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E3Q2 - EoK (DNA & Heredity)

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does uppercase lettering in genotypes usually represent?

a)

Dominant alleles

b)

Recessive alleles

c)

Blended traits

d)

Environment effects

2.

If R = round and r = wrinkled, what is the phenotype of Rr?

a)

Round

b)

Wrinkled

c)

Mixed

d)

Yellow

3.

What does a dominant allele do?

a)

It masks the presence of a recessive allele

b)

It never gets expressed

c)

It turns into DNA

d)

It disappears after F1

4.

Which genotype would result in a recessive trait being expressed?

a)

rr

b)

RR

c)

Rr

d)

RY

5.

What did Mendel conclude about traits like white flowers?

a)

They are not lost, just masked

b)

They disappear completely

c)

They are mutated traits

6.

What is an allele?

a)

A different version of a gene

b)

A protein

c)

A chromosome

d)

A recessive gene only

7.

What does heterozygous mean?

a)

Two different alleles at a locus

b)

Two of the same alleles

c)

No alleles

d)

Two dominant alleles

8.

Which of the following is a phenotype?

a)

The physical appearance of a trait

b)

The allele combination

c)

The chromosome location

d)

The DNA sequence only

9.

What was observed in Mendel’s F1 generation after crossing white and purple flowers?

a)

All offspring had purple flowers

b)

All offspring had white flowers

c)

Half were purple and half white

d)

They had blended colors

10.

What is an inherited trait?

a)

A trait passed from parents to offspring

b)

A trait caused only by environment

c)

A random mutation

d)

A learned behavior

11.

Homozygous means:

a)

Having two identical alleles for a particular gene

b)

Having two different alleles for a particular gene

c)

Having only one allele for a gene

d)

Having no alleles for a gene

12.

Two of the same alleles at a locus

a)

Two of the same alleles at a locus

b)

One allele only

c)

Two dominant and one recessive

d)

No matching traits

13.

What did Mendel do to control pollination?

a)

He removed male parts and manually pollinated

b)

He used bees and removed their wings so that they can't fly away

c)

He grew them indoors and only in the night

d)

He added chemicals that show up purple and white

14.

What did the F2 generation reveal?

a)

Some white flowers reappeared

b)

Only purple flowers remained

c)

All were white

d)

They didn’t grow flowers

15.

What determines an organism’s genotype?

a)

The combination of alleles it inherits

b)

The color of its flowers

c)

The size of its cells inside the nucleus

d)

How tall it grows when it is reaching maturity

16.

What does the law of segregation state?

a)

Genes separate during gamete formation

b)

Genes blend in offspring when they reach adulthood

c)

Traits skip generations randomly

d)

All traits are dominant in the beginning and then become recessive

17.

Where is a gene located?

a)

On a specific locus of a chromosome

b)

In the nucleus only and when it is in the nucleus

c)

In the ribosome of the nucleus

d)

On the petal of a flower that Mendel discovered

18.

What is a gene?

a)

A segment of DNA coding for a protein

b)

An entire chromosome when the DNA coils

c)

The shape of a flower when the phenotype is shown

d)

A cell structure inside the cytoplasm

19.

Why did Mendel choose pea plants for his experiments?

a)

They reproduce quickly and have many distinct traits

b)

They are colorful and can be tracked back to the first plants

c)

They live a long time when they are taken care of

d)

They are expensive and only available in the winter

20.

What is genetics?

a)

The study of inheritance and variation of traits

b)

The study of flowers reproducing traits

c)

The study of cell division in plant cells

d)

The blending of traits in parents when they overcome heterogynosity

21.

What does meiosis do with alleles?

a)

Separates alleles into different gametes

b)

Blends them towards the beginning of mitosis

c)

Copies them exactly and sets them into 23 pairs

d)

Removes dominant traits so that the recessive traits show

22.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: What is the role of salt in the extraction solution?

a)

Breaks protein chains that bind DNA

b)

Coloring agent

c)

Makes the DNA glow

d)

Filters particles

23.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: What should you observe when ethanol is added to the filtered extract?

a)

DNA begins to precipitate

b)

The solution turns blue

c)

The solution evaporates

d)

A smell is released

24.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: Which part of the lab allowed you to observe DNA directly?

a)

Adding ethanol to the extract

b)

Grinding the strawberry

c)

Adding salt

d)

Filtering the mixture

25.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: What is the purpose of the soap in the extraction buffer?

a)

Dissolves cell and nuclear membranes

b)

Stains the DNA

c)

Makes the solution sticky

d)

Kills bacteria

26.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: What does the DNA extraction buffer contain?

a)

Salt and soap

b)

Vinegar and water

c)

Baking soda

d)

Ethanol only

27.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: Strawberries are a good source for DNA extraction because:

a)

They have large genomes and many cells

b)

They are easy to mash and break open

c)

They contain enzymes that help break down cell walls

d)

All of the above

28.

