WorksheetsTest 1
Total questions: 108
Worksheet time: 54mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1.The power supply to a residential gas furnace is:
a)
A) 120/1/60
b)
B) 120/2/60
c)
C) 240/1/60
d)
D) 240/2/60
2.
2. As gauge number of a conductor increases, its current carrying capacity:
a)
A) increases
b)
B) decreases
c)
C) remains the same
d)
D) varies directly
3.
3. As more circuits are added to a panel, the total current drawn from the panel:
a)
A) increases
b)
B) decreases
c)
C) remains the same
d)
D) varies directly
4.
4. A hard, sharp pilot flame indicates:
a)
A) the orifice is too small
b)
there is a lack of air
c)
there is excessive draft at the pilot location
d)
D) high gas pressure
5.
5. Direct current travels:
a)
A) only from the load directly to the source
b)
in one direction only
c)
C) only from the source directly to the load
d)
D) across the load only
6.
6. A receptacle-mounted ground fault interrupter protects against:
a)
A) appliance overload
b)
B) dead shorts
c)
short circuits
d)
current flow to ground
7.
7. On an electrical schematic, the system is shown with the:
a)
A) disconnect closed with all devices as though the heating is on
b)
disconnect closed with all devices as though there is a call for heating but the heating has not yet come on
c)
disconnect open with all devices as though there is a call for heating
d)
disconnect open with all devices as though there is no call for heating
8.
30. What are the main components of a gas-fired refrigerator?
a)
generator, evaporator, radiator, absorber
b)
B) generator, evaporator, capacitor, absorber
c)
C) generator, evaporator, compressor, absorber
d)
D) generator, evaporator, absorber, condenser
9.
31. Is it permissible to use the propane side of a refrigerator in a recreation vehicle while the vehicle is in motion?
a)
A) no
b)
no, unless the vehicle is only being moved to a more level location
c)
C) yes
d)
yes, if the vehicle is being moved 1 mile or less
10.
32. How can the location of a leak in a heat exchanger be determined?
a)
A) by using a flue gas analyzer and visual examination
b)
by using a carbon monoxide detector and visual examination
c)
by using a smoke generator and visual examination
d)
all of the available choices
11.
33. Why does the recommended range of CO2 in a conventional furnace differ from the ultimate amount of CO2 of 11,9%?
a)
A) to provide a safety margin
b)
to provide a higher efficiency
c)
to maintain a neutral pressure point at the door catch
d)
D) to maintain a low stack temperature
12.
34. Net stack temperature is the flue gas temperature:
a)
downstream of the draft hood
b)
upstream of the draft hood
c)
C) plus the ambient temperature
d)
D) minus the ambient temperature
13.
35. A forced draft burner has a blower that produces sufficient pressure to overcome the resistance of the:
a)
A) burner
b)
burner and the appliance
c)
burner and the appliance downdraft
d)
D) minus the ambient temperature
14.
36. When the installation of an appliance constitutes a convention from another form of energy to gas, the installer must:
a)
advise the user in writing the procedure to follow the discontinue the supply of the former form of energy
b)
remove all aspects of the previous installation
c)
remove the electrical supply wiring from the panel
d)
advise the previous energy supplier or the change
15.
58. The flow rate of water passing though a heating coil of an air handler is controlled by the:
a)
A) aquastat on the water heater
b)
B) balancing valve on the heating loop
c)
mixing valve on the heating loop
d)
D) mixing valve on the domestic hot water system
16.
59. What will cause the E.C.0 to open?
a)
A) a defective thermostat
b)
long draws of water
c)
a dip tube which is too short
d)
D) too low a thermostat setting
17.
60. When can combination-heating systems employing a water heater be attached to baseboards or radiators that were previously used for boiler heating?
a)
A) always
b)
B) never
c)
C) only after being cleaned with muriatic acid
d)
D) only after having been descaled
18.
61. What type of water heater can be installed in a bathroom?
a)
A) direct vent
b)
B) power vent
c)
C) fan assisted
d)
D) revertible flue
19.
