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Organic Evolution Test #1 E

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to Mendel's Law of Segregation, how many gene copies does each individual have, and what happens to these copies during gamete production?

a)

Each individual has one gene copy, and both go to one gamete

b)

Each individual has two gene copies, and they segregate so one copy goes to each gamete

c)

Each individual has three gene copies, and they all go to one gamete

d)

Each individual has two gene copies, and both go to each gamete

2.

Fill in the blank: The Law of Segregation states that each individual has ____ gene copies and they segregate during gamete production (one copy goes to each gamete).

a)

two

b)

four

c)

one

d)

three

3.

Refer to the diagrams showing the segregation of alleles during meiosis. Which stage shows the separation of alleles for each gene?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Both Metaphase I and II

d)

None of the above

4.

According to Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment, during gamete production, genes for different traits segregate independently of each other.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

What is the principle of independent assortment as described in the diagram?

a)

Different genes assort (are passed into gametes) independently because they are located on different chromosomes which align randomly at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.

b)

Genes on the same chromosome always assort independently regardless of their position.

c)

Independent assortment only occurs during mitosis, not meiosis.

d)

All genes are inherited together as a single unit regardless of chromosome alignment.

6.

Refer to the diagram. Which of the following gamete combinations can be produced from a parent with genotype RrYy?

a)

A) RY, Ry, rY, ry

b)

B) RR, YY, rr, yy

c)

C) Rr, Yy, Ry, rY

d)

D) RY, rY, Ry, rY

7.

During which phase of meiosis does the independent assortment of genes occur, as shown in the diagram?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase II

8.

Which term is defined as the fundamental unit of heredity, codes for a functional product (protein or RNA)?

a)

gene

b)

enzyme

c)

chromosome

d)

lipid

9.

Which term refers to the specific place on the chromosome where a gene (or set of genes) is located (physical location)?

a)

locus

b)

allele

c)

chromatid

d)

centromere

10.

Which term describes variant forms of a gene, or variant nucleotide sequences at a particular locus?

a)

allele

b)

chromosome

c)

genotype

d)

phenotype

11.

What is the ultimate source of variation for natural selection (NS)?

a)

Mutation

b)

Genetic drift

c)

Natural selection

d)

Gene flow

12.

Mutation is any alteration in the _______ sequence of a genome.

a)

nucleotide

b)

protein

c)

lipid

d)

carbohydrate

13.

Which of the following can result in mutations?

a)

Errors in DNA replication

b)

Failure to repair damage

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

14.

Mutations must occur in the _______ (progenitors of gametes) to be transmitted to offspring.

a)

germ line

b)

somatic cells

c)

mitochondria

d)

cytoplasm

15.

Recombination during meiosis can generate variation on which selection can act.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following is considered the raw material for evolution?

a)

Mutation

b)

Natural selection

c)

Adaptation

d)

Migration

17.

Fill in the blank: ________ are heritable mechanisms that alter gene expression without changes to DNA sequence.

a)

Epigenetic inheritance

b)

Genetic drift

c)

Point mutation

d)

Gene duplication

18.

Which of the following best describes the mechanisms underlying the transmission of acquired traits across generations?

a)

Genetic mutations

b)

Epigenetic inheritance

c)

Natural selection

d)

Genetic drift

19.

Epigenetic Inheritance: Case study Observation was made that the children & grandchildren of surviving prisoners of the Civil War had increased mortality. The sons of ex-POWs imprisoned in the worst camps were 1.11 times more likely to die than the sons of non-POWs (and 1.09 times more likely to die than the sons of ex-POWs imprisoned in better conditions). Daughters were: Choose the correct answer.

a)

More likely to die

b)

Less likely to die

c)

Not affected

d)

Affected the same as sons

20.

This can be explained by which of the following?

a)

By providing a logical reasoning

b)

By ignoring the facts

c)

By making random guesses

d)

By avoiding the explanation

21.

