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(Spanish)EOY Exam(Practice)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

¿Dónde se forman las masas de aire MARÍTIMAS?

a)

Sobre el agua

b)

Sobre la tierra

2.

¿Dónde se forman las masas de aire CONTINENTALES?

a)

Sobre el agua

b)

Sobre la tierra

3.

¿Qué tipo de masa de aire trae TIEMPO FRÍO y SECO?

a)

Marítima Polar (mP)

b)

Marítima Tropical (mT)

c)

Continental Polar (cP)

d)

Continental Tropical (cT)

4.

¿Qué masa de aire se clasificaría como Marítima Polar (mP)?

a)

púrpura

b)

verde

c)

azul

d)

amarillo

e)

rojo

5.

¿Qué masa de aire se clasificaría como Continental Tropical (cT)?

a)

púrpura

b)

verde

c)

azul

d)

amarillo

e)

rojo

6.

¿Qué tipo de masa de aire está representada en la letra "C" (noreste de EE. UU., alrededor de Nueva York)?

a)

Continental polar

b)

Continental tropical

c)

Marítima polar

d)

Marítima tropical

7.

Este es el símbolo de un frente meteorológico _____________ .

a)

Frío

b)

Cálido

c)

Estacionario

d)

Ocluido

8.

Un frente meteorológico _____________ ocurre cuando una masa de aire frío avanza, empujando hacia arriba a la masa de aire cálido.

a)

Frío

b)

Cálido

c)

Estacionario

d)

Ocluido

9.

¿Por qué el aire cálido asciende sobre el aire frío?

a)

El aire cálido es menos denso

b)

El aire cálido es más denso

c)

El aire frío es más fuerte que el aire cálido

10.

¿Qué símbolo es este?

a)

frente cálido

b)

frente frío

c)

frente estacionario

d)

frente ocluido

11.

¿Qué tipo de frente hay sobre Texas?

a)

frente cálido

b)

frente frío

c)

frente estacionario

d)

frente ocluido

12.

¿Qué tipo de clima trae un sistema de alta presión a una zona?

a)

clima feliz, soleado y despejado

b)

clima desagradable, frío y lluvioso

c)

niebla, mucha niebla

d)

relámpagos

13.

¿Qué tipo de clima trae un sistema de baja presión?

a)

clima feliz, soleado y despejado

b)

clima desagradable, frío y lluvioso

c)

relámpagos

d)

arcoíris y unicornios

14.

Un sistema de baja presión en un mapa meteorológico es una letra mayúscula ____.

a)

A

b)

H

c)

L

d)

P

15.

Un sistema de alta presión es una ______ mayúscula en un mapa meteorológico.

a)

A

b)

H

c)

L

d)

P

16.

aire más pesado, descendente

a)

alta presión

b)

baja presión

17.

aire más ligero, ascendiendo

a)

alta presión

b)

baja presión

18.

La imagen muestra un mapa meteorológico con diferentes sistemas de presión. ¿Qué tipo de clima estaría teniendo Texas en este momento?

a)

clima despejado, soleado y seco

b)

clima lluvioso, nublado y tormentoso

19.

La siguiente imagen muestra un mapa meteorológico de Virginia. ¿Qué tipo de clima está teniendo Virginia en este mapa?

a)

clima nublado y lluvioso

b)

clima soleado, seco y despejado

20.

¿Cuál es el genotipo de un individuo de ojos azules?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

d)

BB o Bb

21.

¿Cuál es el genotipo de una persona con cabello negro?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

d)

HH o Hh

22.

¿Cuál es el genotipo de un individuo con pecas?

a)

FF

b)

Ff

c)

ff

d)

FF o Ff

23.

¿Cuál es el fenotipo de un individuo mm?

a)

Muggle

b)

Mago

c)

Squib

24.

¿Cuál es el fenotipo de un individuo Mm?

a)

Muggle

b)

Mago

c)

Squib

25.

¿Cuál es el fenotipo de un individuo Bb?

a)

Ojos azules

b)

Ojos marrones

c)

Pelo rojo

26.

¿Cuál es el fenotipo de un individuo MM?

a)

Muggle

b)

Mago

c)

Squib

27.