The open circuit is the:
a)
A) gas valve coil
b)
B) thermostat
c)
C) limit
d)
D) transformer
20.
80. A room heater installed in either a sleeping area or public area shall be:
a)
A) direct vent only
b)
B) equipped with a regulator
c)
equipped with a fan
d)
equipped with an on / off switch on the wall
21.
81. What type of vent must be used when the vent of a wall furnace will be concealed in a partition wall?
a)
A) B vent
b)
L vent
c)
C) BH vent
d)
D) BW vent
22.
82. Single wall vent connectors:
a)
A) may pass through floors, ceilings or roofs provided a metal thimble is used
b)
B) may pass through floors, ceilings or roofs provided the required minimum distance from combustible material is maintained
c)
C) may pass through floors, ceilings or roofs provided they are insulated
d)
shall not pass through floors, ceilings or roofs
23.
83. BW vent shall be used only with an approved:
a)
A) decorative appliance
b)
B) down flow furnace
c)
C) revertible flue boiler
d)
D) recessed wall furnace
24.
84. An appliance vent shall terminate from any building mechanical air inlet by at least:
a)
A) 1 foot (300mm)
b)
B) 3 feet (900nun)
c)
C) 6 feet (1800mm)
d)
D) 10 feet (3m)
25.
85. What material must be used for the vent connector on an appliance without flue gas dilution air?
a)
A) 22 B & SG (0.64rnm) aluminum
b)
B) 24 GSG (0.60mm) galvanized steel
c)
C) 26 GSG (0.47nun) galvanized steel
d)
D) 28 GSG (0.38mm) galvanized steel
26.
86. Which of the following statements is correct?
a)
A) a draft hood will eliminate back drafts coming down the chimney
b)
a draft hood will prevent a negative pressure inside the building
c)
a draft hood will prevent a down draft from entering the appliance
d)
D) a draft hood will prevent flue gases from entering the building
27.
87. The function of a fixed draft hood is to ensure:
a)
negative over fire draft
b)
positive over fire draft
c)
C) zero (neutral) over fire draft
d)
D) variable over fire draft condition
28.
109. Which device can be used to determine the restrictions in a duct system?
a)
A) hydrometer
b)
B) potentiometer
c)
C) barometer
d)
D) manometer
29.
110. If the belt on a blower is too tight, the motor:
a)
A) voltage will decrease
b)
B) voltage will increase
c)
C) current will decrease
d)
D) current will increase
30.
111. If the fan compartment door of an appliance is left off, the motor:
a)
A) voltage will decrease
b)
B) voltage will increase
c)
C) current will decrease
d)
D) current will increase
31.
112. Where is the lowest air pressure in a forced warm air heating system?
a)
A) in all ductwork
b)
upstream of the blower
c)
downstream of the blower
d)
D) at the supply registers
32.
113. Conversion is:
a)
A) heat transfer through solid objects
b)
heat transfer through fluids
c)
a wave from of heat transfer
d)
a form of latent heat transfer
33.
114. Increasing the size of a blower pulley:
a)
A) increase air flow
b)
decrease air flow
c)
increases current flow
d)
D) decreases temperature rise
34.
115. In domestic air conditioning appliances, what is the minimum volume of supply air (cfm) per ton of cooling required?
a)
250.0
b)
300.0
c)
400.0
d)
500.0
35.
116. In domestic heat pump applications, what is the minimum volume of supply air (cfm) per ton of cooling required?
a)
250.0
b)
300.0
c)
400.0
d)
500.0
36.
140. On a gas regulator, what controls the increase or decrease of gas flow to the appliance?
a)
A) restricting element
b)
B) vent hold
c)
C) loading element
d)
D) measuring element
37.
141. When sizing capacitors in series, what would be the total capacitance (CT) using 12 uF and 15 uF capacitors?
a)
A) 5.66 CT
b)
B) 6.35 CT
c)
C) 6.97 CT
d)
D) 6.66 CT
38.
142. What would be the Btuh output of a 10 kW heater
a)
A) 38,210 btu/h
b)
B) 35,220 btuth
c)
C) 33,150 btu/h
d)
D) 34,120 btufh
39.
