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FOH Ch 2: Theory, Research and EBP

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which issue best describes nurses enabling individuals and communities to improve well-being proactively?

a)

Adaptation to pathophysiologic processes

b)

Role performance within relationships

c)

Promotion of health and wellness

d)

Meanings ascribed to illness concepts

2.

A primary nursing focus that ensures patients receive reliable, effective care processes is called:

a)

Safety and quality of care

b)

Environmental health protection

c)

Health literacy education

d)

Social policy advocacy

3.

Which item reflects coordinating services across providers to meet patient needs?

a)

Decision-making facilitation

b)

Spiritual comfort support

c)

Care coordination activities

d)

Cultural sensitivity training

4.

Nursing attention to physical, emotional, and spiritual states primarily targets:

a)

Health systems financing

b)

Comfort, discomfort, and pain

c)

Policy change processes

d)

Linguistic accessibility

5.

Teaching patients to obtain, understand, and use health information most closely relates to:

a)

Health literacy

b)

Pathophysiologic adaptation

c)

Social relationship changes

d)

Environmental injury prevention

6.

When nurses evaluate how policies influence community outcomes such as access and equity, they address:

a)

Comfort and pain management

b)

Role performance within relationships

c)

Emotions across life experiences

d)

Social policies and their effects on health

7.

Considering access, cost, and quality across delivery organizations pertains to:

a)

Self-care process support

b)

Environmental disease prevention

c)

Decision-making abilities

d)

Healthcare systems relationships

8.

Which statement best describes traditional knowledge in health practice?

a)

Opinions formed through personal clinical experience

b)

Guidance issued by regulatory agencies and boards

c)

Findings derived from controlled experimental research

d)

Beliefs transmitted across generations in communities

9.

A nurse follows dosing guidance from a senior specialist because of the specialist’s perceived expertise. What source of knowledge is being used?

a)

Traditional knowledge

b)

Authoritative knowledge

c)

Anecdotal knowledge

d)

Scientific knowledge

10.

Which statement best describes a limitation of traditional and authoritative knowledge in clinical practice?

a)

Often grounded in subjective data, reducing generalizability

b)

Strictly based on standardized objective measurements and protocols

c)

Primarily derived from randomized controlled trials and meta-analyses

d)

Universally applicable across all patient populations and settings

11.

Which statement best characterizes traditional and authoritative knowledge in healthcare practice?

a)

Rarely practical and primarily based on objective data

b)

Practical to implement but often based on subjective data

c)

Always research-validated and universally applicable

d)

Mainly theoretical with limited clinical relevance

12.

What limitation is commonly associated with traditional and authoritative knowledge?

a)

Excessive dependence on randomized controlled trials

b)

Reliance on subjective data reduces generalizability

c)

Overuse of statistical modeling in decisions

d)

Inability to be implemented in clinical settings

13.

In diverse clinical settings, why might traditional and authoritative approaches be less useful?

a)

They depend on context-specific subjective observations

b)

They require advanced laboratory infrastructure

c)

They mandate lengthy informed consent procedures

d)

They prioritize cost over patient outcomes

14.

Which example best illustrates subjective data underpinning traditional knowledge?

a)

Nurse reports “patient seems anxious” during rounds

b)

Serum potassium measured at 3.2 mmol/L

c)

Blood pressure recorded at 138/84 mmHg

d)

Urinalysis showing positive nitrites

15.

A clinician relies on a senior physician’s advice without evidence appraisal. What type of knowledge is used?

a)

Statistical knowledge based on meta-analysis

b)

Intuitive knowledge validated by biomarkers

c)

Empirical knowledge derived from controlled trials

d)

Authoritative knowledge guided by expert opinion

16.

Which statement aligns with the provided rationale?

a)

Subjective data always increases external validity

b)

Authoritative knowledge is never practical in clinics

c)

Only objective measures ensure practical implementation

d)

Practical approaches may be limited by subjective foundations

17.

