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BIO 205 Mid Term Practice Exam

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Microbiology is defined as:

a)

The study of microorganisms

b)

The study of plants

c)

The study of rocks

d)

The study of weather

2.

A pathogen is:

a)

A beneficial microorganism

b)

A disease-causing organism

c)

A type of nutrient

d)

A harmless chemical

3.

Biofilm is defined as:

a)

A thin, slimy layer of microorganisms that adheres to a surface

b)

A type of virus that infects bacteria

c)

A single-celled organism found in water

d)

A chemical used to kill bacteria

4.

Endospore is defined as:

a)

A dormant, tough, and non-reproductive structure produced by certain bacteria

b)

A type of virus that infects bacteria

c)

A protein produced by plants for defense

d)

A pigment found in algae

5.

Binary Fission is defined as:

a)

A type of asexual reproduction in which a single organism divides into two equal parts

b)

A process where two organisms exchange genetic material

c)

A method of sexual reproduction in plants

d)

A process of energy production in cells

6.

Peptidoglycan is defined as:

a)

A protein found in animal cells

b)

A carbohydrate found in plant cell walls

c)

A polymer that forms the cell wall of most bacteria

d)

A lipid present in cell membranes

7.

Lipopolysaccharide is:

a)

a component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

b)

a type of nucleic acid

c)

an enzyme involved in DNA replication

d)

a plant hormone

8.

The term 'Capsid' is defined as:

a)

The protein shell of a virus

b)

A type of bacterial cell wall

c)

A plant cell organelle

d)

A genetic material in bacteria

9.

Mycology is the study of:

a)

Bacteria

b)

Viruses

c)

Fungi

d)

Algae

10.

Exotoxin is defined as:

a)

A toxin released by bacteria into the surrounding environment

b)

A toxin that is part of the bacterial cell wall

c)

A toxin produced by plants

d)

A toxin produced by viruses

11.

Hospital Acquired Infection (HAI) is defined as:

a)

An infection acquired during a hospital stay that was not present at the time of admission.

b)

An infection present before hospital admission.

c)

A genetic disorder diagnosed in a hospital.

d)

A type of infection only found in children.

12.

Latent/Latency is defined as:

a)

The time delay between the cause and the effect of some physical change in the system

b)

The maximum speed of a network connection

c)

The amount of data that can be transferred in a given time period

d)

The process of encoding data for security

13.

Spontaneous Generation is defined as:

a)

The theory that living organisms can arise from nonliving matter.

b)

The process of cell division in living organisms.

c)

The idea that all living things come from pre-existing life.

d)

The method by which plants produce food using sunlight.

14.

Aerobic means:

a)

Requiring oxygen

b)

Requiring sunlight

c)

Requiring water

d)

Requiring carbon dioxide

15.

Anaerobic means:

a)

Requiring oxygen

b)

Not requiring oxygen

c)

Requiring sunlight

d)

Requiring water

16.

Generation Time is defined as:

a)

The time required for a population to double in number

b)

The time taken for a single cell to divide

c)

The duration of the lag phase in bacterial growth

d)

The period between two successive generations in animals

17.

Resident Microbiota is defined as:

a)

Microorganisms that are permanently found in a specific body site

b)

Microorganisms that cause disease

c)

Microorganisms that are only temporarily present in the body

d)

Microorganisms that are found only in the environment

18.

Transient Microbiota are:

a)

Microorganisms that permanently reside in the body

b)

Microorganisms that temporarily colonize the body and are not permanently established

c)

Microorganisms that cause disease only

d)

Microorganisms that are only found in the environment

19.

Describe the following type of microscope: Brightfield Light Microscope. Fill in the description.

a)

A microscope that uses visible light to illuminate specimens and produce a magnified image.

b)

A microscope that uses electrons instead of light to visualize specimens at atomic resolution.

c)

A microscope that uses laser beams to scan specimens and create 3D images.

d)

A microscope that uses ultraviolet light to detect fluorescently labeled structures.

20.

Describe the function or use of a Darkfield Light Microscope.

a)

A Darkfield Light Microscope is used to view live, unstained specimens and makes them appear bright against a dark background.

b)

A Darkfield Light Microscope is primarily used to view stained, dead specimens and makes them appear dark against a bright background.

c)

A Darkfield Light Microscope is used to magnify only non-biological samples such as metals and crystals.

d)

A Darkfield Light Microscope is used to measure the chemical composition of a specimen using fluorescence.