143. Clocking a 5 ft dial on a gas meter for 63 seconds, what would be the appliance input?
a)
A) 258 MBtu/h
b)
B) 286 MBtu/h
c)
C) 268 MBtu/h
d)
D) 284 MBtu/h
40.
144. What does a gas pressure regulator control?
a)
A) inlet pressure
b)
B) gas flow
c)
C) downstream pressure
d)
D) locks out gas flow
41.
145.A first stage or high-pressure regulator reduces tank pressure to....?
a)
A) 350 psig to 10 psig
b)
B) 375 psig to 5 psig
c)
C) 250 psig to 10 psig
d)
D) 375 psig to 10 psig
42.
146. On a regulator, what senses outlet pressure?
a)
A) restricting element
b)
B) measuring element
c)
C) loading element
d)
D) spring element
43.
147. Which gas meter would be used for a small or mid size commercial installation?
a)
A) rotary type
b)
B) tubing type
c)
C) bellows type
d)
D) orifice
44.
172. What is the total diameter of a 4L-28 "V" drive belt?
a)
A) 280 in
b)
B) 35 in
c)
C) 28 in
d)
D) 2.80 in
45.
173. What is the spark gap required for a spark ignitor?
a)
1/4 to 3/8 in
b)
B) 3/8 to 1/2 in
c)
1/16 to 3/16 in
d)
D) 1/8 to 3/16 in
46.
174. On a direct spark ignition control, what is the trial for ignition?
a)
A) 10 seconds
b)
B) 0.8 seconds
c)
C) 4 seconds
d)
D) 2 seconds
47.
175. A pilotstat will de-energize how many seconds?
a)
A) 0.8 seconds
b)
B) 10 seconds
c)
C) 90 seconds
d)
D) 4 seconds
48.
176. What does a heat anticipator do?
a)
shuts the burner down if loss of gas supply
b)
determines the length of the burner "on" cycle
c)
C) acts as a back up safety limit
d)
D) shuts down burner on excess flow
49.
177. Can NMD wire be installed to an outside gas lamp?
a)
A) yes
b)
B) no
c)
only if the lamp is direct spark
d)
yes if it is 14 AWG wire
50.
178. How many cubic feet of vapour will one pound of liquid propane (C3,H8) expand to?
a)
A) 5.1 cubic ft
b)
B) 8.0 cubic ft
c)
C) 7.5 cubic ft
d)
D) 8.5 cubic ft
51.
179. What does a spiral baffle do?
a)
A) remove flue gas
b)
B) speed up combustion
c)
C) slow flue gas
d)
D) raises flue temperature
52.
204. What would be the BTU gas input of a 25 Hp steam boiler?
a)
A) 34,000 cfh
b)
B) 850 cfh
c)
C) 540 cfh
d)
D) 140 cfh
53.
205. What would be the approximate oil nozzle size?
a)
A) 6.8 gph
b)
B) 5.8 gph
c)
C) 5 gph
d)
D) 6 gph
54.
206. A condensing warm air furnace has?
a)
operates without a heat exchanger
b)
one heat exchanger
c)
C) three heat exchangers
d)
D) two heat exchangers
55.
207. What is the maximum high limit setting for a gravity furnace?
a)
150 degrees fahrenheit
b)
B) 200 degrees fahrenheit
c)
C) 250 degrees fahrenheit
d)
D) 350 degrees fahrenheit
56.
208. How far should a vent terminate from a window if the appliance-firing rate is 65 MBtu/h?
a)
A) 6 in
b)
B) 10 in
c)
C) 12 in
d)
D) 36 in
57.
209. An appliance should not exceed the rated input less than?
a)
A) 80%
b)
B) 75%
c)
C) 25%
d)
D) 90%
58.
210. Should a high-pressure leak test be performed if a section of more than 20 feet is added to an existing gas piping system?
a)
A) yes
b)
B) no
c)
soap test only
d)
D) dial and soap test
59.
211. What is the closing force of a 2' gas regulator?
a)
spring tension
b)
B) operating pressure
c)
C) downstream pressure
d)
D) leak limit orifice
60.