When designing protocols for multiple hospitals, why might authoritative guidance fall short?

a)

It violates ethical standards for human subjects

b)

It lacks robust objective evidence across contexts

c)

It requires prohibitively expensive equipment

d)

It excludes interprofessional collaboration by design

18.

Which of the following is subjective data in nursing assessment?

a)

Patient states “my pain is worse at night”

b)

Respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute

c)

Capillary glucose is 108 mg/dL

d)

Temperature measured at 37.9°C

19.

Which question reflects DoK 2 application of the rationale?

a)

List three objective measures in vital signs

b)

Name the two knowledge types mentioned

c)

Evaluate when subjective-based protocols hinder scalability

d)

Define subjective data precisely

20.

Which statement best captures a key influence attributed to Nightingale on nursing knowledge?

a)

Standardizing hospital architecture and ventilation systems

b)

Demonstrating efficient and knowledgeable patient care

c)

Advocating for physician-led oversight of all nursing tasks

d)

Prioritizing military triage over civilian health services

21.

What did Nightingale’s work help establish about the nature of nursing practice?

a)

Merging nursing with social work responsibilities

b)

Limiting nursing to bedside technical procedures

c)

Defining nursing practice as separate and distinct

d)

Integrating nursing under general medical practice

22.

During wartime, which societal change most directly affected the nursing workforce?

a)

Nurses transitioning exclusively to research

b)

Women leaving hospitals for factory work

c)

Women entering the workforce due to war

d)

Men replacing nurses in all clinical roles

23.

Which option best differentiates health nursing from illness nursing as emphasized historically?

a)

Health nursing concentrates solely on acute disease management

b)

Illness nursing primarily targets community-wide health promotion

c)

Illness nursing eliminates preventive interventions altogether

d)

Health nursing focuses on promoting wellness across populations

24.

Which statement best represents the shift of nursing to a science?

a)

Preference for intuition over measurable outcomes

b)

Emphasis on unstructured experiential learning

c)

Use of evidence to guide systematic care

d)

Reliance on tradition rather than empirical data

25.

Which statement best defines a theory in nursing practice?

a)

A statistical summary of research findings

b)

An unchangeable rule for patient care

c)

A group of concepts describing a reality pattern

d)

A tested checklist for clinical procedures

26.

What is a concept within nursing theory?

a)

A mandatory policy for documentation

b)

An abstract impression symbolizing reality

c)

A concrete tool used in bedside care

d)

A numeric variable measured in labs

27.

Which description fits a conceptual framework in nursing?

a)

A protocol for medication administration steps

b)

A group of concepts following an understandable pattern

c)

A list of skills required for licensure

d)

A single hypothesis guiding one experiment

28.

Why is nursing theory developed as a distinct body of knowledge?

a)

To replace medical diagnoses entirely

b)

To describe nursing and differentiate it from other disciplines

c)

To standardize hospital billing procedures

d)

To limit autonomy of advanced practice nurses

29.

Which method characterizes deductive reasoning in clinical decision-making?

a)

Start with general ideas, consider specific actions

b)

Begin with specific cases, infer general principles

c)

Collect data without forming any conclusions

d)

Rely on intuition without structured analysis

30.

A nurse observes several patients improving after a new positioning technique and concludes it may benefit most post-op clients. Which reasoning type is used?

a)

Inductive reasoning from specific observations

b)

Abductive reasoning toward best explanations

c)

Deductive reasoning from general rules

d)

Analogical reasoning across unrelated fields

31.

Which statement correctly contrasts deductive and inductive reasoning?

a)

Deduction moves from general to specific; induction from specific to general

b)

Deduction validates hypotheses; induction creates policies for hospitals

c)

Deduction depends on opinions; induction avoids evidence entirely

d)

Deduction is qualitative; induction exclusively quantitative

32.

A nurse examines a general nursing theory and then evaluates specific actions it implies for patient care. Which type of reasoning is being used?

a)

Abductive reasoning inferring best explanation

b)

Inductive reasoning from cases to rules

c)

Deductive reasoning from general to specific

d)

Heuristic reasoning using trial strategies

33.

