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Combined Science Trilogy Physics AQA Paper 1 Quiz

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the equation linking kinetic energy, mass, and velocity?

a)

Eₖ = 0.5mv²

b)

Eₖ = mv²

c)

Eₖ = 0.5m²v

d)

Eₖ = mv

2.

What are the units of energy?

a)

Joules

b)

Watts

c)

Newtons

d)

Kilograms

3.

What is the equation linking gravitational field strength, gravitational potential energy, and height?

a)

Eₚ = mgh

b)

Eₚ = mg/h

c)

Eₚ = mh/g

d)

Eₚ = gh/m

4.

What is the definition of power?

a)

Power is the rate of transfer of energy or the rate of doing work

b)

Power is the amount of energy stored

c)

Power is the force applied over a distance

d)

Power is the energy lost in a system

5.

What is the equation for calculating efficiency from energy?

a)

Efficiency = useful energy output/total energy input

b)

Efficiency = total energy input/useful energy output

c)

Efficiency = useful energy output × total energy input

d)

Efficiency = total energy input - useful energy output

6.

What is the type of energy transferred when a force moves through a distance?

a)

Mechanical transfer

b)

Electrical transfer

c)

Radiation transfer

d)

Chemical transfer

7.

What is radiation transfer?

a)

The energy transferred by electromagnetic radiation.

b)

The energy transferred by sound waves.

c)

The energy transferred by mechanical movement.

d)

The energy transferred by chemical reactions.

8.

Which of the following is an energy transfer pathway?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Chemical

c)

Nuclear

d)

Magnetic

9.

What type of energy is stored in objects that move?

a)

Kinetic

b)

Chemical

c)

Gravitational potential

d)

Elastic potential

10.

What is a gravitational potential store?

a)

Energy stored in objects raised up against the force of gravity.

b)

Energy stored in the movement of particles.

c)

Energy stored in an object which has been stretched or compressed.

d)

Energy stored in chemicals waiting to react.

11.

What is an elastic potential store?

a)

Energy stored in an object which has been stretched or compressed.

b)

Energy stored in objects raised up against the force of gravity.

c)

Energy stored in the movement of particles.

d)

Energy stored in chemicals waiting to react.

12.

What is the name of the process in which the nuclei of atoms fuse together?

a)

Fission

b)

Fusion

c)

Combustion

d)

Evaporation

13.

What is a nuclear energy store?

a)

Energy stored in magnets

b)

Energy stored in electric charges

c)

Energy stored in the nuclei of atoms that can fuse or split

d)

Energy stored in chemical bonds

14.

What are some disadvantages of fossil fuels?

a)

No carbon dioxide produced

b)

Expensive to build and decommission

c)

Can produce carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide, leading to global warming and acid rain

d)

Reliable and cheap

15.

What is the magnetic energy store?

a)

Energy stored in chemical bonds

b)

Energy stored in magnets that are attracting or repelling

c)

Energy stored in the nuclei of atoms

d)

Energy stored in electric charges

16.

What are some advantages of nuclear fuel?

a)

Produces carbon dioxide

b)

Reliable and no carbon dioxide produced

c)

Cheap and abundant

d)

Causes acid rain

17.

What are some advantages of biofuels?

a)

Carbon neutral, reliable

b)

Expensive to construct

c)

Blocks rivers

d)

Produces carbon dioxide

18.

What is a disadvantage of wind power?

a)

Produces carbon dioxide

b)

Unreliable, expensive to construct

c)

Doesn't damage ecosystems

d)

Reliable

19.

What is an advantage of hydroelectricity?

a)

No carbon dioxide produced

b)

May damage tidal ecosystem

c)

Unreliable during droughts

d)

Expensive to construct

20.

What is a disadvantage of geothermal energy?

a)

Doesn't damage ecosystems

b)

Fluids may contain greenhouse gases

c)

Reliable

d)

No carbon dioxide produced

21.

What is an advantage of tidal energy?

a)

No carbon dioxide produced

b)

Unreliable - tides vary

c)

May damage tidal ecosystem

d)

Expensive to construct

22.

What is one advantage of solar power?

a)

Produces carbon dioxide

b)

Unreliable at night

c)

No carbon dioxide produced

d)

Expensive to construct

23.