235. Clamp-on ammeters are connected:
a)
A) in series with the device being checked
b)
in parallel with the device being checked
c)
with the system power off
d)
D) in series with the loads only
61.
236. A 240-volt power supply for a residential electrical circuit is taken from the:
a)
line side of one branch circuit breaker and the line side of the second breaker
b)
load side of the one main circuit breaker and the load side of the second circuit main breaker
c)
load side of one branch circuit breaker and the line side of the second main circuit breaker
d)
line side of one main circuit breaker and the line side of the second main circuit breaker
62.
237. The open circuit test reading of a thermocouple should be in the range of:
a)
A) 2 to 10 mV
b)
B) 25 to 30 mV
c)
C) 250 to 750 mV
d)
D) 800 to 950 mV
63.
238. A temperature control with a narrow differential will cause a very:
a)
A) close temperature control and long "on" cycles
b)
wide range of temperature control and short "on" cycles
c)
C) close temperature control and short and long "on" cycles
d)
wide range of temperature control and long "on" cycles
64.
239. Thermostat heat anticipators are normally connected:
a)
in series with the valve, and in parallel with the thermostat contacts
b)
in parallel with the valve and in parallel with the thermostat contacts
c)
in series with the valve and in series with the thermostat contacts
d)
D) in parallel with the valve, and in series with the thermostat contacts
65.
240. If the heat anticipator of a thermostat is set low, what probable condition would exist when the heating unit is in operation:
a)
burn out of the coil in the automatic safety shut off
b)
bum out the heat anticipator
c)
short cycling of the main burner
d)
none of the available choices
66.
241, A poorly insulated building could result in:
a)
A) insufficient building air supply
b)
excessive moisture in the building
c)
C) increased fuel consumption
d)
D) decreased the fuel cost
67.
242. Increasing the amount of attic ventilation in a building will:
a)
A) lower the relative humidity in the building
b)
lower the indoor dry bulb temperature
c)
lower the indoor wet bulb temperature
d)
lower the amount of ventilation air required for the building
68.
267. How often should a gas-fired refrigerator be cleaned?
a)
A) once it is not working properly
b)
B) one every two years
c)
C) once every three years
d)
D) twice a year
69.
268. Use caution not to enlarge the when cleaning and maintaining the gas fired refrigerator.
a)
A) condenser
b)
B) evaporator
c)
C) metering device
d)
D) gas orifice
70.
269. Always check the level of refrigerator in the flue products whenever service or repair is performed on a gas-fired
a)
A) carbon dioxide
b)
carbon monoxide
c)
C) ammonia
d)
D) methane
71.
270. A refrigerant leak on a gas-fired refrigerator is usually indicated by?
a)
A) a green liquid substance
b)
a yellow liquid substance
c)
a black liquid substance
d)
D) a blue liquid substance
72.
271. A category I appliance is a:
a)
A) operates at positive with no flue loss
b)
non-condensing appliance with a non-positive vent static with a flue loss of not less than 17%
c)
condensing appliance which operates with a positive vent static pressure with a flue loss less than 17%
d)
none of the above
73.
272. Air for combustion of natural gas for every 1,000 Btu produced is:
a)
A) 10 cubic ft
b)
B) 100 cubic ft
c)
C) 30 cubic ft
d)
none of the above
74.
273. In the above question, there are additional requirements of excess for dilution and this amount is:
a)
A) 20 cubic ft
b)
B) 30 cubic ft
c)
C) 50 cubic ft
d)
none of the above
75.
298. Which of the following statements is correct:
a)
a single wall vent connector is allowed to pass through the first floor of a residence providing it has proper clearance and is connected to a Class A chimney
b)
a single wall vent connector can never be used in an unheated space
c)
you can use a power exhauster in place of natural draft venting in a residential home if you also install an air proving switch
d)
a certified contractor is allowed to install external electrically operated vent damper, with an air-proving switch in the vent of a residential appliance. The damper may be purchased separately from the appliance but it must be approved.
76.