Which statement best defines deductive reasoning in nursing practice?

a)

Deriving a theory from multiple case observations

b)

Applying a broad theory to predict specific actions

c)

Selecting the most plausible cause from findings

d)

Using rules of thumb to make quick decisions

34.

A nurse starts with a theory about pressure injury prevention and determines exact turning schedules for a patient. This illustrates which approach?

a)

Deductive approach moving from theory to action

b)

Inductive approach building theory from cases

c)

Abductive approach choosing likely hypothesis

d)

Intuitive approach relying on gut feeling

35.

When testing a nursing theory by considering its concrete patient-care steps, the reasoning proceeds in which direction?

a)

From partial data to best explanations

b)

From specific instances to general principles

c)

From general principles to specific applications

d)

From habits to non-evidence-based practices

36.

True or False: Evaluating specific actions after examining the nursing theory itself is deductive reasoning.

a)

Cannot be determined

b)

Sometimes true only

c)

False

d)

True

37.

Adaptation theory primarily explains which process relevant to care planning?

a)

Mapping growth from conception to death

b)

Segmentation of care into subsystems

c)

Classification of health promotion strategies

d)

Adjustment of living matter to environment

38.

Developmental theory in nursing emphasizes what central idea?

a)

Orderly growth across the lifespan

b)

Random change driven by stressors

c)

Immediate symptom relief in illness

d)

Static traits determined at birth

39.

A nurse breaks a complex discharge plan into interrelated components to see how they affect each other. Which theory guides this approach?

a)

General systems perspective on care

b)

Adaptation perspective to stress

c)

Developmental perspective on tasks

d)

Holistic perspective of spirituality

40.

Planning anticipatory guidance for adolescence, adulthood, and older age uses which theoretical tradition?

a)

Holistic care framework

b)

Adaptation response framework

c)

Systems integration framework

d)

Developmental trajectory framework

41.

Individualized care aims to achieve what outcome?

a)

Standardizing care to minimize variation

b)

Reducing documentation without assessment

c)

Applying identical plans for all cases

d)

Tailoring interventions to specific patient needs

42.

Which pair of aims most directly promotes public health outcomes?

a)

Acute treatment and disease staging

b)

Developmental tracking and stress adaptation

c)

Holistic care and systems analysis

d)

Promotion of health and illness prevention

43.

Common concepts across nursing theories typically include which set?

a)

Cells, organs, genetics, pathogens

b)

Person, environment, health, nursing

c)

Provider, policy, funding, technology

d)

Law, ethics, culture, economics

44.

A care plan explicitly considers patient preferences, living conditions, community resources, and functional goals. Which core concepts are being integrated?

a)

Person, environment, health, nursing

b)

Data, algorithms, outcomes, metrics

c)

Policy, finance, technology, equity

d)

Disease, diagnosis, prognosis, cure

45.

During assessment, a nurse evaluates how neighborhood safety affects a patient's activity level. Which concept is most central?

a)

Health defined only by labs

b)

Nursing as purely task-oriented

c)

The person independent of context

d)

The environment influencing health

46.

Which statement best reflects the central concept emphasized in nursing theory as shown in the diagram of a nurse engaging with a patient?

a)

The nurse’s tasks drive care decisions

b)

Disease pathology defines nursing priorities

c)

The environment is the primary nursing focus

d)

The person (patient) is the core of care

47.

A nurse plans a shift using patient-centered care. Which action aligns with prioritizing the person as the core of care depicted in the diagram?

a)

Decide interventions solely from lab results

b)

Follow standardized protocols without discussion

c)

Schedule tasks strictly by unit routines

d)

Invite the patient to set care goals

48.

Which of the following is the central theme in theoretical frameworks of nursing?

a)

The health care environment

b)

The person providing the care

c)

The nursing care plan

d)

The person receiving the care

49.

What is the central theme across nursing theoretical frameworks?

a)

Interprofessional collaboration models

b)

Advanced medical technology

c)

Institutional policy standards

d)

The person receiving care

50.

