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43 file 30-43

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Patient A., 37 years old, teacher, obesity of the Ill degree, complained of severe pain in the area the right knee joint. MRI showed degenerative damage of the internal meniscus, marginal osteophytes. The most important etiological factor in the development of pathology of the musculoskeletal system in this case is:

a)

male sex

b)

presence of ostephytes

c)

obesity

d)

the patient's occupation

e)

Age

2.

What develops with a mild form of adenovirus infection:

a)

Catarrhal rhinolaryngotrachelts

b)

Fibrinous rhinolaryngotracheitis

c)

Putrefactive rhinolaryngotracheitis

d)

Purulent rhinolaryngotracheitis

e)

Hemorrhagic rhinolaryngotracheitis

3.

In which organs is the primary tuberculosis complex located:

a)

Intestines and lungs

b)

Heart and joints

c)

Brain and spinal cord

d)

Bones and muscles

e)

Liver and kidneys

4.

What type of inflammation develops in the intestine in the second stage of dysentery:

a)

diphtheritic

b)

catharrhal.

c)

croupous

d)

phiegmonous

e)

ulcerative

5.

Characteristic complications of typhoid fever include:

a)

intestinal sear stenosis

b)

cachexia

c)

Amyloidosis

d)

intestinal perforation

e)

pyelonephritis

6.

The characteristic manifestation of the cutaneous form of anthrax is:

a)

lymph nodes are not affected

b)

the entry gate of the infection is not found

c)

the outcome is often unfavorable

d)

development of anthrax phlyctena

e)

development of a carbuncle

7.

Solitary gummas during syphilis are often located in:

a)

stomach

b)

skin

c)

liver

d)

kidneys

e)

aorta

8.

Pathological processes that develop in pernicious anemia:

a)

atrophic gastritis, hepatic heromelanosis

b)

demyelination, pyoid bane marrow

c)

microspherocytosis. splenomegaly

d)

macrocytosis. funkular myelosis

e)

necrotizing angina, atrophic glossitis

9.

The characteristic feature of tertiary syphilis:

a)

primary syphilitic lesion formation

b)

syphilides formation

c)

acute interstitial inflammation develops

d)

gummas formation

e)

hard chancre formation

10.

Characteristics of primary syphilis include:

a)

roseolas formation

b)

chronic interstitial inflammation develops

c)

gummas formation

d)

papules formation

e)

primary syphilitic lesion formation

11.

Papillary growth due to follicular epithelial proliferation, colloid vacuolization, changes in its staining properties, lympho-plasmocytic infiltration of the stroma, lymphoid tissue hyperplasia with germinal centers, myocardial hypertrophy, liver fibrosis, thymomegaly, and adrenal corti layer atrophy are characteristic of:

a)

Graves' disease

b)

Fibrous goiter

c)

Hashimoto's goiter

d)

Endemic goiter

e)

Riedel's goiter

12.

The pathology of the brain characteristic for the primary-septic form of anthrax:

a)

purulent meningoencephalitis

b)

brain hematoma

c)

hemorrhagic meningoencephalitis

d)

brain ischemic infarcts

e)

granulomatous meningoencephalitis

13.

In traumatic surgical interventions, septic shock with hyperproduction of endotoxins, obstetric DIC syndrome, the development of thrombinemia with the appearance of a large number of microthrombi in blood vessels is initiated:

a)

formation of a 'tissue factor + factor Vila' complex

b)

activation of the primary anticoagulant system

c)

formation of pathological anticoagulants

d)

activation of the platelet component of haemostasis

e)

decrease in endothelial thromboresistance

14.

Manifestation of immunodepressive effects of the influenza virus:

a)

dyscirculatory changes

b)

autoimmunization

c)

dystrophic changes in internal organs

d)

spleen hyperplasia

e)

addition of secondary infection

15.

Changes in internal organs during the algid stage of cholera:

a)

atrophy of lymphoid tissue in spleen

b)

splenic hyperplasia

c)

diphtheritic inflammation develops in the intestines

d)

amyloidosis

e)

nephrosclerosis of the kidneys

16.

Gluccocoticoids are produced.

a)

Adrenal medulla

b)

Adrenal cortex

c)

Beta cells of pancreas

d)

Thyroid follicles

e)

Testicular glandulocytes

17.

