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SPT 110 midterm

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the content, SP technicians must be able to adapt to change.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) is required in which areas?

a)

Decontamination area only

b)

Sterile storage only

c)

Both decontamination and sterile storage

d)

Neither area

3.

What is one main service provided by the Sterile Processing Department (SPD)?

a)

Diagnosing diseases

b)

Dispensing supplies for patient procedures

c)

Administering anesthesia

d)

Monitoring patient recovery

4.

The sterilization process is intended to:

a)

Only remove visible dirt

b)

Destroy all forms of microbial life including bacteria, viruses, spores, and fungi

c)

Improve device operations

d)

Destroy some forms of microbial life including bacteria, viruses, spores, and fungi

5.

Cleaning in sterile processing refers to:

a)

Removing only visible soil from medical devices

b)

The process of testing instruments

c)

The removal of all visible and non-visible soil and foreign material

d)

Sterilizing equipment using chemicals

6.

In which SPD area is it necessary for staff to wear full personal protective equipment (PPE)?

a)

Unrestricted Area

b)

Semi-Restricted Area

c)

Restricted Area

d)

Transitional Area

7.

Which of the following is NOT a name commonly used for sterile processing departments?

a)

Central Processing Department (CPD)

b)

Sterile Processing Department (SPD)

c)

Central Sterile Supply Department (CSSD)

d)

Operating Room (OR)

8.

SP workflow can be divided into the handling of three categories of items: soiled, clean, and sterile.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Soiled instruments are received in which area of the Sterile Processing Department (SPD)?

a)

Preparation

b)

Packaging

c)

Decontamination

d)

Sterilization

10.

Healthcare associated infections (HAIs) are:

a)

Most likely to occur during a surgical procedure

b)

Caused by drug-resistant organisms

c)

Infections without known cures

d)

Infections that occur on or after day three of a hospitalization

11.

SP workflow should move from

a)

Clean to soiled

b)

Unrestricted to semi-restricted

c)

Soiled to clean

d)

Clean to sterile

12.

While items may be dispensed to all areas of a facility, the major focus of SPD is:

a)

The ED

b)

L&D

c)

Supply chain management

d)

The OR

13.

Working in the decontamination area requires:

a)

Knowledge of microbiology

b)

Knowledge of cleaning and disinfection processes

c)

Instrument identification

d)

All the above

14.

Knowledge of medical terminology helps Sterile processing technicians to:

a)

Reduce the productivity of the OR

b)

Understand manufacturers IFU

c)

Understand what is asked when a request is made

d)

Become proficient in Latin and French word elements

15.

According to the content, the origin of most medical terms is either:

a)

Greek or French

b)

Greek or Latin

c)

Latin or French

d)

Latin or English

16.

Which word element refers to the liver?

a)

Cranio-

b)

Arthro-

c)

Hepato-

d)

Bi-

17.

Which abbreviation refers to "coronary artery bypass graft"?

a)

CABG

b)

AAA

c)

DC

d)

BKA

18.

Which of the following gives the primary meaning of a word?

a)

Prefix

b)

Root word

c)

Suffix

d)

Combining vowel

19.

The purpose of a combining vowel is to:

a)

Give the primary meaning of the word

b)

Identify the meaning of the root word element

c)

Ease pronunciation of a word

d)

Connect the prefix and suffix

20.

The last word element in a medical term is the:

a)

Combining vowel

b)

Prefix

c)

Suffix

d)

Root

21.

The suffix -itis means:

a)

Illness

b)

Inflammation

c)

the study of

d)

pain

22.

The suffix -ectomy means:

a)

To repair

b)

Surgical removal

c)

Inflammation

d)

To cut

23.

The suffix -oscopy means:

a)

Visual examination

b)

Disease

c)

Surgical removal

d)

Diagnosis of a medical condition

24.

Arthroscopy means:

a)

Visual examination of a joint

b)

Surgical replacement of a joint

c)

Inflammation of a joint

d)

Surgical removement of a joint

25.