21.

Describe the function or use of a Confocal Microscope.

a)

A Confocal Microscope uses lasers and special optics to focus on a single plane within a specimen, producing high-resolution images and 3D reconstructions.

b)

A Confocal Microscope is primarily used to measure the mass of heavy metals in geological samples.

c)

A Confocal Microscope is designed to amplify sound waves for auditory research.

d)

A Confocal Microscope is used to separate mixtures based on their boiling points.

22.

Describe the function or use of an Electron Microscope.

a)

An Electron Microscope uses beams of electrons to achieve much higher magnification and resolution than light microscopes, allowing visualization of very small structures such as viruses and cell organelles.

b)

An Electron Microscope uses sound waves to visualize underwater objects.

c)

An Electron Microscope is primarily used for measuring atmospheric pressure.

d)

An Electron Microscope is used to magnify objects using only visible light.

23.

Describe the following types of microorganisms. Identify if they are prokaryotic or eukaryotic, or neither. Give 2-3 examples of each from your Module Reading. Type of Microorganism: Bacteria.

a)

Description: Single-celled organisms without a nucleus. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Prokaryotic. Example: Escherichia coli, Streptococcus, Bacillus.

b)

Description: Multicellular organisms with a nucleus. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Paramecium, Amoeba, Euglena.

c)

Description: Acellular infectious agents. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Neither. Example: Influenza virus, HIV, Bacteriophage.

d)

Description: Single-celled organisms with a nucleus. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Saccharomyces, Candida, Aspergillus.

24.

Describe the following types of microorganisms. Identify if they are prokaryotic or eukaryotic, or neither. Give 2-3 examples of each from your Module Reading. Type of Microorganism: Fungi.

a)

Description: Organisms that can be unicellular or multicellular, have cell walls, and obtain nutrients by absorption. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Yeast, Mold, Mushroom.

b)

Description: Organisms that are always unicellular, lack a nucleus, and reproduce by binary fission. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Prokaryotic. Example: Bacteria, Cyanobacteria, Archaea.

c)

Description: Organisms that are acellular, require a host to reproduce, and contain either DNA or RNA. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Neither. Example: Influenza virus, HIV, Bacteriophage.

d)

Description: Organisms that are photosynthetic, have chloroplasts, and can be unicellular or multicellular. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Algae, Seaweed, Chlorella.

25.

Describe the following types of microorganisms. Identify if they are prokaryotic or eukaryotic, or neither. Give 2-3 examples of each from your Module Reading. Type of Microorganism: Protozoa.

a)

Description: Single-celled eukaryotes that often live in water and may be motile. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Amoeba, Paramecium, Giardia.

b)

Description: Multicellular prokaryotes that form colonies in soil. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Prokaryotic. Example: Streptococcus, Bacillus, Clostridium.

c)

Description: Acellular infectious agents that require a host to reproduce. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Neither. Example: Influenza virus, HIV, Bacteriophage.

d)

Description: Filamentous eukaryotes that decompose organic matter. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Penicillium, Aspergillus, Rhizopus.

26.

Describe the following types of microorganisms. Identify if they are prokaryotic or eukaryotic, or neither. Give 2-3 examples of each from your Module Reading. Type of Microorganism: Virus.

a)

Description: Acellular infectious agents composed of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Neither. Example: Influenza virus, HIV, Bacteriophage.

b)

Description: Unicellular organisms with a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena.

c)

Description: Multicellular organisms that perform photosynthesis. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Moss, Fern, Pine tree.

d)

Description: Unicellular organisms without a nucleus. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Prokaryotic. Example: Escherichia coli, Streptococcus, Bacillus.

27.

Describe the following types of microorganisms. Identify if they are prokaryotic or eukaryotic, or neither. Give 2-3 examples of each from your Module Reading. Type of Microorganism: Helminth.

a)

Description: Multicellular parasitic worms. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Tapeworm, Roundworm, Fluke.

b)

Description: Unicellular prokaryotes. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Prokaryotic. Example: E. coli, Staphylococcus, Streptococcus.

c)

Description: Acellular infectious agents. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Neither. Example: Influenza virus, HIV, Bacteriophage.

d)

Description: Unicellular eukaryotes. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Amoeba, Paramecium, Plasmodium.

28.