What is the mechanism of action of Sertrallne?

a)

Increase GABA activity

b)

Inhibits serotonin reuptake

c)

Blocks a adregnic receptors

d)

Blocks M cholinergic receptors

e)

The concentration of dopamine in CNS decreases

18.

Antihypertensive drug from group of beta blockers:

a)

Verapamil

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Perindopril

d)

Indipamide

e)

Sodium nitroprusside

19.

Bronchodilators include:

a)

Isoprenaline, eufylline, salbutamol

b)

Beclomethasone, ketotifen, ambroxol

c)

Cromolyn sodium, ketotifen, eufylline

d)

Guaifenesin, tusuprex, oxeladin

e)

Cordiamin, ganglioplegic bromide, potassium iodide

20.

Indications for the appointment of this drug are hyperacid conditions, heartburn, and metabolic acidosis. Contraindications include alkalosis and hypokalemia.

a)

sodium bicarbonate

b)

Maalox

c)

Phosphalugel

d)

Almagel

e)

Magnesium oxide

21.

These drugs have an inhibitory effect on the final stages of hydrochloric acid synthesis, suppress nocturnal and stimulated gastric acid secretion. Omeprazole and its analogs have a prolonged effect, faster symptomatic relief, and promote faster healing of duodenal ulcers. After the abolition of this group of drugs, gastric secretion is restored.

a)

M-cholinoblockers

b)

Uptake pump blockers

c)

Antacids

d)

H2-histamine receptor blockers

e)

Prokinetics

22.

Select a drug used in gastroenterology for the treatment of chronic hepatitis, cholangitis, cholecystitis, habitual constipation. It contains bile, garlic extract, nettle extract, activated carbon, and auxiliary substances.

a)

Festal

b)

Panzinorm

c)

Allochol

d)

Creon

23.

Inhibits alpha-glucosidase and slows down the absorption of glucose in the intestine.

a)

Acarbose

b)

exenatide

c)

Glucagon

d)

Nateglinide

e)

Pioglitazone

24.

Having a state of calm, tranquilizing or anxiolytic effect - the ability to reduce the state of internal tension.

a)

Tranquilizers

b)

Neuroleptics

c)

Antidepressants

d)

Psychostimulants

e)

Nootropics

25.

The mechanism of action of Levodopa is:

a)

MAO inhibitor

b)

Blocking MAO receptors

c)

Increasing dopamine deficiency

d)

Restoration of dopamine deficiency

e)

Dopamine receptor agonist

26.

Patient S. was admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis of coronary heart disease. From the anamnesis, it turned out that he also has bronchial asthma. Which antianginal drugs are contraindicated in this patient?

a)

Nitrates

b)

Cardiac glycosides + nitrates

c)

β-blockers (Beta-blockers)

d)

Calcium channel blockers

e)

Help in slow heart blockers

27.

A person with a history of subfebrile anemia took a drug without a doctor's prescription; after that, the patient developed abdominal pain, jaundice, and dark urine. This is a result of an overdose of which drug? And name a pharmacological antidote to eliminate the overdose.

a)

Paracetamol, acetylcysteine

b)

Aminazine, bemegride

c)

Diazepam, flumazenil

d)

Morphine, naloxone

e)

Aspirin, sodium bicarbonate

28.

A patient with epilepsy was prescribed a drug. Soon after regular use, he developed signs of a disorder in the activity of male sex hormones, which later led to gynecomastia and impotence. What drug did the patient use?

a)

Cimetidine

b)

Finasteride

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Ketoconazole

e)

Digoxin

29.

The mechanism of action of Selegiline is

a)

Blocking NMDA receptors

b)

Regulation of dopamine deficiency

c)

Blocking dopamine receptors

d)

Inhibition of histamine receptors

e)

Inhibition of MAO type B

30.

By blocking dopamine receptors in the central nervous system, productive symptoms of psychosis are eliminated. What pharmacological mechanism does this lead to?

a)

Antidepressant

b)

Analgesic

c)

Neuroleptic

d)

Antiparkinsonian

e)

Sleeping pill

31.

Specific reversible COMT inhibitor with peripheral action:

a)

Selegiline

b)

Levodopa

c)

Entacapone

d)

Carbidopa

e)

Amantadine

32.