The term ostomy:

a)

Is a prefix

b)

Is a suffix

c)

Is a root

d)

Means surgical removal

26.

Which of the following abbreviations might be used relating to a fractured bone?

a)

CABG

b)

BSO

c)

ORIF

d)

TAH

27.

What does the term intercostal mean:

a)

Within the colon

b)

Between the toes

c)

Within the bladder

d)

Between the ribs

28.

Which of the following describes skilled SPTs?

a)

They only clean instruments

b)

They contribute to safe patient care and positive outcomes

c)

They write surgical schedules

d)

They do not need knowledge of anatomy

29.

What term describes a position closer to the midline of the body?

a)

Lateral

b)

Distal

c)

Medial

d)

Inferior

30.

Which anatomical plane divides the body into upper and lower sections?

a)

Sagittal

b)

Coronal

c)

Transverse

d)

Frontal

31.

What organelle directs and controls all activities of the cell?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Mitochondria

32.

Which tissue shortens as it contracts to allow body movement?

a)

Nervous

b)

Epithelial

c)

Connective

d)

Muscular

33.

Which part of the nervous system controls involuntary body processes?

a)

Autonomic nervous system

b)

Somatic nervous system

c)

Peripheral nervous system

d)

Central nervous system

34.

Which gland is considered the “master gland” of the endocrine system?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Adrenal

c)

Pituitary

d)

Pancreas

35.

According to the content, what is the main control unit of the central nervous system?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Spinal cord

c)

Brain stem

d)

Cerebrum

36.

What is the function of cartilage as described in the material?

a)

Produces blood cells

b)

Stores calcium

c)

Serves as a cushion between bones

d)

Protects vital organs

37.

How many bones make up the human skeletal system?

a)

126

b)

206

c)

306

d)

406

38.

Statement: "My knee is proximal to my hip." Choose True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

The largest part of the human brain is the:

a)

Brain stem

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Cerebrum

d)

Pituitary gland

40.

Fill in the blank: The end of a body part that is closest to the point of origin or the end of an instrument that is closest to the operator is called the _______ end.

a)

Lateral

b)

Distal

c)

Medial

d)

Proximal

41.

The hip joint is an example of which type of joint?

a)

Gliding joint

b)

Ball-and-socket joint

c)

Pivot joint

d)

Hinge joint

42.

Which tissue covers the body’s external surface?

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Muscular tissue

d)

Nervous tissue

43.

Which percentage of bacteria is not harmful to humans?

a)

75%

b)

80%

c)

70%

d)

95%

44.

Anaerobic bacteria are able to survive:

a)

Without oxygen

b)

In high temperatures

c)

Without water

d)

In low temperatures

45.

Viruses are:

a)

Larger than bacteria

b)

Smaller than bacteria

c)

gram positive

d)

gram negative

46.

A spore is:

a)

The control unit of the cell

b)

Located in the cell nucleus

c)

Very easy to kill

d)

Very difficult to kill

47.

The measure of alkalinity or acidity refers to:

a)

PH

b)

Temperature

c)

Moisture

d)

Humidity

48.

Which is not a bacterial shape

a)

Spherical

b)

Cylindrical

c)

Rod

d)

Spiral

49.

Microorganisms that cause disease are called

a)

Gram positive

b)

Gram negative

c)

Potentially infectious

d)

Pathogens

50.

__________ is an example of a fungus

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Athletes foot

d)

Herpes simplex

51.

Which of the following has no means to move on its own:

a)

Cocci

b)

Bacillus

c)

Aerobic bacteria

d)

Viruses

52.

The prefix word element comes:

a)

immediately before the suffix.

b)

Before the root.

c)

Before the suffix and describes the word meaning.

d)

After the suffix.

53.

The Muscular system:

a)

Assists with movement.

b)

Produces heat for the body.

c)

Pumps blood throughout the body.

d)

All of the above.