Different nursing theories vary mainly in how they define which components?

a)

Pharmacology, surgery, and diagnostics

b)

Research methods, statistics, and sampling

c)

Billing, scheduling, staffing, and payroll

d)

Person, environment, health, and nursing

51.

Why do distinct nursing theories have unique focuses?

a)

They define person, environment, health, and nursing differently

b)

They use identical definitions across all frameworks

c)

They avoid considering the care recipient

d)

They rely solely on hospital protocols

52.

In nursing frameworks, who is at the center of care activities?

a)

The person receiving care

b)

The healthcare institution

c)

The insurance provider

d)

The technology vendor

53.

Which statement best defines scientific inquiry in health research?

a)

Depends unstructured observations and intuition

b)

Applies anecdotes to predict future outcomes

c)

Relies expert opinion without collected data

d)

Uses observable, verifiable data to describe events

54.

Which is a general goal of research across disciplines?

a)

Replace all clinical judgment decisions

b)

Develop explanations articulated in theories

c)

Increase reimbursement from insurers

d)

Reduce time spent on documentation

55.

Another general goal of research is to find solutions to which target?

a)

Personal career development goals

b)

Historical controversies in art

c)

Clearly defined problems in practice

d)

Routine scheduling of staff shifts

56.

In nursing research, which primary aim focuses on patients in the clinical setting?

a)

Reduce nurse continuing education hours

b)

Expand pharmaceutical market share

c)

Enhance hospital architectural design

d)

Improve care of people receiving services

57.

Studying people and the nursing process commonly includes which domain?

a)

Education as a focus of inquiry

b)

Culinary arts for staff meals

c)

Meteorology for unit planning

d)

Astrophysics for night-shift needs

58.

Which topic fits under studying the nursing process in research?

a)

Real estate valuation methods

b)

Policy development in health systems

c)

Sports management for recreation

d)

Agricultural crop rotation cycles

59.

Which additional area is often examined when researching people and nursing processes?

a)

Tourism management principles

b)

Automotive engine design

c)

Fashion trends in uniforms

d)

Ethics in professional decision-making

60.

Nursing research seeks to develop greater autonomy and strength primarily for which entity?

a)

The nursing profession as a whole

b)

Regional insurance consortiums

c)

Individual medical device companies

d)

Hospital janitorial departments

61.

Providing evidence-based nursing practice most directly depends on which activity?

a)

Generating and applying robust research

b)

Replacing all clinical documentation

c)

Increasing brand loyalty campaigns

d)

Eliminating patient preferences entirely

62.

Which goal of the National Institute of Nursing Research targets symptom burden from illness?

a)

Manage and eliminate distressing symptoms

b)

Promote elective cosmetic procedures

c)

Standardize nonclinical administrative tasks

d)

Focus solely on laboratory chemistry

63.

Which NINR goal emphasizes building foundations for clinical practice?

a)

Develop the scientific basis for care

b)

Expand entertainment services onsite

c)

Limit access to palliative resources

d)

Privatize all community health centers

64.

Which statement best distinguishes quantitative from qualitative research in health sciences?

a)

Quantitative uses numerical measures and statistical tests

b)

Qualitative prioritizes controlled trials and randomization

c)

Qualitative relies on standardized instruments and large samples

d)

Quantitative explores meanings through participant narratives

65.

Which purpose aligns with qualitative research in nursing?

a)

Gaining insight by discovering meanings

b)

Testing cause–effect relationships

c)

Calculating measurement reliability coefficients

d)

Generating precise prevalence estimates

66.

Which belief underpins qualitative inquiry?

a)

Sampling must be probability-based for validity

b)

Variables are manipulated to test hypotheses

c)

Reality is based on perceptions that vary over time

d)

Reality is fixed and measurable across individuals

67.

Basic research in nursing is primarily designed to do what?

a)

Implement evidence-based protocols

b)

Evaluate patient satisfaction scores

c)

Directly improve clinical practice

d)

Generate and refine theory

68.

Applied research is best described as research that

a)

Directly influences or improves clinical practice

b)

Avoids patient-oriented outcomes

c)

Is rarely useful in practice settings

d)

Focuses solely on theory generation

69.