Un mago con pelo rojo, ojos azules y pecas son todos ejemplos de _____.

a)

fenotipo

b)

genotipo

c)

Ron Weasley (aunque esto es técnicamente correcto, por favor selecciona una de las otras dos respuestas.)

28.

¿Cuál es el genotipo de una persona pelirroja?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

29.

HH, Bb, mm, ff son todos ejemplos de

a)

fenotipo

b)

genotipo

30.

El genotipo mm también se conoce como ____.

a)

Homocigoto dominante

b)

Homocigoto recesivo

c)

Heterocigoto

31.

El genotipo Mm también se conoce como ____.

a)

De raza pura

b)

Híbrido

32.

El genotipo Mm también se conoce como ____.

a)

Homocigoto dominante

b)

Homocigoto recesivo

c)

Heterocigoto

33.

El genotipo mm también se conoce como ____.

a)

De raza pura

b)

Híbrido

34.
Question Image

Having a Widow's Peak is dominant (P) over not (p). If parent A (PP) and parent B (pp) have a child, what is the likelihood that--

a)

The child will have a widow's peak

1.

100%

b)

The child will not have a widow's peak

2.

0%

c)

The genotype of these children

3.

Pp

35.

Los dedos palmeados (F) son dominantes sobre los dedos no palmeados (f). Si el progenitor A (Ff) y el progenitor B (Ff) tienen hijos, ¿cuáles de las siguientes opciones son correctas? Selecciona los resultados correctos de Genotipo y Fenotipo.

a)

Fenotipos: 75% de probabilidad de tener dedos palmeados y 25% de no tenerlos.

b)

Fenotipos: 100% de probabilidad de tener dedos palmeados y 0% de no tenerlos.

c)

Fenotipos: 25% de probabilidad de tener dedos palmeados y 75% de no tenerlos.

d)

Genotipos: FF 25%, Ff 50%, ff 25%

e)

Genotipos: FF 75%, Ff 50%, ff 25%

36.

For a certain plant: G = green, g = yellow

Categorize the following

GG

Gg

gg

Plant will be green
Plant will be yellow
37.

Los ojos marrones (B) tienden a ser dominantes mientras que los ojos azules (b) tienden a ser recesivos. Unos padres con genes heterocigotos quieren saber: ¿cuál es la probabilidad de que tengan un hijo con ojos azules?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

75%

d)

100%

38.

¿Cuál de las siguientes opciones completaría este cuadro de Punnett?

a)

aa

b)

AA

c)

Aa

39.

Se cruzan dos plantas de guisante altas heterocigotas (Tt). La altura alta (T) es dominante. La baja (t) es recesiva. ¿Cuál es la probabilidad de cada fenotipo?

a)

50% altas y 50% bajas

b)

75% altas y 25% bajas

c)

100% bajas

40.

Los ojos marrones son dominantes (B) sobre los ojos azules (b). Si el Progenitor A (bb) y el Progenitor B (Bb) tienen un hijo, ¿cuál es la probabilidad de que el hijo tenga ojos marrones?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

41.

Selecciona DOS respuestas. ¿Cuáles son las partes que faltan?

a)

BB

b)

bb

c)

Bb

42.

¿Cuál de los siguientes debe ser el genotipo del padre?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

43.

Si el padre es homocigoto recesivo para los hoyuelos, ¿qué debe ser la madre para este cuadro de Punnett?

a)

Dd (Heterocigoto)

b)

DD (Homocigoto dominante)

c)

dd (Homocigoto recesivo)

44.

Mutaciones buenas vs. malas

a)

Las mutaciones pueden ser buenas así como malas

b)

El mismo gen

c)

Pueden ser perjudiciales

45.

Variación

a)

SON DIFERENTES FORMAS DEL MISMO GÉNERO

b)

ALGO QUE SÉ

c)

LAS MUTACIONES PUEDEN SER BUENAS

d)

ALGO EN NOSOTROS

46.

Esta persona tiene trisomía ___.

a)

13

b)

18

c)

21

47.

¿Cuál de las siguientes opciones describe mejor una molécula de ADN?

a)

doble hélice

b)

contiene ribosa

c)

compuesta de aminoácidos

d)

contiene uracilo

48.