Why is it important for scientists to extract DNA?

a)

To study genes and diagnose genetic diseases

b)

To make vaccines for influenzas and different viruses

c)

To compare the size and length of chromosomes from different humans

d)

To stop cancer from duplicating in G1 phase and before getting to cytokinesis

29.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: Why must ethanol be added carefully down the side of the tube?

a)

To keep the layers separate for DNA precipitation

b)

To mix everything quickly

c)

To heat the DNA

d)

To prevent salt buildup

30.

Is there DNA in food?

a)

Yes, all living things contain DNA

b)

Only in vegetables

c)

Only if you cook it

d)

No, only cells have DNA

31.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: Which materials were essential for isolating the DNA?

a)

A) Strawberry, salt/soap solution, ethanol, cheesecloth

b)

B) cheesecloth, test tube, rubber, hydrogen peroxide

c)

C) Beaker, ethanol, soap, pepper, and heat

d)

D) Light, heat, soap, salt, hydrogen peroxide, and sugar

32.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: Why does DNA appear when ethanol is added?

a)

DNA is not soluble in ethanol

b)

Ethanol dissolves DNA

c)

DNA changes color

d)

Ethanol breaks chromosomes

33.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: What was the first step in the DNA extraction procedure?

a)

Mash the strawberry to break open cells

b)

Add ethanol to precipitate the DNA to the top

c)

Filter the solution using the cheesecloth and the test tube

d)

Heat the sample to boiling before adding the strawberry to the zip lock bag

34.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: What does the analogy of thread and rope suggest about DNA?

a)

DNA is visible only when bundled together

b)

DNA is flexible and can sink to the bottom of the test tube

c)

DNA is red on the inside and acts like a rope

d)

DNA is used to make rope

35.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: What does filtering the strawberry slurry through cheesecloth do?

a)

Separates solids from liquids

b)

Removes DNA

c)

Dyes the solution

d)

Breaks proteins

36.

Which of the following best describes DNA's solubility?

a)

Soluble in water, not ethanol

b)

Soluble in both water and ethanol

37.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: Which step in the procedure breaks down cell membranes?

a)

Adding soapy solution

b)

Mashing the strawberry

c)

Filtering through cheesecloth

d)

Freezing the extract

38.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: What did the DNA look like when extracted?

a)

White, stringy, or cloudy material

b)

Red powder suspended in liquid

c)

Clear gas with bubbles in the water

d)

Sticky blue gel that stick to your fingers

39.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: What is the correct match of function to step: 'Add ethanol'?

a)

Precipitate DNA from solution

b)

Break open the cells

c)

Separate organelles

d)

Unzip DNA strands

40.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: Why does the DNA float in the ethanol layer?

a)

It is less dense and not soluble in ethanol

b)

It's attracted to cheesecloth

c)

It bonds to soap to remove the salt

d)

It sticks to salt when there is soap present in solution

41.

In the DNA Extraction Lab: What is the main reason for using cheesecloth in this lab?

a)

To remove solid chunks from the slurry

b)

To extract proteins from the DNA mixture

c)

To stain DNA a specific color to determine mutations

d)

To freeze the DNA and make it easier to study

42.

From the DNA Replication Simulation: What does helicase do in DNA replication?

a)

Unzips the DNA strand

b)

Builds new nucleotides

c)

Corrects substitutions

d)

Folds chromosomes

43.

Which of the following are correct DNA base pairings?

a)

A-T and G-C

b)

A-G and T-C

c)

A-C and G-T

d)

T-G and C-A

44.

What are complementary base pairs in DNA?

a)

A pairs with T, G pairs with C

b)

A pairs with G, T pairs with C

c)

T pairs with G, A pairs with C

d)

G pairs with A, T pairs with C

45.

From the DNA Replication Simulation: How does the simulation show a substitution mutation?

a)

A red letter appears

b)

A black strand breaks

c)

The DNA re-coils

46.

A green arrow is shown What role does the p53 molecule play in the simulation?

a)

Detects and repairs substitutions

b)

Builds new strands

c)

Adds sugars to nucleotides

d)

Creates mRNA

47.

Which part of the nucleotide varies and holds genetic information?

a)

The base

b)

The sugar

c)

The phosphate

d)

The nucleus

48.

When does DNA condense into chromosomes?

a)

During cell division

b)

During protein synthesis

c)

While in G1 phase

d)

During transcription

49.

How does DNA appear when the cell is not dividing?

a)

Loose and string-like

b)

Condensed into X shapes

c)

Bundled tightly

d)

Forming ribosomes

50.

What does p53's ability to detect mutations suggest?

a)

Cells have mechanisms to prevent cancer

b)

All mutations are harmless

c)

Cells cannot fix DNA errors

d)

Mutation increases chromosome number

51.

The three parts of a nucleotide are:

a)

Sugar, phosphate group, nitrogenous base

b)

Amino acid, sugar, phosphate group

c)

Fatty acid, sugar, nitrogenous base

d)

Phosphate group, lipid, protein

52.

Which of the following are the components of a DNA nucleotide?

a)

Sugar, phosphate, base

b)

RNA, sugar, protein

c)

Membrane, nucleus, base

d)

Enzyme, acid, phosphate

53.