Typical neuroleptic:

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Atensiol

c)

Clopixolum

d)

Risperidone

e)

Fenistilol

33.

Which of the following drugs induce metabolism of Warfarin and cause a decrease in its plasma concentration?

a)

Neodicumarin

b)

Fraxiparine

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Heparin

e)

Sinkumar

34.

Indications for prescribing pirenzepine:

a)

Laryngospasm, bronchial asthma, angina

b)

Raynaud's disease, obliterating endarteritis, pheochromocytoma

c)

Menier's disease, mydriasis

d)

Atony of the gastrointestinal tract and bladder, hypertension

e)

Gastric and duodenal ulcers, gastritis

35.

Effectiveness of heparin in patients with low activity of antithrombin: Ill Is:

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

c)

The Low level of antithrombin III increases heparin efficacy

d)

The high level of antithrombin III decreases heparin efficacy

e)

The level of antithrombin III does not influence heparin efficacy

36.

Patient K. was admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis of coronary heart disease. From the anamnesis it turned out that he also suffers from gout. Which drugs are contraindicated in this patient?

a)

Heparin sodium

b)

Dipyridamole

c)

Activators of K+ channels

d)

Beta-Adrenergic blockers

e)

L-type calcium channel blockers

37.

A patient with a gastric ulcer was prescribed a drug. Soon after regular use, he developed signs of a disorder in the activity of male sex hormones: gynecomastia and impotence. What drug did the patient use?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Omeprazole

c)

Pirenzepine

d)

Ranitidine

e)

Bismuth subcitrate

38.

Patient E. was admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis of coronary heart disease. From the anamnesis it turned out that he also suffers from bronchial asthma. Which drug is contraindicated in this patient?

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

Isosorbide dinitrate

c)

Propranolol

d)

Verapamil

e)

Amlodipine

39.

The patient complains of general weakness, nausea, thirst, swelling, infrequent urination. The disease st. otitis. Dally utine output is 600 ml protein is 2.2 g/1. Blood ESR is high. The most probable etiological factor:

a)

adenovirus

b)

Eschenchia coll

c)

Staphylococcus

d)

Streptococcus

e)

Rhinovirus infection

40.

What type of pericardial inflammation develops using transmural and subepicardial infraction:

a)

Fibrous

b)

Purulent

c)

Proliferative

d)

serous

e)

Catarrhal

41.

Thyroid disease characterized by massive lymphoid infiltration with follicle formation, follicular epithelial cells with Hürthle cells:

a)

Sporadic goiter

b)

Diffuse toxic goiter

c)

Riedel's thyroiditis

d)

Hashimoto's thyroiditis

e)

Subacute thyroiditis

42.

Patients with diabetes mellitus often have skin lesions in the form of furunculosis, fungal infections, trophic ulcers, and poor wound healing. What is the reason for these complications?

a)

Development of glucose toxicity

b)

increased synthesis of ketone bodies

c)

Activation of beta-oxidation of fatty acids

d)

Activation of protein catabolism

e)

Activation of lipolysis

43.

In hyperthyroidism, the expression of beta-adrenergic receptors in tissues increases under the influence of thyroid hormones. What occurs as a result?

a)

Tachycardia occurs

b)

Develops immune ophthalmopathy

c)

Tremor and muscle weakness occur

d)

Lowers blood pressure

e)

Basal metabolism is enhanced

44.

When a young woman with habitual non-pregnancy was examined, lupus anticoagulant-antiphospholipid antibody IgG was found. This is in favor of:

a)

Increased risk of hemorrhagic syndrome

b)

Activation of primary fibrinolysis

c)

Accelerated conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

d)

Increased risk of thrombosis

e)

Elevated antithrombin III levels

45.

In the early stages of the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis, the leading role is played by:

a)

Changes in the phenotype of synoviocytes

b)

Autoimmune mechanisms

c)

Destruction of articular cartilage

d)

Infiltration of pannus from synovial lining into cartilage

e)

Infiltration of the synovial membrane by NK cells

46.

In gout, sodium monourate is most commonly deposited as needle-shaped crystals in:

a)

Ventricular lung tissue

b)

Extracellularly in a vascular tissue

c)

Myocardium of the left ventricle

d)

Intracellularly in well-vascularized tissues

e)

The white matter of the brain

47.