Describe the following types of microorganisms. Identify if they are prokaryotic or eukaryotic, or neither. Give 2-3 examples of each from your Module Reading. Type of Microorganism: Prion.

a)

Description: Infectious proteins that cause neurodegenerative diseases. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Neither. Example: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Mad cow disease, Kuru.

b)

Description: Single-celled organisms with a nucleus. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena.

c)

Description: Non-living particles that require a host to reproduce. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Neither. Example: Influenza virus, HIV, Rabies virus.

d)

Description: Multicellular organisms that perform photosynthesis. Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic Cell: Eukaryotic. Example: Algae, Moss, Ferns.

29.

Describe the function of the following structure/organelle: Nucleus.

a)

The nucleus controls the cell's activities and contains genetic material (DNA).

b)

The nucleus produces energy for the cell through cellular respiration.

c)

The nucleus packages and transports proteins within the cell.

d)

The nucleus digests waste materials and foreign substances in the cell.

30.

Describe the function of the following structure/organelle: Ribosome.

a)

Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis.

b)

Ribosomes store genetic information.

c)

Ribosomes are responsible for energy production.

d)

Ribosomes are involved in lipid synthesis.

31.

Describe the function of the following structure/organelle: Cell Membrane.

a)

The cell membrane controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell and provides protection.

b)

The cell membrane produces energy for the cell through cellular respiration.

c)

The cell membrane stores genetic information and directs cell activities.

d)

The cell membrane synthesizes proteins and lipids for the cell.

32.

Describe the function of the following structure/organelle: Mitochondria.

a)

Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell, producing energy (ATP) through cellular respiration.

b)

Mitochondria are responsible for protein synthesis in the cell.

c)

Mitochondria store genetic information and control cell division.

d)

Mitochondria are involved in the synthesis of lipids and hormones.

33.

Describe the function of the following structure/organelle: Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum.

a)

The rough endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis and transport; it is studded with ribosomes.

b)

The rough endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for energy production in the cell.

c)

The rough endoplasmic reticulum stores genetic information and controls cell activities.

d)

The rough endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the breakdown of waste materials and cellular debris.

34.

Describe the function of the following structure/organelle: Cell Wall.

a)

The cell wall provides structural support and protection to the cell; it is found in plants, fungi, and some bacteria.

b)

The cell wall is responsible for producing energy in the cell.

c)

The cell wall stores genetic information for the cell.

d)

The cell wall is involved in protein synthesis within the cell.

35.

Describe the function of the following structure/organelle: Golgi.

a)

The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for storage or transport out of the cell.

b)

The Golgi apparatus generates ATP through cellular respiration.

c)

The Golgi apparatus is responsible for photosynthesis in plant cells.

d)

The Golgi apparatus synthesizes DNA during cell division.

36.

Describe the function of the following structure/organelle: Flagella.

a)

Flagella are tail-like structures that help with cell movement.

b)

Flagella are responsible for protein synthesis in the cell.

c)

Flagella store genetic information in the cell.

d)

Flagella are involved in energy production within the cell.

37.

Describe the function of the following structure/organelle: Glycocalyx/Capsule.

a)

The glycocalyx or capsule provides protection to the cell and helps in attachment to surfaces.

b)

It is responsible for protein synthesis in the cell.

c)

It generates energy through cellular respiration.

d)

It stores genetic information for the cell.

38.

Describe the work of each scientist listed below. Louis Pasteur: ____________________________

a)

Discovered principles of vaccination, microbial fermentation, and pasteurization.

b)

Developed the theory of relativity and explained the photoelectric effect.

c)

Formulated the laws of motion and universal gravitation.

d)

Discovered penicillin and pioneered the use of antibiotics.

39.

Describe the work of each scientist listed below. Robert Koch: ____________________________

a)

Identified the specific causative agents of tuberculosis, cholera, and anthrax; developed Koch's postulates.

b)

Discovered the structure of DNA and its double helix.

c)

Formulated the laws of inheritance through pea plant experiments.

d)

Developed the theory of evolution by natural selection.

40.

Describe the work of each scientist listed below. Joseph Lister: ____________________________

a)

Pioneer of antiseptic surgery; promoted sterile surgery using carbolic acid.

b)

Discovered penicillin and its antibiotic properties.

c)

Developed the theory of evolution by natural selection.

d)

Invented the stethoscope and advanced cardiac diagnosis.

41.

What is the description of the stain/material 'Crystal Violet' used in Gram Stain?

a)

Primary stain in Gram staining; stains all cells purple.

b)

Counterstain in Gram staining; stains cells pink.

c)

Decolorizer in Gram staining; removes primary stain from some cells.

d)

Mordant in Gram staining; fixes dye to the cell wall.