What is a substitution mutation?

a)

An incorrect nucleotide pairing

b)

A loss of a base pair

c)

The folding of DNA

d)

The duplication of DNA strands

54.

From the DNA Replication Simulation: What are the first two actions required to prepare DNA for replication in the simulation?

a)

Uncoil and unzip the DNA

b)

Add p53 and check for mutations

c)

Pause and reset the model

d)

Drag nucleotides to the arrows

55.

From the DNA Replication Simulation: What does the substitution rate measure?

a)

The number of errors during replication

b)

The speed of unzipping

c)

The number of helicase molecules used

d)

The time for replication

56.

Why can human cells function differently even though they have the same DNA?

a)

They express different genes

b)

They have different chromosomes

c)

They replicate at different times

57.

What is the process of copying DNA called?

a)

DNA replication

b)

RNA translation

c)

Mitosis

d)

Transcription

58.

What is a mutation?

a)

A change in DNA sequence

b)

A new cell during mitosis

c)

A DNA fold into an x shaped chromosome

d)

A broken protein

59.

Why is p53 important in real cells?

a)

It prevents the division of damaged cells

b)

It copies RNA into a DNA molecule in replication

c)

It forms new cells inside of the nucleus during mitosis

d)

It condenses chromosomes into Y shapes for replication

60.

How many base pairs are in the full human genome?

a)

More than 3 billion

b)

Around 300,000

c)

About 24 million

d)

Less than 100,000

61.

From the DNA Replication Simulation: How are mutations repaired in the simulation after p53 is used?

a)

The correct letter is dragged into place

b)

The DNA is re-zipped and replication can continue

c)

The strand is deleted and the sequence is restarted

d)

The molecule is flipped upside down so that the bottom row is at the top

62.

From the DNA Replication Simulation: What does the simulation help visualize?

a)

DNA error detection and repair

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

The phases of Mitosis

d)

Chromosome separation

63.
Question Image

​ Match the image with the correct vocabulary word.

a)
1.

DNA

an organic chemical that carries all information of a living thing

b)
2.

Chromosome-

threadlike structures that carry information about the organism in units called genes

c)
3.

Cell-

the smallest unit with the basic properties of lifeand made of molecules

64.

What type of genotype does each flower have?

Purple (P) is dominant to white (p).

Move label to bottom of square.

65.
Question Image

In hamsters, short fur is dominant (F) and long fur is recessive (f). Match genotypes and phenotypes below.

a)

1.

FF

b)

2.

Ff

c)

3.

ff

66.
Question Image

The picture shows a pair of homologous chromosomes. Three genes are labeled.

Match the genotype with the correct description.

a)

Heterozygous

1.

Two different alleles

b)

Homozygous DOMINANT

2.

Two identical DOMINANT alleles

c)

Homozygous recessive

3.

Two identical recessive alleles

67.

How are alleles inherited?

a)

From the mother only

b)

From the father only

c)

From both parents

d)

Randomly from the environment

68.

What is an allele?

a)

A type of gene

b)

A variant form of a gene

c)

A type of chromosome

d)

A mutation in a gene

69.

What is a gene?

a)

A part of DNA that codes for a specific trait

b)

A type of chromosome

c)

A cell that carries genetic information

d)

A protein that helps in cell division

70.

Which scientist is known as the father of genetics?

a)

James Watson

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Louis Pasteur

71.

What is the function of soap in the DNA extraction process?

a)

It breaks down cell membranes to release DNA

b)

It neutralizes the ethanol

c)

It colors the DNA for visibility

d)

It dissolves the DNA

72.

What does homozygous mean in genetics?

a)

Having two identical alleles for a trait

b)

Having two different alleles for a trait

c)

Having no alleles for a trait

d)

Having three alleles for a trait

73.

Which molecule carries genetic information from parents to offspring?

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

c)

Glucose

d)

Lipid

74.

What is the function of a chromosome in a cell?

a)

To organize and store genetic material

b)

To transport water

c)

To produce energy for the cell

d)

To digest nutrients

75.

Which process results in the formation of gametes with half the usual number of chromosomes?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Translation

c)

Mitosis

d)

Replication

76.

Where may your DNA be lingering in the DNA extraction process shown in the image?

a)

At the bottom of the container

b)

At the top layer of alcohol

c)

Between the two layers of alcohol and strawberry extract

d)

Outside the container

77.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
78.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
79.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
80.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
81.
Why is it crucial that living things are able to replicate their DNA?
a)
Each cell must have its own DNA
b)
Less copies of DNA are needed when a new cell is created
c)
A cell needs multiple copies of DNA
d)
Only muscle cells need DNA 
82.

The physical expression of a genetic trait is called a

a)

mutation

b)

genotype

c)

crossing over

d)

phenotype

83.

Having two of the same alleles for a trait (sometimes called purebred).

a)

homozygous

b)

hetrozygous

c)

protein

d)

chromosome

84.

Having two different alleles for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).

a)

protein

b)

homozygous

c)

heterozygous

d)

genotype