A man suffered a terminal cardiac arrest due to an electrical injury in which current was passed through a left arm–right leg loop:

a)

Ventricular asystole

b)

Ventricular fibrillation

c)

Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

e)

Complete transverse blockade

48.

Diabetic microangiopathies are characterized by:

a)

Lesion of elastic vessels

b)

Generalized chaotaxy

c)

Atherosclerotic lesion

d)

Exudative inflammation

e)

Glucoprotein deposition in the walls of blood vessels

49.

Inhibition of fibrinogenesis

a)

Development of fibrosis

b)

Inhibition of the synthesis of growth factors

c)

Inhibition of collagen synthesis

d)

Regression of pancreatic necrosis foci

50.

Premature contraction of the heart caused by an impulse originating in one part of the intraventricular conducting system or ventricles is:

a)

Ventricular asystole

b)

Ventricular tachycardia

c)

Atrial fibrillation

d)

Atrial flutter

e)

Ventricular fibrillation

51.

A 56-year-old patient has a gastric ulcer associated with H. pylori. A study of stomach secretory function shows basal secretion of 90 units (normal 40-60 units) and total acidity of 50-100 mM/L. The secretory dysfunction is caused by excessive secretion of:

a)

Cholecystokinin

b)

Histamine

c)

Somatostatin

d)

Serotonin

e)

Dopamine

52.

A patient exhibits edema and thickening of the skin due to hydrophilic glycosaminoglycan accumulation in connective tissues. Other symptoms include decreased mental activity, drowsiness, fatigue, cold intolerance, general weakness, apathy, slow speech, and decreased intellect. These are characteristic of:

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Myxedema

c)

Euthyroidism

d)

Thyrotoxicosis

e)

Basedow’s disease

53.

Complication of recurrent warty endocarditis:

a)

Thrombosis of leg veins

b)

Mediastinitis

c)

Splenic infarction

d)

Purulent meningitis

e)

Pulmonary venous infarction

54.

The patient died of heart disease. During the autopsy, an irregular oval-shaped, yellow-colored, hemorrhagic section was found on the posterior wall of the left ventricle of the heart. In the center of the focus, the myocardium is torn, and blood is collected in the pericardial sac. Choose the correct statement for this situation.

a)

This pathology is chronic ischemic heart disease; its complication is pulmonary hemosiderosis.

b)

This pathology is chronic ischemic heart disease; its complication is pulmonary edema.

c)

This pathology is acute ischemic heart disease; its complication is pulmonary hemosiderosis.

d)

This pathology is acute ischemic heart disease; its complication is induration of the lungs.

e)

This pathology is acute ischemic heart disease; its complication is hemopericardium.

55.

The method used by a pathologist to determine the etiology of viral encephalitis:

a)

Polarization

b)

Immunohistochemical

c)

Cytological

d)

Immunobiological

e)

Fluorescent

56.

Selective damage to motor neurons in the gray matter of the anterior horns of the spinal cord in the cervical-thoracic region occurs in:

a)

Meningoencephalitic type of tick-borne encephalitis

b)

Polyencephalomeningeal type of tick-borne encephalitis

c)

Polioencephalitic type of tick-borne encephalitis

d)

Meningeal type of tick-borne encephalitis

e)

Poliomyelitic type of tick-borne encephalitis

57.

Additional route of tick-borne encephalitis infection (other than transmissive):

a)

Parenteral

b)

Alimentary

c)

Airborne

d)

Contact household

e)

Sexual

58.

Secondary changes in keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma of the skin:

a)

Necrosis

b)

Mucinization

c)

Proliferation

d)

Encapsulation

e)

Metastasis

59.

Characteristic symptom of restrictive cardiomyopathy:

a)

Myocardium color is dirty yellow

b)

Ventricles are not dilated

c)

Ventricles are enlarged

d)

Myocardium appearance is mottled

e)

Left ventricle dilatation

60.

Negative outcome of endocarditis:

a)

Pericarditis

b)

Development of heart defect

c)

Diffuse cardiosclerosis

d)

Amyloidosis

e)

Scarring

61.