299. When using a liner inside a chimney:
a)
it must not extend the full height of the chimney
b)
it must extend from inside the space where the appliance is located to the top of the chimney
c)
it must cover only the problem area of the chimney
d)
it must line the outside part of the chimney
77.
300. The standard rule for sizing either a vent or a chimney, which will vent more than one appliance is:
a)
the area of the common vent shall equal the total area of all flue collars
b)
the area of the common vent shall equal the area of the largest single flue collar
c)
the area of the common vent is to equal the area of the largest draft control device outlet or the largest flue outlet plus 50% the area of the sum of the outlet areas of the additional appliances
d)
the area of the conunon vent is to equal the area of the largest flue collar plus 75% the area of the flue collars of the additional appliances
78.
301.A reverse return hydronic-heating system:
a)
returns the closest heating units water to the supply last
b)
returns the closest heating units water to the supply first
c)
returns the furthest heating units water to the supply last
d)
D) balances the reverse return water back to the source
79.
302. Which of the following statements is correct:
a)
A) a draft diverter will eliminate back draft from coming down the chimney
b)
a draft diverter provides a negative over fire draft condition over the fire
c)
a large amount of warm air is allowed to escape up the chimney even when the appliance it not operating due to the draft diverter
d)
D) a draft diverter will not stop a severe down draft from extinguishing the main burner fire
80.
303. If ABS or PVC pipe is used to vent a high efficiency furnace it is joined by:
a)
A) 3 sheet metal screws in each point
b)
duct tape on each joint
c)
duct tape on each joint
d)
D) just pressure fitted to facilitate removal
81.
304. Which of the following is correct?
a)
the vent terminal of a direct vent appliance shall terminate not less than 6' from a burner opening
b)
unless otherwise stated, the clearance from the side of a range to combustible is 3"
c)
outdoor swimming pool heaters may be install under a deck
d)
D) a sleeve must be used where a vent connector enters a chimney
82.
326. How is the heat anticipator setting on a thermostat with an adjustable anticipator determined:
a)
A) according to the temperature
b)
B) according to the gas valve circuit amperage
c)
C) according to the high limit setting
d)
D) according to the V.A. rating on the transformer
83.
327.A furnace is found to be cycling on the high limit. The fan rotation, belt and filter are found to be O.K. What is the most likely problem, if the clocked input is according to the rating plate?
a)
thermostat heat anticipator is set too high
b)
B) return air volume too high
c)
thermostat heat anticipator is set too low
d)
D) return air volume too low
84.
354. A redundant gas valve utilizes two valves to ensure:
a)
accurate high and low heat cycles
b)
regulation of gas pressure input
c)
C) positive shut off
d)
D) input ratings
85.
355. What must be done during the installation of a gas log fireplace?
a)
make sure there is a metal mesh screen in front of the fireplace
b)
secure the chimney damper in the open position
c)
install a pressure regulator
d)
D) install a metal chimney liner
86.
356. Which of the following is acceptable when a fireplace insert is installed?
a)
A) BW vent
b)
B) tile lined chimney liner
c)
C) a metal chimney liner
d)
D) the existing chimney flue
87.
357. When can a certified hose be used to connect a construction heater to temporary piping?
a)
only if a level handle shut off valve is installed upstream of the hose
b)
only if the hose is 15 feet long
c)
C) never
d)
D) always
88.
358. The vent of a direct vent appliance shall not terminate?
a)
within 6 feet of a mechanical air supply inlet to a building
b)
within 3 feet of a mechanical air supply inlet to a building
c)
within 2 feet of a property line
d)
D) less than 3 feet from a gas service regulator
89.
359. When a Type B vent passes through a roof it must be?
a)
A) approved and marked for outdoor use
b)
above the highest point of the roof by 3 feet
c)
C) used with an unventilated thimble
d)
seamed together prior to exiting the attic
90.
360. An electronic air cleaner is not properly working when:
a)
A) it makes a snappy noise on occasion
b)
indicator light is off when the fan is on
c)
indicator light is on when the fan is on
d)
D) test button does not illuminate
91.