What is one disadvantage of solar power?

a)

Reliable at night

b)

No carbon dioxide produced

c)

Unreliable - no electricity produced at night

d)

Cheap to construct

24.

What term is used to describe energy becoming spread out or transferred to a "wasted" store?

a)

Insulation

b)

Lubrication

c)

Dissipation

d)

Conduction

25.

What term is used to describe a method for reducing unwanted energy transfers by reducing friction?

a)

Insulation

b)

Lubrication

c)

Dissipation

d)

Conduction

26.

What is a thermal insulator?

a)

A conductive material

b)

A non-conductive material which reduces thermal energy transfers

c)

A material that increases thermal energy transfers

d)

A material that conducts electricity

27.

What is the name for a method of reducing energy transfers by the use of non-conductive materials?

a)

Conduction

b)

Lubrication

c)

Insulation

d)

Dissipation

28.

What is the law of conservation of energy?

a)

Energy can be created and destroyed

b)

Energy can be transferred from one store to another

c)

Energy is only created, not transferred

d)

Energy is only destroyed, not transferred

29.

Define specific heat capacity.

a)

The energy needed to raise the temperature 1 kg of a material by 1°C

b)

The energy needed to raise the temperature 1 kg of a material by 10°C

c)

The energy needed to raise the temperature 10 kg of a material by 1°C

d)

The energy needed to raise the temperature 1 g of a material by 1°C

30.

State the rule for current in a series circuit.

a)

The current is the same at every point in the circuit and in every component.

b)

The current varies at different points in the circuit.

c)

The current is zero at the start of the circuit.

d)

The current doubles at each component.

31.

State the rule for potential difference in a series circuit.

a)

The total potential difference of the power supply is shared between components.

b)

The potential difference is the same across all components.

c)

The potential difference is zero across each component.

d)

The potential difference doubles across each component.

32.

State the rule for resistance in a series circuit.

a)

The more resistors, the greater the resistance. Rₜ=R₁+R₂

b)

The resistance decreases with more resistors.

c)

The resistance remains constant regardless of the number of resistors.

d)

The resistance is zero with more resistors.

33.

State the rule for current in a parallel circuit.

a)

The total current through the whole circuit is the sum of the currents through the separate components.

b)

The current is the same through each component.

c)

The current is zero through each component.

d)

The current decreases through each component.

34.

State the rule for potential difference in a parallel circuit.

a)

The potential difference across each branch in the circuit is the same.

b)

The potential difference varies across each branch.

c)

The potential difference is zero across each branch.

d)

The potential difference doubles across each branch.

35.

State the rule for resistance in a parallel circuit.

a)

Adding more resistors in parallel decreases resistance.

b)

Adding more resistors in parallel increases resistance.

c)

The resistance remains constant with more resistors.

d)

The resistance is zero with more resistors.

36.

What colour is the live wire in a three core cable?

a)

Brown

b)

Blue

c)

Green and yellow

d)

Red

37.

What colour is the neutral wire in a three core cable?

a)

Blue

b)

Brown

c)

Green and yellow

d)

Black

38.

What colour is the earth wire in a three core cable?

a)

Green and yellow

b)

Blue

c)

Brown

d)

White

39.

What is the role of the brown wire in a plug?

a)

Neutral

b)

Live

c)

Earth

d)

Ground

40.

What is the potential difference between the live wire and others in a plug?

a)

0V

b)

110V

c)

230V

d)

400V

41.

Which wire is a safety feature of appliances?

a)

Live

b)

Neutral

c)

Earth

d)

Positive

42.

What is the potential difference between the neutral wires and others in the plug?

a)

0V

b)

110V

c)

230V

d)

400V

43.

What is electric current?

a)

The flow of electric charge

b)

The flow of water

c)

The flow of air

d)

The flow of light

44.

What is resistance in an electric circuit?

a)

The flow of electric charge

b)

Caused by anything which opposes the flow of electric charge

c)

The speed of electric charge

d)

The direction of electric charge

45.

What is a series circuit?

a)

A circuit with only one route for charge to flow

b)

A circuit with multiple routes for charge to flow

c)

A circuit with no route for charge to flow

d)

A circuit with alternating routes for charge to flow

46.