¿Con qué se empareja la Citosina (C)?

a)

Guanina (G)

b)

Citosina (C)

c)

Adenina (A)

d)

Timina

49.

¿Con qué se empareja la Guanina (G)?

a)

Adenina (A)

b)

Timina (T)

c)

Citosina (C)

d)

Guanina (G)

50.

¿Con qué se empareja la Timina (T)?

a)

Adenina (A)

b)

Timina (T)

c)

Guanina (G)

d)

Citosina (C) 

51.

¿Con qué se empareja la Adenina (A)? 

a)

Guanina (G)

b)

Citosina (C)

c)

Adenina (A)

d)

Timina (T)

52.

¿Todas las mutaciones son malas?

a)

Sí

b)

No

53.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
54.
What do helpful mutations do? 
a)
Increases chances of survival 
b)
Decreases changes of survival 
c)
Increases chances of developing cancer
d)
Decreases skills
55.

Is this individual male or female?

a)

Male

b)

Female

56.

What is an organized picture of all of an organism’s homologous chromosome pairs lined up with each other?

a)

Pedigree

b)

Karyotype

57.

Homologous chromosome pairs are a combination of how many chromosomes from each parent?

a)

1 from each parent

b)

2 from each parent

58.

Which type of chromosome determines if someone will be male or female?

a)

autosomes

b)

sex chromosomes

59.

Which set of chromosomes represents a male?

a)

XX

b)

XY

60.

Which set of chromosomes represents a female?

a)

XX

b)

XY

61.

How many pairs of sex chromosomes do human cells contain?

a)

22

b)

1

c)

46

62.

How many pairs of autosomes do human cells contain?

a)

22

b)

1

c)

46

63.

How many pairs of chromosomes do human cells contain?

a)

23

b)

46

64.

How do you "win" at natural selection?

a)

survive

b)

go extinct

c)

survive & reproduce

65.

What word describes a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment?

a)

natural selection

b)

mutation

c)

camouflage

d)

adaptation

66.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
67.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
68.
When an organism of a species has an adaptation, it will compete for resources better, survive longer and pass that adaptation on to it's offspring. This process is called
a)
evolution by natural selection
b)
artificial selection
c)
inbreeding
d)
outbreeding
69.
Which of the following explains adaptation.
a)
An individual organism changes to meet its needs in the environment. These changes pass down to their offspring.
b)
The species as a whole changes their characteristics.
c)
Beneficial traits allow organism to survive and pass on those traits
d)
New characteristics arise in a species as needed.  If these traits are helpful, they are passed down.
70.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
71.
What is another name for natural selection?
a)
survival of the smartest
b)
survival of the fastest
c)
survival of the biggest
d)
survival of the fittest
72.

Natural selection results in change in a population's _____________ traits over time.

a)

inherited

b)

acquired

73.
Starting in 1954, commercial fishers in the northwest Pacific were paid by weight, rather than by the individual fish, for pink salmon. The fishers increased the use of a type of net that selectively catches larger fish.  Which of the following effects did this change in fishing technique most likely have on the salmon population over the next 20 years?
a)
The average body size of the salmon population decreased significantly.
b)
The average body size of the salmon population increased significantly.
c)
The average body size of the males in the salmon population increased, and the females stayed the same.
74.

Which letter represents the most recent common ancestor of sponges and mushrooms?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

75.

According to the cladogram, which organism is most distantly related to the chimpanzee?

a)

salmon

b)

salamander

c)

lizard

d)

hamster

76.

Using the cladogram, which two organisms are more closely related Lizards and Newts OR Lamreys and Sharks

a)

Newts and Lizards

b)

Lampreys and Sharks

77.

Two blocks of equal mass are dragged across different surfaces. Which will experience the greater Normal force?

a)

Box A

b)

Box B

c)

Equal

78.

Two blocks of equal mass are dragged across different surfaces. Which will experience the greater Gravity force?

a)

Box A

b)

Box B

c)

Equal

79.

Is the object in equillibrium?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Not enough information

80.

If the object in this picture is in equilibrium, What is the force of friction?

a)

0

b)

12

c)

8

d)

4

81.

Is the object in equillibrium?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Not enough information

82.