Which variable represents the outcome measured in an experiment?

a)

Independent variable

b)

Dependent variable

c)

Instrument variable

d)

Extraneous variable

70.

What is a hypothesis in quantitative research?

a)

A standardized tool for data collection

b)

A testable statement predicting relationships

c)

A dataset cleaned for analysis

d)

A random sample of study participants

71.

Which item is an example of an instrument in quantitative research?

a)

A validated blood pressure monitor

b)

An untested theoretical framework

c)

A predicted correlation coefficient

d)

A convenience sample roster

72.

A study examining the association between stress and blood glucose without intervention is

a)

Experimental

b)

Correlational

c)

Quasi-experimental

d)

Descriptive

73.

Which design includes an intervention but lacks random assignment?

a)

Descriptive

b)

Correlational

c)

Experimental

d)

Quasi-experimental

74.

Which design features random assignment and controlled manipulation of variables?

a)

Experimental

b)

Descriptive

c)

Correlational

d)

Case series

75.

Which step should come first when planning a quantitative study?

a)

Reporting clinical implications

b)

Formulating a clear hypothesis

c)

Performing statistical analysis

d)

Implementing the intervention

76.

A nurse researcher wants immediate practice change. Which research type is most appropriate?

a)

Basic research

b)

Applied research

c)

Ethnographic research

d)

Meta-theoretical research

77.

Which step in quantitative research comes first when structuring a study?

a)

Analyze statistical outputs

b)

Collect and code data

c)

State the research problem

d)

Select research design

78.

At what point in quantitative research are hypotheses and variables most appropriately established?

a)

Simultaneous with sampling decisions

b)

After analyzing collected data

c)

Immediately after reviewing literature

d)

Just before communicating findings

79.

Which action logically follows selecting a research design in quantitative studies?

a)

Formulate hypotheses again

b)

Select population and sample

c)

Define the study purpose

d)

Communicate conclusions early

80.

Which step is primarily concerned with turning observations into numbers suitable for analysis?

a)

Formulate variables

b)

Review related literature

c)

Collect data

d)

Select research design

81.

Which pair of steps occurs at the end of a quantitative project?

a)

Collect data; analyze data

b)

Formulate hypotheses; define purpose

c)

Review literature; select sample

d)

Analyze data; communicate findings

82.

Which qualitative method is best aligned with exploring lived experience of patients with chronic pain?

a)

Ethnographic fieldwork

b)

Phenomenological inquiry

c)

Historical document review

d)

Grounded theory approach

83.

A researcher aims to build a theory from iterative coding of interviews about nurse handoffs. Which method fits?

a)

Phenomenology approach

b)

Grounded theory method

c)

Ethnography design

d)

Historical technique

84.

Studying cultural practices of a surgical team over months of observation most closely exemplifies which method?

a)

Historical review

b)

Phenomenology study

c)

Ethnography approach

d)

Grounded theory work

85.

Analyzing archival records to understand development of public health nursing best matches which qualitative method?

a)

Phenomenology interview

b)

Ethnographic immersion

c)

Grounded theory analysis

d)

Historical research

86.

Which sequence best represents the overall flow of a quantitative study?

a)

Select sample → choose design → analyze findings

b)

Communicate conclusions → collect data → select design

c)

Review literature → communicate findings → state problem

d)

Define purpose → review literature → formulate hypotheses

87.

Which ethical consideration ensures a study asks a meaningful question and can improve health outcomes?

a)

Value through social and clinical benefit

b)

Scientific validity of study methods

c)

Respect for enrolled human subjects

d)

Independent review by external board

88.

Which action best demonstrates fair subject selection in clinical research?

a)

Recruiting only easily accessible patients

b)

Prioritizing volunteers who donate funds

c)

Sampling based on scientific relevance

d)

Excluding high‑risk groups categorically

89.

A trial proposes invasive procedures with minimal expected benefit. Which ethical criterion is most at risk?

a)

Informed consent documentation

b)

Value for communities and patients

c)

Favorable risk–benefit assessment

d)

Independent external review process

90.