According to the case study on epigenetic inheritance, what process did researchers use to deduce the cause?

a)

Random sampling

b)

Process of elimination

c)

Genetic sequencing

d)

Psychological testing

22.

Which of the following was NOT considered a possible factor in the case study on epigenetic inheritance?

a)

Socioeconomic cause

b)

Psychological cause

c)

Genetic cause

d)

Environmental pollution

23.

Fill in the blank: The researchers found no supporting statistical evidence for the ________ cause in the case study on epigenetic inheritance.

a)

socioeconomic

b)

genetic

c)

environmental

d)

nutritional

24.

What was the final conclusion about the cause in the epigenetic inheritance case study?

a)

Socioeconomic cause

b)

Psychological cause

c)

Genetic cause

d)

Sex linked epigenetic cause

25.

Chromosomes consist of ______ (DNA + histone proteins).

a)

chromatin

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosomes

d)

centrioles

26.

When chromosomes are condensed, what happens to gene expression?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

No gene expression occurs

d)

It stays the same

27.

Often epigenetic mechanisms result in modification to DNA or ______ that changes chromatin structure.

a)

histones

b)

lipids

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleotides

28.

Refer to the diagram showing condensed and decondensed chromatin. Which form of chromatin allows RNA polymerase to access promoters and express genes?

a)

A) Condensed chromatin

b)

B) Decondensed chromatin

29.

What is added to a C-G base pair during DNA methylation?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Methyl group

c)

Acetyl group

d)

Hydroxyl group

30.

Refer to the diagram and text about DNA methylation. DNA methylation results in DNA being inaccessible to ________ factors.

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

mutation

31.

What is the effect of DNA methylation on gene expression?

a)

Turns genes "on"

b)

Turns genes "off"

c)

Increases gene expression

d)

Has no effect on gene expression

32.

DNA methylation also alters the binding of other proteins important for _______ structure.

a)

chromatin

b)

membrane

c)

cytoplasmic

d)

ribosomal

33.

What is the result of the addition of an acyl group to histones?

a)

De-condensation of chromatin

b)

Condensation of chromatin

c)

Inhibition of DNA replication

d)

Increase in histone methylation

34.

What effect does histone modification have on gene expression?

a)

Turns genes 'on'

b)

Destroys the DNA

c)

Prevents cell division

d)

Causes mutations

35.

How many nucleotide changes are fixed in Homo sapiens, and how many of these change the amino acid? Fill in the blanks: ______ nucleotide changes are fixed in Homo sapiens, but only about ______ change the amino acid.

a)

30,000; 100

b)

3,000; 1,000

c)

300,000; 10,000

d)

10,000; 5,000

36.

Is it easy or difficult to determine the role of non-coding DNA in gene expression? Fill in the blank: It is ______ to determine the role of non-coding DNA, but differences likely affect gene expression.

a)

very difficult

b)

very easy

c)

not important

d)

always obvious

37.

What method is used to examine differences in gene expression between Neanderthals and modern humans? Fill in the blank: ______ maps are used to examine differences in gene expression between Neanderthals and modern humans.

a)

DNA methylation

b)

Protein folding

c)

Chromosome painting

d)

Gene splicing

38.

Gokhman et al, 2020 identified differentially methylated regions (DMRs) between the ______ groups.

a)

human

b)

mouse

c)

yeast

d)

plant

39.

Genes associated with vocal and facial anatomy differ in DNA methylation patterns in modern humans, compared to ______ and ______. (Fill in the blanks)

a)

Neanderthals; Denisovans

b)

Chimpanzees; Gorillas

c)

Australopithecus; Homo erectus

d)

Homo sapiens; Cro-Magnon

40.

Epigenetic changes are important for evolution.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only in plants

d)

Only in animals

41.

Epigenetic changes are important for evolution and can be inherited.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only important for evolution, not inherited

d)

Only inherited, not important for evolution

42.