54.

This organ contains glands that, through the process of perspiration, produce sweat.

a)

Liver

b)

Skin

c)

Kidneys

d)

Pancreas

55.

Prions are:

a)

Abnormal pathogenic proteins

b)

Gram-positive

c)

A type of virus

d)

Acid-fast microorganisms

56.

Temperature and humidity parameters can be best established by reviewing which document?

a)

ANSI/AAMI ST 79

b)

OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030

c)

ANSI/ASHRAE/ASHE 170

d)

ANSI/AAMI ST 91

57.

During hand washing, hands should be lathered and scrubbed for at least:

a)

10 seconds

b)

20 seconds

c)

1 minute

d)

2 minutes

58.

To protect themselves from splashes and spills, SP technicians assigned to the decontamination area should wear:

a)

Double cloth gowns

b)

Blue surgical scrubs

c)

Fluid-resistant gown

d)

Sterile operating room gowns

59.

The main theory of standard precautions is that patients:

a)

In high-risk categories may be infectious

b)

Diagnosed with a specific disease may be infectious

c)

Are generally healthy unless they show symptoms of an infectious disease

d)

Must be treated as if their blood and bodily fluids are infectious

60.

Which of the following is not a requirement of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard

a)

Provide hepatitis B vaccines to employees at no cost

b)

Observe standard precautions

c)

Keep medical records of exposure for 3 months

d)

Use engineering controls to prevent biohazard exposures

61.

The only way to interrupt the transmission of a causative agent is to

a)

Sterilize the item

b)

Wear appropriate PPE

c)

Eliminate it

d)

Involve OSHA

62.

Departmental Dress codes apply to:

a)

Everyone entering the SPD

b)

Only hospital employees

c)

only people spending 10 or more minutes in the SP work area

d)

Only visitors like sales reps and maintenance

63.

Inanimate objects that can transmit bacteria are called:

a)

Transmission devices

b)

Fomites

c)

Carriers

d)

Superspreaders

64.

Floors in SPD should be:

a)

Swept daily

b)

Swept daily and wet mopped weekly

c)

Wet mopped daily

d)

Wet mopped weekly

65.

The absence of microorganisms that cause disease is called:

a)

Infection prevention

b)

Infection control

c)

Asepsis

d)

Healthcare acquired infection control

66.

“Know what is dirty, know what is clean, know what is sterile. Keep the conditions separate and remedy contamination immediately.” These are known as:

a)

Basics of bloodborne pathogen standard

b)

Principles of infection prevention and control

c)

Basics of environmental control

d)

Principals of asepsis

67.

The decontamination area of SPD should have:

a)

Negative airflow

b)

Positive airflow

c)

Filtered airflow

d)

Neutral air flow

68.

Which traffic control/dress code requirement applies to the clean area of SPD?

a)

Biohazard

b)

Unrestricted

c)

Semi restricted

d)

Restricted

69.

Chemical indicators are classified as:

a)

FDA class I medical devices

b)

FDA class II medical devices

c)

FDA class III medical devices

d)

None of the above

70.

Heart valves and pacemakers are examples of:

a)

FDA class I medical devices

b)

FDA class II medical devices

c)

FDA class III medical devices

d)

None of the above

71.

Standards and regulations help set the levels of SPD’s:

a)

Quality

b)

Safety

c)

Efficiency

d)

Both quality and efficiency

72.

Aseptic technique is knowing the

a)

Chain of infection

b)

Activities that prevent infection

c)

Bloodborne pathogen standard

d)

All the above

73.

Decontamination of instruments and equipment starts:

a)

During the manual cleaning process

b)

As soon as the instruments are received in the decontamination area

c)

At the point of use

d)

When the instruments are placed back in their trays

74.

Microgrind and Supercut scissors are usually identified by:

a)

Black handles

b)

Gold handles

c)

Serrations

d)

Silver rings

75.