42.

What is the stain/material in Gram Stain that acts as a 'Mordant'?

a)

Iodine (acts as a mordant to fix the crystal violet stain).

b)

Safranin (used as a counterstain).

c)

Crystal violet (primary stain).

d)

Alcohol (used as a decolorizer).

43.

What is the stain/material in Gram Stain that 'Removes crystal violet stain'?

a)

Alcohol or acetone (decolorizer).

b)

Safranin

c)

Crystal violet

d)

Iodine solution

44.

What is the description of the stain/material 'Safranin' used in Gram Stain?

a)

Counterstain in Gram staining; stains Gram-negative cells pink/red.

b)

Primary stain in Gram staining; stains all cells purple.

c)

Decolorizer in Gram staining; removes stain from Gram-negative cells.

d)

Mordant in Gram staining; fixes the primary stain.

45.

Which of the following correctly fills in the table for the given microbe: Genus, Species, how the organism got its name, and the location of the microbe on/in the body?

a)

Genus: Staphylococcus, Species: aureus, Named for its golden color, Location: Skin

b)

Genus: Escherichia, Species: coli, Named after Theodor Escherich, Location: Intestines

c)

Genus: Lactobacillus, Species: acidophilus, Named for its acid-loving nature, Location: Mouth

d)

Genus: Bacillus, Species: subtilis, Named for its subtle appearance, Location: Lungs

46.

Fill in the table: Provide the relevant characteristics or information for Staphylococcus aureus.

a)

Gram-positive cocci, clusters, catalase positive, coagulase positive, golden yellow colonies, facultative anaerobe

b)

Gram-negative rods, oxidase positive, lactose fermenter, motile

c)

Gram-positive rods, spore-forming, non-motile, anaerobic

d)

Gram-negative cocci, oxidase negative, non-lactose fermenter, aerobic

47.

Fill in the table: Provide the relevant characteristics or information for Escherichia coli.

a)

Gram-negative rod, facultative anaerobe, lactose fermenter, etc.

b)

Gram-positive cocci, catalase positive, coagulase positive, etc.

c)

Acid-fast bacilli, obligate aerobe, non-motile, etc.

d)

Gram-positive rod, spore-forming, obligate anaerobe, etc.

48.

Fill in the table: Provide the relevant characteristics or information for Staphylococcus epidermidis.

a)

(Student should provide characteristics such as Gram-positive cocci, clusters, catalase positive, coagulase negative, etc.)

b)

(Student should provide characteristics such as Gram-negative rods, oxidase positive, lactose fermenter, etc.)

c)

(Student should provide characteristics such as Gram-positive rods, spore-forming, motile, etc.)

d)

(Student should provide characteristics such as Gram-negative cocci, diplococci, oxidase positive, etc.)

49.

Describe the following types of medium. Explain if it is solid, semi-solid, or liquid: Slant. Provide a description and state if it is solid, semisolid, or liquid.

a)

Slant: Solid medium in a test tube set at an angle, used for growing bacteria on the surface.

b)

Slant: Liquid medium in a petri dish, used for growing fungi.

c)

Slant: Semisolid medium in a flask, used for fermentation.

d)

Slant: Solid medium in a flat tray, used for plant tissue culture.

50.

Describe the following types of medium. Explain if it is solid, semi-solid, or liquid: Broth. Provide a description and state if it is solid, semisolid, or liquid.

a)

Broth: Liquid medium used for growing bacteria in suspension.

b)

Broth: Solid medium used for growing fungi.

c)

Broth: Semi-solid medium used for culturing viruses.

d)

Broth: Solid medium used for plant tissue culture.

51.

Describe the following types of medium. Explain if it is solid, semi-solid, or liquid: Agar Plate.

a)

Agar Plate: Solid medium in a petri dish, used for isolating colonies of bacteria.

b)

Agar Plate: Liquid medium in a test tube, used for growing fungi.

c)

Agar Plate: Semi-solid medium in a flask, used for fermentation studies.

d)

Agar Plate: Gaseous medium in a sealed container, used for anaerobic bacteria.

52.

Describe the following types of bacterial shapes and arrangements: Cocci/coccus.

a)

Cocci/coccus: Spherical bacteria, may appear in clusters, chains, or pairs.

b)

Cocci/coccus: Rod-shaped bacteria, usually found singly.

c)

Cocci/coccus: Spiral-shaped bacteria, often found in flexible chains.

d)

Cocci/coccus: Comma-shaped bacteria, typically found in aquatic environments.

