit charge from infinity to the point
d)
the work done in bringing a unit mass from twice the radius of the mass to the point
144.
An object is moved from A to B in the gravitational field of Earth. The distance between the centre of Earth and B is twice that of A. If the gravitational potential energy of the object at A is –2.0 MJ, what is the gravitational potential energy of the object at B?
a)
zero
b)
-0.5MJ
c)
-1.0MJ
d)
-4.0MJ
145.

Region of space where a mass experiences an attractive force.

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Gravitational field

c)

Gravitational field strength

d)

Gravitational potential at a point

146.

Force exerted per unit mass acting on a small test mass place at that point.

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Gravitational field

c)

Gravitational field strength

d)

Gravitational potential at a point

147.

The work done per unit mass in bringing a small test mass from infinity to the point.

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Gravitational field

c)

Gravitational field strength

d)

Gravitational potential at a point

148.
Which of the following is Newton's Law on Gravitation?
a)
F=Gm1m2/r
b)
F = Gm1m2/r2
c)
F = Gm1m2/2r
d)
F = m1m2/2r
149.

How does the gravitational force the Earth exerts on the sun compare to the gravitational force the sun exerts on the Earth?

a)

The gravitational force the sun exerts on the Earth is larger

b)

The gravitational force the Earth exerts on the sun is larger

c)

Their gravitational forces are equal

d)

There is not enough information

150.

Find the force due to gravity if the mass of the object is 2300 kg and the mass of the other object is 4000 kg. The distance between the two objects is 0.150 m.

a)

4.09 x 10-3 N

b)

244 N

c)

2.7 x 10-2 N

d)

6.14 x 10-4 N

151.
If you double the mass of both m1 and m2, by what factor will the gravitational force change?
a)
F/4
b)
4F
c)
16F
d)
F/16
152.

Geosynchronous orbits take ______ to complete a full cycle.

a)

24 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

48 hours

d)

36 hours

153.

What is gravity?

a)

A type of energy that objects emit

b)

The natural tendency for things to move towards massive objects

c)

A force that repels objects away from each other

d)

The speed at which objects fall to the ground

154.

Which celestial body has the most powerful gravitational pull in our solar system?

a)

Mars

b)

Jupiter

c)

The Sun

d)

The Moon

155.

Does the Moon have its own gravity?

a)

No, gravity only exists on Earth

b)

Yes, but only during a full moon

c)

Yes, because it has mass

d)

No, because it orbits the Earth

156.

What determines the strength of an object's gravitational pull?

a)

Its distance from the Sun

b)

The color of the object

c)

The mass of the object

d)

Its temperature

157.

Can smaller objects have a gravitational pull?

a)

No, only planets and stars can have a gravitational pull

b)

Yes, but only if they are made of metal

c)

Yes, all objects with mass have some form of gravitational pull

d)

No, gravity is a property of the Earth's core only

158.

How does the gravitational force between two objects change if the distance between them is halved?

a)

It doubles

b)

It quadruples

c)

It halves

d)

It remains the same

159.

What would happen to the gravitational force between two objects if one of their masses doubled?

a)

The gravitational force would double

b)

The gravitational force would halve

c)

The gravitational force would remain unchanged

d)

The gravitational force would quadruple

160.

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of gravity?

a)

Orbits of planets around the Sun

b)

The tides in Earth's oceans

c)

The color of the sky

d)

The structure of galaxies

161.
In this equation...
a)
G is the gravitational field strength
b)
r is the distance between the 2 masses
c)
F is the repulsive gravitational force
d)
m is the momentum of the mass
162.
The definition of gravitational field strength is:
a)
The region of space surrounding a body where other bodies will feel an attractive force due to it.
b)
The region of space surrounding a body where other bodies will feel an repulsive force due to it.
c)
The region of space surrounding a charge where other charges will feel an attractive force due to it.
d)
The region of space surrounding a charge where other charges will feel an repulsive force due to it.
163.
The closer together the gravitational field lines.....
a)
the weaker the gravitational field strength
b)
the stronger the gravitational field strength
c)
the more repulsive the gravitational field strength
164.
Gravitational field strength is measured in:
a)
N
b)
J/kg
c)
m/s
d)
N/kg
165.
How far out from a mass should the gravitational field lines go....
a)
to where the gravitational field becomes negligable
b)
to twice the diameter of the mass
c)
infinitely far
d)
to four times the diameter of the mass
166.
The gravitational field strength of Earth is...
a)
uniform far away from the surface and radial close to the surface
b)
uniform close to the surface and radial far away from the surface
167.
A geostationary satellite orbits the Earth....
a)
once every 24 hours
b)
once every 10-11 hours
c)
once every week
d)
once every 4 weeks
168.
If an object is placed exactly halfway between Earth and the Moon, it would fall toward the
a)
Earth.
b)
Moon.
c)
neither of these
169.

Rate this statement: No force due to Earth's gravity acts on astronauts inside the orbiting space station.

a)

always true while in orbit, the astronaut is weightless

b)

sometimes true while in orbit, depending on the angular speed of the space station

c)

always false, centripetal force is needed

170.

What is the gravitational field strength at a point one Earth radius above the surface?

a)

g/2

b)

g

c)

g/4

d)

g/9

171.

What happens to the force of gravity between 2 objects if one mass is tripled?

a)

1/3F

b)

3F

c)

4F

d)

1/4F

172.

What happens to the force of gravity between 2 objects if both masses were tripled?

a)

18F

b)

6F

c)

1/9F

d)

9F

173.

What happens to the force of gravity between 2 objects if one mass is doubled?

a)

1/4F

b)

1/2F

c)

2F

d)

4F

174.

What happens to the force of gravity between 2 objects if the distance is cut in half?

a)

1/4F

b)

1/2F

c)

2F

d)

4F

175.

What happens to the force of gravity between 2 objects if the distance between them is doubled?

a)

1/4F

b)

1/2F

c)

2F

d)

4F

176.

What happens to the force of gravity between 2 objects if one mass is quadrupled and the other mass is tripled and the radius is divided by 3?

a)

12F

b)

54F

c)

207F

d)

108F

177.

Earth's mass is approximately 81 times the mass of the Moon. If Earth exerts a gravitational force of F on the Moon, the magnitude of the gravitational force of the Moon on the Earth is?

a)

F

b)

81/F

c)

9F

d)

81F

178.

What happens to the Force of Gravity if an object is 2 Earth radius above the surface?

a)

F

b)

1/3F

c)

1/9F

d)

3F

179.

Compute g for the surface of a planet whose radius is double that of Earth and whose mass is triple that of Earth.

g on earth's surface is

a)

1.64 m/s2

b)

7.36 m/s2

c)

9.81 m/s2

d)

14.7 m/s2

180.

In uniform fields, all points have ________ field strength.

a)

Zero

b)

Same

c)

Infinity

d)

Different

181.

A field that spreads outwards in all directions is __________

a)

Linear

b)

Radial

c)

Weak

d)

Strong

182.

A body weighs more at the poles than at the equator. True or false?

a)

True

b)

False

183.

Gravitational law is also called

a)

Universal law

b)

Newton’s law

c)

Constant law

d)

True law

184.

Force acting on two point masses is directly proportional to

a)

sum of masses

b)

difference of masses

c)

   distance between masses

d)

   product of masses

185.

On scale of building, gravitational field is

a)

  energy increasing

b)

  decreasing

c)

    uniform

d)

   varying

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