A 45-year-old woman had uterine bleeding, and a diagnostic curettage was taken from the endometrium. Histological analysis showed irregularly shaped glands in the endometrium, and stromal cells were hyperplastic. Choose the correct statement for this case:

a)

This pathological process is adenomyosis.

b)

This pathological process is endocervicosis.

c)

As a complication, uterine polyps often develop.

d)

As a complication, uterine cancer may develop.

e)

The endometrium becomes thinner in this pathology.

62.

The main pathological process in thrombocytopenia:

a)

Hemorrhagic syndrome

b)

Hypercoagulation

c)

Immunodeficiency syndrome

d)

Hepatorenal syndrome

e)

Nephrotic syndrome

63.

Patients with diabetes mellitus often have skin lesions in the form of furunculosis, fungal infections, trophic ulcers, and poor wound healing. The development of glucose toxicity:

a)

Decreased synthesis of ketone bodies

b)

Activation of beta-oxidation of fatty acids

c)

Activation of protein catabolism

d)

Activation of lipolysis

64.

In hyperthyroidism, the expression of beta-adrenergic receptors in tissues increases under the influence of thyroid hormones:

a)

Develops immune ophthalmopathy

b)

Tremor and muscle weakness occur

c)

Heart blood pressure rises

d)

Basal metabolism is enhanced

65.

Examination of the ventilation function of the lungs revealed a decrease in the volume of forced expiration in 1 second, a decrease in vital capacity. These indicators are typical for:

a)

Bronchial asthma

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Fibrous pleurisy

d)

Hydrothorax

e)

Pulmonary atelectasis

66.

A newborn has acute respiratory failure as a result of the development of primary atelectasis and interstitial pulmonary edema. The development of which is based on:

a)

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

b)

Bronchial patency disorder

c)

Deficiency or reduced surfactant activity

d)

Increasing the surface tension of the alveoli

e)

Impaired diffusion of gases

67.

At the end of the first week, a patient with ALF has lethargy, muscle hypotonia, and hyporeflexia. Data is characterized by the following disturbances in homeostasis:

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Increasing hyperazotemia

c)

Hyperhydration of the body

d)

Hypouricemia

e)

Increased protein catabolism

68.

A patient with sepsis developed acute lung injury accompanied by severe hypoxemia that does not respond to oxygen therapy, a decrease in lung extensibility, and bilateral pulmonary infiltration. In the pathogenesis of this syndrome, an important role is played by:

a)

Reduced permeability of alveolo-capillary membranes

b)

Alveoli hyperventilation

c)

Increased oxygen infiltration

d)

Increased production of inflammatory mediators

e)

Enhanced surfactant synthesis

69.

The mechanism of aortic aneurysm development in syphilis:

a)

Disruption of the aortic elastic layer due to gummatous infiltrate

b)

Disruption of the aortic elastic layer due to atherosclerotic changes

c)

Development of the aneurysm due to thickening of the aortic elastic layer

d)

Disruption of the elastic layer due to high pressure in the aorta

e)

Disruption of the aortic elastic layer due to gumma effect

70.

The characteristic sign of primary syphilis is:

a)

Syphilides formation

b)

Hard chancre formation

c)

Acute interstitial inflammation develops

d)

Gummas formation

e)

Chronic interstitial inflammation develops

71.

Changes identified in the small intestine during the third stage of typhoid fever include:

a)

Scar formation

b)

"Dirty" ulcers

c)

Gangrene

d)

Brain-like swelling

e)

Venous congestion

72.

Immunosuppression in leukemia leads to:

a)

Lesions of thoracic and cervical lymph nodes

b)

Splenomegaly and proliferation of blast cells

c)

Amyloidosis and paranephrotic edema

d)

Myeloma damage to the kidneys and amyloidosis

e)

Ulcerative-necrotic changes and sepsis

73.

Macroscopic changes in the intestinal wall during diphtheritic colitis:

a)

Intestinal wall is thickened

b)

Meissner’s plexus dystrophy

c)

Leukocytic infiltration

d)

Lymphocytic infiltration

e)

Intestinal wall is thinned

74.

Type of generalized hematogenic tuberculosis:

a)

Chronic miliary tuberculosis

b)

Primary pulmonary cavern

c)

Very acute tuberculosis sepsis

d)

Growth of primary affect

e)

Formation of caverns

75.