53.

Describe the following types of bacterial shapes and arrangements: Bacilli/bacillus. Provide a description.

a)

Bacilli/bacillus: Rod-shaped bacteria, may appear singly or in chains.

b)

Bacilli/bacillus: Spherical-shaped bacteria, usually found in clusters.

c)

Bacilli/bacillus: Spiral-shaped bacteria, often found in pairs.

d)

Bacilli/bacillus: Comma-shaped bacteria, typically found in groups of four.

54.

Describe the following types of bacterial shapes and arrangements: Vibrio.

a)

Vibrio: Comma-shaped or curved rod bacteria.

b)

Vibrio: Spherical or round bacteria.

c)

Vibrio: Spiral-shaped bacteria.

d)

Vibrio: Cluster-forming cocci.

55.

What does the prefix 'Strepto-' mean?

a)

Twisted chains

b)

Round clusters

c)

Rod-shaped

d)

Spiral

56.

What does the prefix 'Staphylo-' mean?

a)

Clusters

b)

Chains

c)

Pairs

d)

Single cells

57.

What does the prefix 'Diplo-' mean?

a)

Pairs

b)

Single

c)

Triple

d)

Many

58.

What type of microbe is Streptococcus pyogenes?

a)

Bacterium

b)

Virus

c)

Fungus

d)

Protozoan

59.

What disease or infection is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

a)

Strep throat

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Malaria

d)

Chickenpox

60.

What type of microbe is Giardia lamblia?

a)

Protozoan

b)

Bacterium

c)

Fungus

d)

Virus

61.

What disease or infection is caused by Giardia lamblia?

a)

Giardiasis

b)

Amoebiasis

c)

Malaria

d)

Leishmaniasis

62.

What type of microbe is Entamoeba histolytica?

a)

Protozoan

b)

Bacterium

c)

Fungus

d)

Virus

63.

What disease or infection is caused by Entamoeba histolytica?

a)

Amoebic dysentery

b)

Malaria

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Cholera

64.

What type of microbe is Tapeworm?

a)

Helminth (parasitic worm)

b)

Bacterium

c)

Virus

d)

Protozoan

65.

What type of microbe is Plasmodium vivax?

a)

Protozoan

b)

Bacterium

c)

Fungus

d)

Virus

66.

What disease or infection is caused by Plasmodium vivax?

a)

Malaria

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Dengue

d)

Typhoid

67.

What type of microbe is Hookworm?

a)

Helminth (parasitic worm)

b)

Bacterium

c)

Virus

d)

Protozoan

68.

What type of microbe is Ringworm?

a)

Fungus

b)

Bacterium

c)

Virus

d)

Protozoan

69.

What is an Aerobe?

a)

An organism that requires oxygen for growth and survival.

b)

An organism that can survive without water.

c)

An organism that lives only in extreme heat.

d)

An organism that requires sunlight for survival.

70.

What is an Anaerobe? Fill in the blank with its definition or characteristic.

a)

An organism that does not require oxygen for growth and may even die in its presence.

b)

An organism that requires sunlight for survival.

c)

An organism that only lives in salty environments.

d)

An organism that uses carbon dioxide as its sole energy source.

71.

What is a Barophile? Fill in the blank with its definition or characteristic.

a)

An organism that thrives at high pressures, such as deep-sea environments.

b)

An organism that thrives in extremely dry environments.

c)

An organism that thrives in highly acidic environments.

d)

An organism that thrives in extremely cold environments.

72.

What is a Halophile? Fill in the blank with its definition or characteristic.

a)

An organism that thrives in high salt concentrations.

b)

An organism that thrives in extremely cold environments.

c)

An organism that thrives in acidic environments.

d)

An organism that thrives in high pressure environments.

73.

What is an Obligate Aerobe? Fill in the blank with its definition or characteristic.

a)

An organism that requires oxygen for growth.

b)

An organism that can survive without oxygen.

c)

An organism that only grows in the absence of light.

d)

An organism that uses carbon dioxide as its only energy source.

74.

What is an Obligate Anaerobe? Fill in the blank with its definition or characteristic.

a)

An organism that cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.

b)

An organism that requires oxygen to survive.

c)

An organism that can survive with or without oxygen.

d)

An organism that produces oxygen as a byproduct.