Which element of informed consent is essential to uphold autonomy?

a)

Use of randomization procedures

b)

Disclosure of risks and alternatives

c)

External monitoring committees

d)

Preference for low‑cost therapies

91.

Which practice exemplifies respect for enrolled subjects during and after the study?

a)

Limiting access to trial results

b)

Ensuring privacy and right to withdraw

c)

Stopping data monitoring early

d)

Restricting post‑trial care options

92.

Which statement best reflects the basis of phenomenology in qualitative research?

a)

Understanding lived experience and meaning-making

b)

Measuring variables through controlled experiments

c)

Generating theory from coded data patterns

d)

Predicting outcomes using statistical modeling

93.

Which statement best reflects the basis of grounded theory as described?

a)

Aggregates numerical trends across large samples

b)

Measures causal effects using controlled experiments

c)

Discovers how people describe their own reality

d)

Explains universal laws detached from context

94.

What was the correctness of Question #4 according to the provided answer?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

c)

C. Cannot be determined

d)

D. Partially true

95.

Grounded theory primarily aims to do which of the following?

a)

Test predefined hypotheses deductively

b)

Discover reality descriptions from participants

c)

Model physiological mechanisms quantitatively

d)

Validate measurement instruments psychometrically

96.

What element connects people’s beliefs to their behaviors in grounded theory?

a)

Social scene interactions and context

b)

Biochemical pathways involvement

c)

Longitudinal time series patterns

d)

Genomic variation differences

97.

Which statement best defines evidence-based practice in clinical decision-making?

a)

Using tradition as the primary care guide

b)

Problem-solving using best available evidence

c)

Following physician orders without critique

d)

Relying solely on personal clinical intuition

98.

Evidence-based practice blends which two aspects to achieve optimal patient outcomes?

a)

Science and art of nursing

b)

Technology and documentation

c)

Policy and reimbursement

d)

Administration and staffing

99.

What does the use of evidence-based practice mandate regarding research?

a)

Replication without critical appraisal

b)

Discarding studies with negative results

c)

Analysis and systematic review of findings

d)

Selective reading of headlines only

100.

Which option describes how EBP may be applied in patient care?

a)

Specific interventions or established guidelines

b)

Unstructured trial-and-error approaches

c)

Randomly chosen treatments for variety

d)

Individual nurse preferences alone

101.

In the PICOT format, what does the letter P represent?

a)

Patient, population, or problem

b)

Procedure and protocol

c)

Provider and prescriber

d)

Pathology and prognosis

102.

In the PICOT format, what does I stand for?

a)

Intervention of interest

b)

Intensity of therapy

c)

Insurance information

d)

Internal validity

103.

Within PICOT, the letter C refers to which element?

a)

Comparison of interest

b)

Control group only

c)

Complication risk

d)

Care setting

104.

What does T indicate in the PICOT framework?

a)

Time

b)

Treatment

c)

Threshold

d)

Trend

105.

Which initial step is essential when reading and critiquing a research article?

a)

Skim the abstract only

b)

Confirm journal impact factor

c)

Review the elements of the article

d)

Check author social profiles

106.

When critiquing evidence, what should be determined using a scale?

a)

Popularity of the topic

b)

Number of references cited

c)

Level and quality of the evidence

d)

Length of the manuscript

107.

After appraisal, what decision must be made regarding a study?

a)

Whether the title is engaging

b)

If it has colorful figures

c)

Whether it matches personal beliefs

d)

Applicability to your practice

108.

A nurse plans to reduce post-operative infections using EBP. Which action aligns with EBP principles?

a)

Adopt the newest product blindly

b)

Avoid reading recent trials

c)

Use favorite dressing method

d)

Integrate guideline recommendations

109.

Formulate a PICOT question for pressure ulcer prevention. Which option correctly identifies the C component?

a)

Use of pressure-relieving mattresses

b)

Ulcer incidence over eight weeks

c)

Adults at risk in long-term care

d)

Standard repositioning schedule