This type of needle holder insert (Jaw) is harder and lasts longer:

a)

Stainless steel

b)

Chromium oxide

c)

Nickel

d)

Tungsten carbide

76.

The place where two parts of a ring handled instrument meet and pivot is called

a)

Ratchet

b)

Box lock

c)

Shank

d)

Ring

77.

Tissue forceps have which feature?

a)

Serrated tips

b)

Serrated locks

c)

Gold tips

d)

Teeth

78.

During instrument manufacturing, the process used to build a protective layer on instruments is called:

a)

Passivation

b)

Forging

c)

Polishing

d)

Milling

79.

The part of a hemostat that locks and holds it in position is called:

a)

Ratchet

b)

Spring lock

c)

Box lock

d)

Jaw

80.

Which of the following is an acceptable method for instrument identification?

a)

Powder coating

b)

Identification tape

c)

Laser etching

d)

All the above

81.

Leak testing should be performed on each flexible endoscope on a yearly basis.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Laparoscopic instrument insulation can cause burns.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Loaned instruments should:

a)

Be decontaminated if they appear solid upon arrival

b)

Be sterilized using low temperature processes

c)

Be decontaminated before use

d)

Should not be used

84.

The purpose of a decontamination hose or battery when cleaning powered surgical instruments is to:

a)

Keep fluid from entering the unit

b)

Increase rotational speed

c)

Deliver enzymatic detergent

d)

Provide electrical grounding

85.

If an injury seems insignificant there is no need to report it

a)

True

b)

False

86.

This diagram represents ___________________

a)

Aseptic Technique

b)

Chain of infection

c)

Stages of Infection

d)

Process of Colonization

87.
how many links are in the chain of infection?
a)
10
b)
5
c)
12
d)
6
88.

What comes next in the chain of infection? Agent, reservoir, portal of exit,_________.

a)

portal of entry

b)

mode of transmission

c)

susceptible host

d)

bacteria

89.

In the chain of infection, an instrument contaminated with blood acts as a

a)

Portal of entry

b)

Reservoir

c)

Causative agent

d)

Portal of exit

90.

Which areas of SPD are semi-restricted

a)

Break room, hallways, cafeteria

b)

Decontamination and sterile storage

c)

Preparation/packaging, sterile storage, and sterilization

d)

Only Sterile storage

91.

If an instrument is not (blank) it cannot be sterile.

(a)  

92.

True or false: Safety data sheets tell us how to sterilize an item.

a)

true

b)

false

93.

Which of the following is not part of the processing cycle?

a)

assemble

b)

inspect

c)

dispense

d)

retrieve

94.

What do we call microorganisms that are introduced into a body site they are not normally found?

a)

pathogens

b)

transient flora

c)

resident flora

d)

bacteria

95.

What color do gram positive bacteria turn after the gram staining process?

a)

red

b)

pink

c)

purple

d)

blue

96.

Which of the following links of the chain of infection is the method of transfer of an infectious agent from the reservoir to a susceptible host

a)

portal of exit

b)

portal of entry

c)

reservoir

d)

mode of transmission

97.

How many air exchanges minimum must there be per hour in Clean Assembly and sterile storage areas?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

10

d)

15

98.

True or false: Areas with negative air pressure have higher air pressure then other areas?

a)

True

b)

False

99.

What is the best way to clean a lumen?

a)

soaking in an enzymatic solution

b)

using the appropriate stylet

c)

using running warm water

d)

Using the brush and flush technique

100.

kerrison and laminectomy rongeurs are tested for sharpness using

a)

a plastic dowel rod

b)

latex test material

c)

an index card

d)

red test material

101.

What happens if you clean a lumen with a brush that is too large?

a)

nothing happens

b)

the sides of the lumen can be damaged

c)

the lumen does not get clean

d)

the brush gets stuck

102.

cartilage is replaced by bone through a process called

a)

ossification

b)

calcification

c)

osmosis

d)

cancellous formation

103.