Fill in the blank: One type of DNA mutation is _________.

a)

Point mutations

b)

Carbohydrate synthesis

c)

Mitochondrial division

d)

Protein folding

43.

Fill in the blank: One type of DNA mutation is _________.

a)

Insertion/deletions

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Transcription factors

44.

Fill in the blank: One type of DNA mutation is _________.

a)

Gene duplication/Genome duplication

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Osmosis

45.

What is a point mutation?

a)

Alteration of a single base in a DNA sequence

b)

Deletion of a DNA segment

c)

Duplication of a gene

d)

Insertion of a chromosome

46.

Which type of mutation is approximately twice as frequent as the other?

a)

Transversions

b)

Transitions

47.

Fill in the blank: Transitions are (~2x) more frequent than _________

a)

transversions

b)

replications

c)

insertions

d)

deletions

48.

According to the diagram, which type of mutation occurs between Adenine and Guanine?

a)

Transition

b)

Transversion

49.

According to the diagram 'Point Mutations: Consequences', what is the result of a 'No mutation' in the DNA sequence?

a)

The new codon encodes a different amino acid

b)

The new codon encodes the same amino acid

c)

Serine protein produced

d)

The new codon is a stop codon

50.

According to the diagram 'Point Mutations: Consequences', what is the result of a 'Synonymous mutation' in the DNA sequence?

a)

The new codon encodes the same amino acid; there is no change in amino acid sequence

b)

The new codon encodes a different amino acid

c)

The new codon is a stop codon

d)

Serine protein produced

51.

According to the diagram 'Point Mutations: Consequences', what is the result of a 'Nonsynonymous mutation' in the DNA sequence?

a)

The new codon encodes the same amino acid

b)

The new codon encodes a different amino acid; there is a change in amino acid sequence

c)

The new codon is a stop codon

d)

Serine protein produced

52.

According to the diagram 'Point Mutations: Consequences', what is the result of a 'Nonsense mutation' in the DNA sequence?

a)

The new codon encodes the same amino acid

b)

The new codon encodes a different amino acid

c)

The new codon is a stop codon; there is premature termination of translation

d)

Serine protein produced

53.

Refer to the diagram showing the amino acid sequence for normal hemoglobin A and hemoglobin S. Which amino acid is replaced in hemoglobin S compared to normal hemoglobin A?

a)

Valine

b)

Glutamic acid

c)

Histidine

d)

Proline

54.

In sickle cell anemia, which codon replaces the normal GAG codon in the hemoglobin gene?

a)

CAC

b)

CTG

c)

GTG

d)

ACT

55.

Fill in the blank: In sickle cell anemia, the red blood cell becomes ________ when deoxygenated.

a)

sickled

b)

round

c)

elongated

d)

fragmented

56.

In sickle cell anemia, valine replaces glutamic acid in the hemoglobin beta chain.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Fill in the blank: One type of mutation is _________.

a)

Point mutations

b)

Carbohydrate synthesis

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Mitosis

58.

Fill in the blank: _________ are mutations that involve the addition or removal of genetic material.

a)

Insertion/deletions

b)

Point mutations

c)

Silent mutations

d)

Missense mutations

59.

Fill in the blank: _________ or _________ is a type of mutation where genetic material is duplicated.

a)

Gene duplication/Genome duplication

b)

Point mutation/Frameshift mutation

c)

Translocation/Inversion

d)

Deletion/Insertion

60.

What are insertion-deletion (indel) mutations?

a)

Mutations where the DNA sequence is unchanged

b)

Mutations where 'Daughter' DNA has a different number of base pairs in a particular region than the 'Parental' DNA

c)

Mutations that only involve substitution of bases

d)

Mutations that do not affect the number of base pairs

61.

Fill in the blank: Insertion-deletion (indel) mutations are when 'Daughter' DNA has a ________ number of base pairs in a particular region than the 'Parental' DNA.

a)

different

b)

same

c)

double

d)

half

62.