Source of influenza infection:

a)

Domestic animals

b)

Bats

c)

Birds

d)

Virus carriers

e)

Sick person

76.

What characteristic tissue reaction develops in the lymph nodes of the lungs during tuberculous lymphadenitis?

a)

Fibrinoid necrosis

b)

Dystrophic changes

c)

Purulent inflammation

d)

Caseous necrosis, granuloma

e)

Hemorrhagic inflammation

77.

Patient K. has ischemic stroke. Spastic left-sided paralysis of the upper extremity developed. This indicates damage to which of the following gyrus of the cerebral hemispheres?

a)

Hippocampal

b)

Superior temporal

c)

Postcentral

d)

Inferior frontal

e)

Precentral

78.

The main informative component of the azotemia index in chronic renal failure is:

a)

hypophosphateria and hypocalcemia

b)

metabolic acidosis

c)

creatinine and hypokalemia

d)

hypo- and dysproteinemia

e)

creatinine and urea

79.

In the pathogenesis of postmenopausal osteoporosis, the following plays an important role:

a)

inhibition of expression by RANKt osteoblasts

b)

overexpression of the RANK ligand

c)

Activating the Wnt Signaling Pathway

d)

Overexpression of OPG

e)

decrease in interleukin production 1: 6

80.

Inflammatory lung hardening syndrome is characterized by:

a)

decrease in mucociliary clearance rate

b)

reduction of mucus production by goblet cells

c)

enhanced antibacterial activity of mucus

d)

increased surfactant formation

e)

reduction of sputum viscosity and adhesion

81.

When coronary blood flow is severely impaired, in the myocardium ischemia, damage and necrosis develop active electrode records:

a)

Packer waves 1

b)

ST segment depression

c)

abnormal Q spike

d)

negative T wave

e)

prolongation of the PQ interval

82.

Medicines for the treatment of patients with psychosis:

a)

Tranquilizers

b)

Narcotic analgesics

c)

Antiparkinsonian drugs

d)

Neuroleptics

e)

Antidepressants

83.

In young children, compared to adults, respiratory failure develops more quickly in similar situation:

a)

insufficient development of elastic fibers in lung tissue

b)

low oxygen demand

c)

low aperture

d)

greater depth of breathing, inhalation and exhalation reserves

e)

large diameter of bronchi and trachea

84.

A 47-year-old female patient, in the last 2 months, complained of attacks of suffocation with examination: diffuse cyanosis, distant dry crackles, participation of auxiliary muscles in the a The Tiffno Index is 57%. In the development of this typical form of pathology, the following is

a)

inhibition of the cholinergic nervous system

b)

enhanced production of vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

c)

decreased production of neurokinin A

d)

activation of alpha adrenergic receptors

e)

activation of beta-2-adrenergic receptors

85.

A 63-year-old man complains for nausea, vomiting. and a visual sensation of green-yellow circles around diagnosed with heart failure and atrial fibrillation and started appropriate treatment two weeks earlier. Medications most likely caused the symptoms in this patient?

a)

Orthostatic hypotension is caused by taking nitrates

b)

Tachycardia is caused by vasodilators

c)

Digitalis intoxication is caused by taking cardiac glycosides

d)

Angina pectons and 'steal' syndrome

e)

Hypertensive crisis is caused by cardiotonic drugs

86.

Cholestyramine enters into a complex with bile acids and endotoxins, belongs to the group:

a)

astringent

b)

antiemetic

c)

enveloping

d)

adsorbing

e)

antispasmodics

87.

Complications of type 2 diabetes mellitus:

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Melanoderma, liver cirrhosis

c)

Gastrointestinal bleeding

d)

Obstructive jaundice

e)

Pyoderma, blindness

88.

Thyroid disease characterized by massive lymphoid infiltration with follicle formation, follicular epithelial cells with increased:

a)

Sporadic goiter

b)

Diffuse tonic goiter

c)

Redel's thyroiditis

d)

Endemic goiter

e)

Autoimmune thyroiditis

89.

Select a drug from the group of monoclonal antibodies to TNF alpha:

a)

Infinomab

b)

Sulfinpyrazone

c)

Auronofin

d)

Leflunomide

e)

Penicillamine

90.