361. When venting through a corrugated chimney liner, what is the reduction percentage from the maximum capacity
a)
0.2
b)
0.15
c)
0.1
d)
0.3
92.
385. Above ground piping of which size and larger must be welded?
a)
A) 1-1/4 inch
b)
B) 1-1/3 inch
c)
C) 2 inch
d)
D) 2-1/2 inch
93.
386. The key components of a building system are:
a)
A) the building envelope and occupants
b)
B) the building envelope, the mechanical systems, occupants and the internal environment
c)
C) the building envelope, external environment the mechanical systems and occupants
d)
D) the building envelope, the mechanical systems, external environment and building structure
94.
387. As the number of occupants in a tightly constructed building increases, the:
a)
A) relative humidity increases
b)
B) carbon monoxide levels increase
c)
C) relative humidity decreases
d)
D) carbon monoxide levels decrease
95.
388. The main reasons for excess moisture in a building are:
a)
new construction materials, open sump pits and poor air barriers
b)
new construction materials, open sump pits and occupant usage
c)
new construction materials, open sump pits and products of combustion
d)
D) new construction materials, open sump pits and combustion air
96.
389. When air is heated, its relative humidity:
a)
A) increases
b)
B) decreases
c)
C) remains constant
d)
D) increases to a point then decreases
97.
390. Air bathers:
a)
prevent moisture travel through the walls of buildings
b)
reduce air leakage into the building
c)
maintain the relative humidity of a building
d)
D) should be as flexible as possible
98.
391. Building code states that master bedrooms must have a minimum ventilation air supply of:
a)
A) 10 cfm
b)
B) 20 cfm
c)
C) 30 cfrn
d)
D) 40 cfm
99.
392. Which of the following best describes a bellows type meter?
a)
A) one which uses a spinning turbine to drive index needles
b)
B) one which uses a pressure differential across an opening to indicate flow rate
c)
C) one which uses the volume displaced through chambers divided by flexible material to drive dials
d)
one which is normally installed on loads over 2 million cfh
100.
415. The person responsible for sizing the burner for a retrofit furnace is the:
a)
A) supervisor
b)
B) installer
c)
C) salesman
d)
D) fuel supplier
101.
416. The maximum gas pressure allowed in a recreation vehicle or mobile home is:
a)
A) 11 in w.c.
b)
B) 1 psig
c)
C) 13 in w.c.
d)
D) 20 psig
102.
417. When a baffle is required to prevent direct entry of rain into an air supply opening, by how much can the battle reduce the required free air of the opening?
a)
A) 0%
b)
B) 1%
c)
C) 3%
d)
D) 5%
103.
418. What effect could negative pressure inside a building have on the venting of an appliance?
a)
A) it may cause a downdraft condition at the appliances
b)
it will have no effect on the appliances
c)
it may cause and updraft condition at the appliances
d)
it may increase the flue gas temperature of the appliance
104.
419. A second stage regulator installed indoor in a domestic application:
a)
A) will eliminate fluctuating gas pressure
b)
B) does not have to be protected
c)
must be protected with a cage
d)
D) is not permitted
105.
420. What is the minimum and maximum distances form the floor that the combustion air opening must terminate.
a)
A) no less than 12 inches and no more than 24 inches
b)
B) no less than 18 inches and no more than 36 inches
c)
C) no less than 6 inches and no more than 24 inches
d)
D) no less than 6 inches and no more than 18 inches
106.
421. When installing a combustion air supply duct most not be less than:
a)
A) within 6 in
b)
B) within 10 in
c)
C) within 12 in
d)
D) within 24 in
107.
422. The smallest dimension of a combustion air supply duct must not be less than:
a)
A) 2 in
b)
B) 3m
c)
C) 4 in
d)
D) 6 in
108.
401. A pressure regulator is sized for the load it is to serve by:
a)
A) multiplying the appliance input by 1.5 and selecting a regulator in that input range
b)
checking the appliance rating plate and selecting a regulator in that input range
c)
determine the pipe size of the appliance manifold and selecting a regulator in that input range
d)
calling joe plumber and selecting a regulator in his input range
100 %