What is CJD caused by?

a)

a virus

b)

a bacterial infection

c)

prions

d)

endospores

104.

Which agency performs in person surveys of hospitals to ensure they are meeting standards?

a)

CDC

b)

FDA

c)

OSHA

d)

TJC

105.

Which agency regulates medical device reporting?

a)

EPA

b)

FDA

c)

WHO

d)

NFPA

106.

Which is not a reason for point of use treatment?

a)

it reduces SP workload

b)

it helps reduce the likelihood of biofilm formation

c)

it keeps soil moist

d)

it helps prolong the life of the instruments

107.

Which of the following is not an action in point of use cleaning?

a)

Removing gross soil

b)

spraying with enzymatic

c)

removing sharps

d)

soaking in saline

108.

Automated washers clean using a spray motion called

(a)  

109.

Ultrasonic cleaners remove soil with a process called:

(a)  

110.

To prevent aerosolization, items should be brushed:

a)

above the water surface

b)

under running water

c)

below the surface of the water

d)

in the case cart

111.

instrument lubrication should be performed:

a)

immediately before use

b)

after sterilization

c)

after cleaning

d)

before cleaning

112.

The use of heat to kill all microorganisms, except spores

a)

anticeptic

b)

thermal disinfection

c)

sterilization

d)

bactericidal

113.

Iodophors are a member of this chemical family

a)

halogens

b)

quats

c)

alcohol

d)

phenolics

114.

which of the following are classified as high level disinfectants

a)

glutaraldehyde's and phenolics

b)

glutaraldehydes and OPA

c)

Quats and Phenolics

d)

Halogens and OPA

115.

These chemicals are used on animate items to slow the growth of microorganisms

a)

gluteraldehyde

b)

OPA

c)

disinfectants

d)

antiseptics

116.

Which example best reflects the ethical responsibility of a SP Tech as described by professional standards?

a)

ignoring a coworkers repeated failures to wear PPE

b)

rushing instrument inspection to keep up with a busy OR schedule

c)

Refusing to process a tray when there is a clear deviation from the manufacturers IFU

d)

skipping decontamination for a tray that appears clean

117.

Why is thorough cleaning considered the most critical step before any disinfection or sterilization process?

a)

because instrument cleaning ensures that all instruments become single-use items

b)

cleaning reduces instrument weight for easier handling

c)

organic and inorganic soils shield microorganisms from the disinfectant/sterilant

d)

cleaning eliminates the need to follow the sterilizers validated cycle parameters

118.

Which example best demonstrates correct workflow design in SPD?

a)

used instrument trays are placed on a cart in the sterile area until they can be processed

b)

the decontamination area and clean assembly are separated with one-way movement from dirty to clean

c)

clean and sterile items are temporarily stored in the decontamination area to save space

d)

technicians regularly carry wrapped sterile items through decontamination when the elevator is busy

119.

Which description best differentiates HLD from sterilization for reusable medical devices?

a)

HLD is only used for non critical items, while sterilization is only for environmental surfaces

b)

HLD inactivates most microorganisms but may not reliably destroy all spores while sterilization destroys all forms of microbial life

c)

there is no meaningful difference between HLD and sterilization in healthcare

d)

HLD destroys all forms of microbial life while sterilization only reduced bioburden

120.

According to spaulding's classification system, which device is considered critical and therefore usually require sterilization

a)

stethoscope

b)

blood pressure cuff

c)

flexible endoscope

d)

weitlaner retractor

121.

which surgical specialty primarily works with bones?

a)

ortho

b)

neuro

c)

vascular

d)

plastics

122.

Which surgical specialty would remove an appendix?

a)

Podietry

b)

vascular

c)

general

d)

OB-GYN

123.

Which connective tissue attaches bone to muscle?

a)

tendon

b)

ligament

c)

cartilage

d)

muscle