State the equation which links current, potential difference, and resistance.

a)

V=IR

b)

P=IV

c)

Q=It

d)

E=mc2E=mc^2

47.

What is the equation that links current, power, and resistance?

a)

P=IV

b)

P=I²R

c)

P=V/R

d)

P=IR²

48.

Which equation links energy transferred, power, and time?

a)

E=QV

b)

E=Pt

c)

E=IR

d)

E=Vt

49.

What is the unit of charge flow?

a)

Amps (A)

b)

Volts (V)

c)

Coulomb (C)

d)

Ohms (Ω)

50.

What is the unit for potential difference?

a)

Amps (A)

b)

Volts (V)

c)

Watts (W)

d)

Ohms (Ω)

51.

Describe the I-V characteristic for a fixed resistor.

a)

Resistance decreases as p.d. increases

b)

Current and potential difference are directly proportional, resistance is constant

c)

Resistance is constant, current decreases with p.d.

d)

Current is constant, resistance increases with p.d.

52.

What happens to resistance in a filament lamp as potential difference increases?

a)

Resistance decreases

b)

Resistance remains constant

c)

Resistance increases

d)

Resistance fluctuates

53.

How does the I-V characteristic of a diode behave?

a)

Current flows in both directions with low resistance

b)

Current only flows in one direction with high resistance in the reverse

c)

Current is constant regardless of direction

d)

Current flows in one direction with low resistance in both directions

54.

What is the term for current that regularly changes direction?

a)

Direct current

b)

Alternating current

c)

Static current

d)

Pulsating current

55.

What is an example of alternating current?

a)

Batteries

b)

Mains electricity

c)

Solar panels

d)

Direct current

56.

What is the potential difference of mains electricity in the UK?

a)

110V

b)

230V

c)

50V

d)

400V

57.

What does a step up transformer do?

a)

Reduces p.d. to 230V

b)

Increases p.d.

c)

Converts AC to DC

d)

Reduces current

58.

What is the frequency of the alternating current in UK mains electricity?

a)

60Hz

b)

100Hz

c)

50Hz

d)

25Hz

59.

Name the change of state when a liquid becomes a gas.

a)

Freezing

b)

Melting

c)

Evaporation

d)

Condensation

60.

State the equation which links density, mass, and volume.

a)

ρ=m/v

b)

ρ=v/m

c)

ρ=m*v

d)

ρ=v*m

61.

Name the change of state when a solid becomes a gas without passing through the liquid form.

a)

Freezing

b)

Sublimation

c)

Condensation

d)

Melting

62.

Changes of state are caused by the amount of what a substance has?

a)

Mass

b)

Volume

c)

Energy

d)

Density

63.

A change which creates new products and cannot be reversed is known as a __________ change.

a)

temporary

b)

reversible

c)

physical

d)

permanent

e)

chemical

64.

The energy stored inside a system by the particles which make it up is known as __________ energy.

a)

kinetic

b)

potential

c)

internal

d)

thermal

65.

Energy stored within moving objects is __________ energy.

a)

potential

b)

kinetic

c)

thermal

d)

chemical

66.

The energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a material by 1°C is the __________.

a)

latent heat

b)

specific heat capacity

c)

thermal energy

d)

kinetic energy

67.

The average kinetic energy of particles is known as the __________.

a)

pressure

b)

temperature

c)

volume

d)

density

68.

The amount of energy required to change the state of one kilogram of a substance with no change in temperature is the __________.

a)

specific heat capacity

b)

latent heat of fusion

c)

specific latent heat

d)

thermal energy

69.

Increasing temperature __________ pressure in a gas if volume is constant.

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

stabilizes

d)

eliminates

70.

The force exerted by gas on a surface as the particles collide with it is known as __________.

a)

gas pressure

b)

volume

c)

density

d)

temperature

71.

State the units of density.

a)

kg/m

b)

kg/m²

c)

kg/m³

d)

kg/L

72.

State the units of volume.

a)

m

b)

c)

d)

L

73.

Why doesn't temperature increase during melting?

a)

Energy is being used to weaken forces between particles

b)

Particles gain more kinetic energy

c)

Particles are arranged regularly

d)

Energy is being used to increase mass

74.