A card sliding across a table at a constant speed

a)

Unbalanced force

b)

Balanced force

83.

Applied forces on an object are unequal in size but are the same or opposite in direction

a)

Unbalanced force

b)

Balanced force

84.
What is the net force?
a)
40 N left
b)
0 N Balalnced
c)
400 N right
d)
40 N right
85.

Which of the following is an example of an unbalanced force?

a)
b)
c)
d)
86.
The unit for force is a called a: 
a)
Galileo
b)
Newton
c)
Aristotle
87.
What is the net force?
a)
17 N Right
b)
3 N Right
c)
3 N Left
d)
17 N Left
88.

According to Newton's Second Law, How do you calculate mass?

a)

Multiply mass and acceleration

b)

Divide force by acceleration

c)

Divide acceleration by mass

d)

Divide force by mass

89.

According to Newton's Second Law, How do you calculate force?

a)

Multiply mass and acceleration

b)

Divide mass by acceleration

c)

Divide acceleration by mass

d)

Divide force by mass

90.
Which of the following describes an application of Newton’s Law of Inertia?
a)
A car stops suddenly, but the passengers in the car are thrust forward into the seat belts.
b)
The force pushing downward on a box is equal to the force pushing upward on the box
c)
Earth’s tectonic plates collide with equal force and equal acceleration.
d)
The force of gases pushing downward from a rocket launch the rocket upward against gravity
91.
A 70-kg adult and a 35-kg child face each other on ice skates. Applying Newton’s Laws of Motion, what will happen if the two skaters push against each other?
a)
The adult will move backward, and the child will not move.
b)
The adult will not move, and the child will move backward.
c)
They will both move backward at the same speed.
d)
They will both move backward, but the child will move at a faster speed.
92.
Two cars with different masses travel at the same speed down a hill toward a stop sign. What will happen when both cars apply brakes at the same time to stop?
a)
The car with the smaller mass will require less forces to stop than the car with the larger mass.
b)
The car with the larger mass will amintain its velocity while traveling down the hill.
c)
The car with the smaller mass will take longer to stop than the car with the larger mass.
d)
The car with the larger mass will have less inertia than the car with the smaller mass.
93.
Newton’s first law of motion, applied to a book sitting on a table, would explain that the book will not move until which of the following conditions is met?
a)
Gravity on the book can be reduced to zero
b)
Unbalanced forces act on the book
c)
Balanced forces act on the book
d)
Friction being exerted on the book
94.
The masses of four objects are given in this table. If all of the objects have the same acceleration, which will require the greatest force?
a)
Object 1
b)
Object 2
c)
Object 3
d)
Object 4
95.
According to Newton’s Third Law, if someone jumps off a skateboard, the skateboard will roll backwards because -
a)
the mass of the skateboard is the same as the mass of the person jumping off.
b)
the pull of gravity on the person is the same as on the skateboard, regardless of size.
c)
the air resistance on the person is great and the friction on the skateboard is small.
d)
for the force that sent the person forward, there is an equal force pushing back on the skateboard.
96.
A bowling ball is rolled with a certain speed and strikes a bowling pin with a force indicated by the arrow in this illustration. When the bowling ball strikes the bowling pin, the force applied by the pin to the ball -
a)
depends on the mass of the bowling pin.
b)
is equal to the force applied by the ball.
c)
must be zero, since the pin is not moving.
d)
is equal to the force of gravity on both.
97.

According to Newton's Second Law, How do you calculate acceleration?

a)

Multiply mass and acceleration

b)

Divide force by acceleration

c)

Divide acceleration by mass

d)

Divide force by mass

98.

What is the net force on a car with a mass of 1000kg, if it accelerates at 35 m/s2?

f = m×af\ =\ m\times a  

a)

1000 x 35 = 35,000 N

b)

1000/35 = 28.6 N

c)

35/100 = 0.035 N

d)

Not enough information is provided to answer this question correctly.

99.

If the mass of an object is 5 kg, and the acceleration is 2 m/s2. What is the force?

a)

10 N

b)

7 N

c)

3 N

d)

12 N

100.

I the mass of an object is 10 kg. And the acceleration is 10 m/s2, what is the force on the object?

a)

1000 N

b)

20 N

c)

10 N

d)

100 N

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