Based on the DNA sequences shown, which species has the largest deletion compared to the others?

a)

Sp.1

b)

Sp.2

c)

Sp.3

d)

Sp.4

63.

What are insertion-deletion (indel) mutations?

a)

Mutations where 'Daughter' DNA has the same number of base pairs as 'Parental' DNA

b)

Mutations where 'Daughter' DNA has a different number of base pairs in a particular region than the 'Parental' DNA

c)

Mutations that do not affect the number of base pairs

d)

Mutations only caused by environmental factors

64.

Indel mutations are often caused by errors in DNA replication, especially in which type of sequences?

a)

Unique sequences

b)

Repetitive sequences

c)

Protein-coding sequences

d)

Non-coding sequences

65.

Refer to the diagram showing DNA sequences for Sp.1 to Sp.4. Which species (Sp.1, Sp.2, Sp.3, Sp.4) shows evidence of a deletion event compared to the others?

a)

Sp.3 and Sp.4 show evidence of a deletion event (missing base pairs compared to Sp.1 and Sp.2).

b)

Sp.1 and Sp.2 show evidence of a deletion event (missing base pairs compared to Sp.3 and Sp.4).

c)

Only Sp.1 shows evidence of a deletion event (missing base pairs compared to the others).

d)

All species show the same number of base pairs, so no deletion event is evident.

66.

Refer to the diagram showing DNA sequences for Sp.1 to Sp.4. Which species shows evidence of an insertion event compared to the others?

a)

Sp.1 and Sp.2 show evidence of an insertion event (extra base pairs compared to Sp.3 and Sp.4).

b)

Sp.3 and Sp.4 show evidence of an insertion event (extra base pairs compared to Sp.1 and Sp.2).

c)

All species show evidence of an insertion event.

d)

None of the species show evidence of an insertion event.

67.

What can result from indel (insertion/deletion) mutations in a protein?

a)

Frameshift mutations

b)

Insertion/deletion of amino acids (if in multiples of 3)

c)

Premature stop codons (nonsense mutations)

d)

All of the above

68.

Fill in the blank: A deletion that is not a multiple of 3 nucleotides results in a ________ mutation.

a)

frameshift

b)

missense

c)

silent

d)

nonsense

69.

Based on the diagram, which type of deletion (in-frame or frameshift) is more likely to cause a premature stop codon?

a)

Frameshift

b)

In-frame

c)

Silent

d)

Missense

70.

Fill in the blank: One type of mutation is _________.

a)

Point mutations

b)

Cell division

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Osmosis

71.

Fill in the blank: _________ are mutations that involve the addition or removal of genetic material.

a)

Insertion/deletions

b)

Point mutations

c)

Silent mutations

d)

Missense mutations

72.

Fill in the blank: _________ or _________ is a type of mutation involving the duplication of genetic material.

a)

Gene duplication/Genome duplication

b)

Point mutation/Frameshift mutation

c)

Translocation/Inversion

d)

Deletion/Insertion

73.

What is gene duplication? Fill in the blank: Gene duplication is the generation of an extra copy of a _____?

a)

locus

b)

chromosome

c)

protein

d)

enzyme

74.

Which of the following is a mechanism for gene duplication?

a)

Unequal crossing over

b)

Equal crossing over

c)

DNA methylation

d)

Chromosome inversion

75.

Which process involves the creation of a new gene through the integration of a DNA copy made from processed mRNA?

a)

Duplication by unequal crossing over

b)

Duplication by retroposition

c)

Gene deletion

d)

Chromosome translocation

76.

In duplication by unequal crossing over, what is the result when homologous chromosomes align incorrectly and cross over at non-allelic repeat loci?

a)

Deletion only

b)

Duplication and deletion

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

77.