What is the arrangement of particles in a solid?

a)

Randomly arranged

b)

Arranged regularly

c)

Arranged in a gas

d)

Arranged in a liquid

75.

Define an atom.

a)

The smallest part of an element that can exist

b)

A large molecule

c)

A type of chemical bond

d)

A mixture of elements

76.

What is the overall charge on an atom?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Zero/neutral

d)

Variable

77.

Define isotope.

a)

An atom of the same element with different numbers of neutrons

b)

A molecule with different elements

c)

A type of chemical reaction

d)

A charged particle

78.

What are the units of activity in radioactive decay?

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Watts (W)

c)

Becquerels (Bq)

d)

Meters (m)

79.

What is the definition of count rate?

a)

The time taken for radioactive nuclei to halve

b)

The number of decays recorded each second by a Geiger-Muller tube

c)

The unwanted presence of materials containing radioactive atoms

d)

The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom

80.

What does half-life refer to in radioactive materials?

a)

The number of protons in an atom

b)

The time taken for the number of radioactive nuclei in a sample to halve

c)

The process of removing electrons from atoms

d)

The checking of scientific results by other experts

81.

What is contamination in the context of radioactivity?

a)

The exposure of an object to radiation

b)

The unwanted presence of materials containing radioactive atoms

c)

The number of protons and neutrons in an atom

d)

The number of decays recorded each second

82.

What happens when an object is irradiated?

a)

It becomes radioactive itself

b)

It is exposed to radiation

c)

It undergoes ionisation

d)

It changes its mass number

83.

What is ionisation?

a)

The process of removing electrons from atoms to form ions

b)

The checking of scientific results by other experts

c)

The time taken for radioactive nuclei to halve

d)

The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom

84.

What can ionisation in DNA cause?

a)

Increase in atomic number

b)

Mutations and cancer

c)

Decrease in mass number

d)

Exposure to radiation

85.

What is the purpose of peer review in scientific research?

a)

To expose objects to radiation

b)

To check scientific results by other scientific experts

c)

To measure the number of decays per second

d)

To halve the number of radioactive nuclei

86.

What does mass number represent in an atom?

a)

The number of protons in an atom

b)

The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom

c)

The number of electrons in a neutral atom

d)

The energy levels of electrons

87.

What is the atomic number of an atom?

a)

The number of protons in an atom

b)

The total number of protons and neutrons

c)

The number of decays recorded each second

d)

The time taken for radioactive nuclei to halve

88.

Where are electrons located in an atom?

a)

In the nucleus

b)

In energy levels

c)

In the mass number

d)

In the atomic number

89.

Who came up with the Plum Pudding model of the atom?

a)

Ernest Rutherford

b)

J J Thompson

c)

Niels Bohr

d)

John Dalton

90.

What did Rutherford's experiment reveal about the structure of the atom?

a)

Atoms are indivisible

b)

Atoms have a central area of positive charge with electrons surrounding it

c)

Atoms are made of a ball of positive charge with embedded electrons

d)

Atoms are composed of only neutrons

91.

What is the charge of a proton?

a)

-1

b)

0

c)

+1

d)

+2

92.

Which particles are located in the atom's nucleus?

a)

Electrons and protons

b)

Neutrons and electrons

c)

Protons and neutrons

d)

Electrons only

93.

What is an alpha particle composed of?

a)

Two protons and two neutrons

b)

Two electrons and two protons

c)

Two neutrons and two electrons

d)

Two protons and two electrons

94.

What is the range of alpha radiation in air?

a)

Short - 5 cm in air

b)

Medium - about 1 m

c)

Unlimited in air

d)

About 5 mm aluminium

95.

What will absorb (stop) beta radiation?

a)

Paper/skin

b)

About 5 mm aluminium

c)

Several centimetres of lead

d)

Unlimited in air

96.

What is the ionising power of gamma radiation?

a)

Very high

b)

Medium

c)

Low

d)

Unlimited

97.

How does alpha decay alter the atomic number of the parent nucleus?

a)

Increases by 1

b)

Decreases by 2

c)

Stays the same

d)

Decreases by 4

98.

How does beta decay alter the mass number of the parent nucleus?

a)

Decreases by 4

b)

Increases by 1

c)

Stays the same

d)

Decreases by 2