75.

What is a Psychrophile? Fill in the blank with its definition or characteristic.

a)

An organism that thrives at low temperatures, typically below 15°C.

b)

An organism that thrives at high temperatures, typically above 60°C.

c)

An organism that thrives in highly acidic environments.

d)

An organism that thrives in environments with high salt concentrations.

76.

What is a Mesophile? Fill in the blank with its definition or characteristic.

a)

An organism that grows best at moderate temperatures, typically between 20°C and 45°C.

b)

An organism that thrives in extremely high temperatures, above 80°C.

c)

An organism that prefers very cold environments, below 0°C.

d)

An organism that can survive only in the absence of oxygen.

77.

Describe General Purpose media and give an example. Fill in the blank for both description and example.

a)

General Purpose media supports the growth of a wide variety of microorganisms. Example: Nutrient agar.

b)

General Purpose media is used only for fungi. Example: Sabouraud agar.

c)

General Purpose media inhibits bacterial growth. Example: MacConkey agar.

d)

General Purpose media is selective for Gram-negative bacteria. Example: EMB agar.

78.

Describe Selective media and give an example. Fill in the blank for both description and example.

a)

Selective media allows the growth of certain microorganisms while inhibiting others. Example: MacConkey agar.

b)

Selective media supports the growth of all microorganisms equally. Example: Nutrient agar.

c)

Selective media is used only for fungi. Example: Blood agar.

d)

Selective media inhibits all microbial growth. Example: Chocolate agar.

79.

Describe Differential media and give an example. Fill in the blank for both description and example.

a)

Differential media distinguishes between different types of microorganisms based on their biological characteristics. Example: Blood agar.

b)

Differential media supports the growth of all microorganisms equally. Example: Nutrient agar.

c)

Differential media inhibits the growth of all bacteria. Example: MacConkey agar.

d)

Differential media is used only for fungi identification. Example: Sabouraud agar.

80.

The 3 domains are:

a)

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

b)

Plants, Animals, Fungi

c)

Protists, Monera, Fungi

d)

Vertebrates, Invertebrates, Microbes

81.

Proper techniques when handling an inoculating loop include:

a)

Flaming the loop before and after use

b)

Touching the loop to the bench to cool it

c)

Using the loop without sterilizing

d)

Leaving the loop in the culture tube

82.

From lab, what are the proper techniques when inoculating from an agar culture?

a)

Using a sterile loop and avoiding contamination

b)

Touching the agar with bare hands

c)

Leaving the agar plate open for a long time

d)

Using unsterilized instruments

83.

Name the following structures you would expect to find in a virus:

a)

Capsid and nucleic acid

b)

Cell wall and mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast and ribosome

d)

Nucleus and endoplasmic reticulum

84.

Protozoa can move by using:

a)

cilia, flagella, or pseudopodia

b)

chlorophyll

c)

roots and stems

d)

spores

85.

Viruses are not considered to be living organisms because:

a)

They cannot reproduce on their own

b)

They have a cell wall

c)

They can move independently

d)

They perform photosynthesis

86.

Which of the following lists the correct steps to perform a gram stain?

a)

Prepare smear, heat fix, apply crystal violet, rinse, apply iodine, rinse, decolorize with alcohol, rinse, apply safranin, rinse, blot dry.

b)

Apply safranin, rinse, apply crystal violet, rinse, apply iodine, rinse, decolorize with alcohol, rinse, blot dry.

c)

Prepare smear, apply iodine, rinse, apply crystal violet, rinse, decolorize with alcohol, rinse, apply safranin, rinse, blot dry.

d)

Prepare smear, heat fix, apply safranin, rinse, apply iodine, rinse, decolorize with alcohol, rinse, apply crystal violet, rinse, blot dry.

87.

Most bacteria that infect humans grow best at which pH?

a)

Acidic (pH 2-4)

b)

Neutral (pH 6.5-7.5)

c)

Alkaline (pH 9-11)

d)

Highly acidic (pH 1)

88.

The stages and phases of bacterial growth include which of the following?

a)

Lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, death phase

b)

Initiation, elongation, termination, recycling

c)

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

d)

Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation

89.

Microbiota can be found in which of the following locations, and where should they NEVER be found?

a)

On the skin and in the gut; NEVER in the bloodstream

b)

In the bloodstream; NEVER on the skin

c)

In the lungs; NEVER in the gut

d)

On the skin; NEVER in the gut