List the steps involved in duplication by retroposition as shown in the diagram.

a)

Transcription, introns spliced out, reverse transcription, integration

b)

Replication, translation, integration, splicing

c)

Transcription, translation, replication, integration

d)

Reverse transcription, splicing, translation, integration

78.

According to the classical model shown in the diagram, what is the first step that happens to gene A?

a)

Gene deletion

b)

Gene duplication

c)

Gene silencing

d)

Gene recombination

79.

In the classical model, after gene duplication, one copy of the gene maintains its function. What happens to the other copy (gene A')?

a)

It is deleted

b)

It accumulates mutations

c)

It is silenced

d)

It becomes non-functional immediately

80.

Fill in the blank: In the classical model, a duplicated gene that accumulates mutations can become non-functional (pseudogene) or acquire a ________.

a)

new function

b)

similar sequence

c)

regulatory element

d)

mutation

81.

Review of basic _______ biology/mendelian genetics.

a)

molecular

b)

cellular

c)

behavioral

d)

ecological

82.

Mutation is the ultimate source of genetic variation.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

There are multiple different types of mutations. Which of the following is NOT a type of mutation?

a)

Point

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Gene duplications

d)

Chromosome inversions

e)

Indels

84.

Each type of mutation has potentially _______ consequences.

a)

different

b)

identical

c)

irrelevant

d)

predictable

85.

Most new mutations that alter fitness are expected to be beneficial.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Fill in the blank: Deleterious mutations with a weak negative effect on fitness are more common in _________

a)

fruit flies

b)

humans

c)

bacteria

d)

plants

87.

Fill in the blank: Deleterious mutations with a strong negative effect on fitness are more common in _________.

a)

humans

b)

bacteria

c)

plants

d)

viruses

88.

What is hypothesized to be the reason for the difference in the fitness effects of mutations between fruit flies and humans?

a)

Differences in complexity

b)

Differences in diet

c)

Differences in habitat

d)

Differences in lifespan

89.

Fitness Effects of Mutations: Are mutations random with respect to fitness?

a)

Yes

b)

No

90.

Fitness Effects of Mutations: Which type of mutations are more common?

a)

Beneficial mutations

b)

Lethal/deleterious mutations

91.

Many mutations are ________ but not lethal.

a)

deleterious

b)

beneficial

c)

neutral

d)

adaptive

92.

Fitness Effects of Mutations: Fill in the blank. Many mutations are approximately ________.

a)

neutral

b)

lethal

c)

beneficial

d)

deleterious

93.

Fitness Effects of Mutations: True or False: A small fraction of mutations are beneficial.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

According to the image, how many new point mutations does every human inherit?

a)

~1 dozen

b)

~2 dozen

c)

~3 dozen

d)

~4 dozen

95.

In Family 1 (Western/Northern European from Utah, USA), what percentage of new mutations are inherited via sperm?

a)

8%

b)

36%

c)

64%

d)

92%

96.

In Family 2 (Yoruban from Ibadan, Nigeria), what percentage of new mutations are inherited via egg?

a)

8%

b)

36%

c)

64%

d)

92%

97.

Fill in the blank: In Family 1, there are ___ new mutations, with 92% via sperm and 8% via egg.

a)

49

b)

32

c)

61

d)

25

98.

Where is RNASE1 produced and what is its function?

a)

RNASE1 is produced in the pancreas and is an endonuclease that digests RNA (antiviral properties).

b)

RNASE1 is produced in the liver and is a protease that digests proteins.

c)

RNASE1 is produced in the stomach and is a lipase that digests fats.

d)

RNASE1 is produced in the kidney and is a hormone that regulates blood pressure.

99.

What is unusual about the diet of the Douc langur?

a)

The Douc langur has an unusual diet, consisting primarily of leaves and a specialized four chamber stomach.

b)

The Douc langur eats mostly insects and small mammals.

c)

The Douc langur survives mainly on fish and aquatic plants.

d)

The Douc langur feeds exclusively on fruits and seeds.