What are the pharmacological effects of glucocorticosteroids used in the treatment of rheumatic diseases?

a)

As a replacement therapy

b)

Antiallergic, anti-shock

c)

Anti-inflammatory, anti-shock

d)

Immunosuppressive, anti-shock

e)

Immunosuppressive, anti-inflammatory

91.

Colchicine in an inflamed joint with gout:

a)

Inhibits COX-1 and COX-2

b)

Binds beta tubulin, inhibits mitosis, disrupts leukocyte chemotaxis, and disrupts urate phagocytosis

c)

Activates the enzyme xanthine oxidase

d)

Blocks the enzyme xanthine oxidase

e)

Inhibits phospholipase A-2

92.

Patient O., 32 years old, with infertility, was diagnosed with oligozoospermia caused by a disorder of spermatogenesis. Dysfunction is associated with damage to the following testicular structures:

a)

Seminal vesicles

b)

Albuginea membrane of the testicles

c)

Straight seminiferous tubules

d)

Convoluted seminiferous tubules

e)

Testicular interstitial tissue

93.

Patient R., 58 years old, with acute myocardial infarction, is infused with thrombolytic drugs (rheopolyglucin) with simultaneous administration of heparin. The result of therapy may be the development of reperfusion syndrome, one of the manifestations of which is:

a)

Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome

b)

No-reflow syndrome

c)

Chronic right ventricular failure syndrome

d)

Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome

e)

Dressler syndrome

94.

What is the name of the condition when the action of levodopa becomes irregular (alternating between 'on' and off):

a)

Dystonia

b)

the on-off phenomenon

c)

paresthesis

d)

Cholinergic crisis

95.

In stage 3 of DIC, depletion of plasma factors, activation of fibrinolysis, and thrombocytopenia lead to the development of:

a)

Tissue ischemia

b)

Hemorrhagic syndrome

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Thromboemboli

96.

Which stage of syphilis develops as a manifestation of the slow (delayed) type of hypersensitivity:

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

97.

Thyroid disease leading to the following heart changes: left ventricular hypertrophy, serous edema, lymphoid infiltration of interstitial tissue, intracellular edema of muscle fibers:

a)

Hashimoto's thyroiditis (Autoimmune thyroiditis)

b)

Endemic goiter

c)

Sporadic goiter

d)

Riedels thyroiditis

e)

Myxedema

98.

Patient O., 30 years old, with mitral stenosis has a heart rhythm disorder with chaotically different

R-R intervals and absence of a smooth isoline between QRS complexes. What type of arrhythmia

has developed in the patient? Indicate where the ectopic activity foci generating impulses are

most often localised in this arrhythmia

a)

coronary sinus

b)

Tachycardia, superior vena cava

c)

nodal tachycardia, atrioventricular node

d)

Atrial fibrillation, upper pulmonary vein muscular coupling (ectopic foci)

e)

posterior wall of right atrium

99.

Primary glandular hypoparathyroidism is characterized by

a)

Bone decalcification

b)

Increased bone resorption

c)

advanced education 1, 25(OH)2D3

d)

Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia

e)

hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia

100.

Which drug is used as calcium channel antagonist?

a)

verapamil/nifedipine/ amlodipine/diltiazem

b)

ivabadrin

c)

Bromocriptine

101.

Which drug is NOT a calcium channel antagonist?

a)

verapamil

b)

nifedipine

c)

ivabadrin

d)

amlodipine

e)

diltiazem

102.

Disrupts the synthesis of nucleic acids, Is an antagonist of folic acid:

a)
Leflunomide
b)

Methotrexate

c)

Infliximab

103.

The threshold for the development of irreversible changes in neurons is the level of perfusion:

a)

80ml/100g/ min-1

b)

50ml/100g/ min-1

c)

35ml/100g/ min-1

d)

20ml/100g/ min-1

e)

10 ml/100 g/ min-1 or less

104.

What morphological changes can most often can be detected in moderated influenza:

a)

Chronic bronchitis

b)

Generalized bronchospasm

c)

Necrotic tracheitis

105.

Causes of thyrotoxicosis:

a)

Hashimoto's goiter

b)

Redel's thyroiditis

c)

Colloid goiter

d)

Thyroiditis, Grave's disease