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CBT Mock Quiz Incorrect from quiz

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is not a cause of postural hypotension?

a)

Headache

b)

Back pain

c)

Swelling and bruising

d)

Nausea and vomiting

2.

Which is not an expected side effect of lumbar tap?

a)

A temperature of more than 38°C

b)

warm skin

c)

Chills and sweats

d)

Aching muscles

3.

A client was diagnosed to have infection. What is not a sign or symptom of infection?

a)

the movement of air into and out of the lungs to continually refresh the gases there, commonly called ‘breathing’

b)

movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood, and carbon dioxide from the lungs into the blood, commonly called ‘gaseous exchange’

c)

movement of oxygen from blood to the cells, and of carbon dioxide from the cells to the blood

d)

the transport of oxygen from the outside air to the cells within tissues, and the transport of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction.

4.

What is respiration?

a)

You should provide a written statement and also complete a Trust incident form.

b)

You should inform the doctor.

c)

You should report this immediately to the nurse in charge.

d)

You should inform the patient.

5.

A patient on your ward complains that her heart is ‘racing’ and you find that the pulse is too fast to the manually palpate. What would your actions be?

a)

Shout for help and run to collect the crash trolley.

b)

patient to calm down and check her most recent set of bloods and fluid balance.

c)

A full set of observations: blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation and temperature. It is essential to perform a 12 lead ECG. The patient should then be reviewed by the doctor.

d)

Check baseline observations and refer to the cardiology team.

6.

You are looking after a postoperative patient and when carrying out their observations, you discover that they are tachycardic and anxious, with an increased respiratory rate. What could be happening? What would you do?

a)

The patient is showing symptoms of hypovolaemic shock. Investigate source of fluid loss, administer fluid replacement and get medical support.

b)

The patient is demonstrating symptoms of atelectasis. Administer a nebulizer, refer to physiotherapist for assessment.

c)

The patient is demonstrating symptoms of uncontrolled pain. Administer prescribed analgesia, seek assistance from medical team.

d)

The patient is demonstrating symptoms of hyperventilation. Offer reassurance, administer oxygen.

7.

Why are elderly prone to postural hypotension? Select which does not apply:

a)

The baroreflex mechanisms which control heart rate and vascular resistance decline with age.

b)

Because of medications and conditions that cause hypovolaemia.

c)

Because of less exercise or activities.

d)

Because of a number of underlying problems with BP control.

8.

When do you see problems or potential problems?

a)

Assessment

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

9.

A COPD patient is about to be discharged from the hospital. What is the best health teaching to provide this patient?

a)

Increase fluid intake

b)

Do not use home oxygen

c)

Quit smoking

d)

Nebulize as needed

10.

A patient is to be subjected for surgery but the patient’s BMI is low. Where will you refer the patient?

a)

Speech and Language Therapist

b)

Dietician

c)

Chef

d)

Family member

11.

All of the staff nurses on duty noticed that a newly hired staff nurse has been selective of her tasks. All of them thought that she has a limited knowledge of the procedures. What should the manager do in this situation?

a)

Reprimand the new staff nurse in front of everyone that what she is doing is unacceptable.

b)

Call the new nurse and talk to her privately; ask how the manager can be of help to improve her situation.

c)

Ignore the incident and just continue with what she was doing.

d)

Assign someone to guide the new staff nurse until she is competent in doing her tasks.

12.

One busy day on your shift, a manager told you that all washes should be done by 10am. What would you do?

a)

Follow the manager and ensure that everything is done on time.

b)

Talk to the manager and tell her that the quality of care will be compromised if washes are rushed.

c)

Ignore the manager and just continue with what you are doing.

d)

Provide a written statement of the incident.

13.

What do you have to consider if you are obtaining a consent from the patient?

a)

Understanding

b)

Capacity

c)

Intellect

d)

Patient’s condition

14.

A nurse documented on the wrong chart. What should the nurse do?

a)

Immediately inform the nurse in charge and tell her to cross it all off.

b)

Throw away the page

c)

Write line above the writing; put your name, job title, date, and time.

d)

Ignore the incident.

15.

A patient is in the immediate recovery post-surgery. What should you monitor?

a)

Breathing

b)

Temperature

c)

Blood loss

d)

Pain

16.

You have a DM patient who is non-insulin dependent. How many portions of fruits and vegetables will you administer per day?

a)

3 portions

b)

4 portions

c)

5 portions

d)

6 portions

17.

A newly qualified nurse is not yet well versed when it comes to documentation. A nurse-in-charge noticed that this is the case and went to report the new nurse to their manager. What could the newly qualified nurse have done in order to prevent this incident?

a)

Ignore the report and just continue with what she was doing.

b)

She could have told the manager beforehand in order to have a support and additional training.

c)

Apologize that she was not able to inform her immediate head beforehand.

d)

Ask for the policies of the hospital in relation to documentation.

18.

What ABG readings will you expect among COPD patients?

a)

Increased PCO2, decreased PO2

b)

Decreased PCO2 & PO2

c)

Increased PCO2 & PO2

d)

Decreased PCO2, increased PO2

19.

A patient was brought to the A&E and manifested several symptoms: loss of intellect and memory; change in personality; loss of balance and co-ordination; slurred speech; vision problems and blindness; and abnormal jerking movements. Upon laboratory tests, the patient got tested positive for prions. Which disease is the patient possibly having?

a)

Acute Gastroenteritis

b)

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

c)

HIV/AIDS

d)

Hepatitis

20.

All are risk factors of Coronary Artery Disease except:

a)

Obesity

b)

Smoking

c)

High Blood Pressure

d)

Female

21.

When would it be beneficial to use a wound care plan?

a)

On all chronic wounds

b)

On all complex wounds

c)

On all infected wounds

d)

On every wound

22.

What factors are essential in demonstrating supportive communication to patients?

a)

Listening, clarifying the concerns and feelings of the patient using open questions.

b)

Listening, clarifying the physical needs of the patient using closed questions.

c)

Listening, clarifying the physical needs of the patient using open questions.

d)

Listening, reflecting back the patient’s concerns and providing a solution.

23.

How do you value dignity & respect in nursing care? Select which does not apply:

a)

We value every patient, their families or carers, or staff.

b)

We respect their aspirations and commitments in life, and seek to understand their priorities, needs, abilities and limits.

c)

We find time for patients, their families and carers, as well as those we work with.

24.

When dealing with a patient who has a biohazard specimen, how will you ensure proper disposal? Select which does not apply:

a)

We are honest and open about our point of view and what we can and cannot do.

b)

the specimen must be labelled with a biohazard

c)

the specimen must be labelled with danger of infection

d)

it must be in a double self-sealing bag

25.

For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene a key preventative measure?

a)

Airborne

b)

Direct Contact

c)

Droplet

d)

All of the above

26.

What may not be cause of diarrheoa?

a)

Colitis

b)

intestinal obstruction

c)

food allergy

d)

food poisoning

27.

What is the most definitive sign/complication 24 hours after liver biopsy?

a)

intraperitoneal haemorrhage

b)

Infection

c)

biliary peritonitis

d)

referred pain

28.

UK policy for needle prick injury includes all but one:

a)

Encourage the wound to bleed

b)

Suck the wound

c)

Wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap

d)

Don’t scrub the wound while washing it

29.

The following fruits can be eaten by a person with Crohn’s Disease except:

a)

Mango

b)

Papaya

c)

Strawberries

d)

Cantaloupe

30.

A patient was recommended to undergo lumbar puncture. As the nurse caring for this patient, what should you not expect as its complications?

a)

Swelling and bruising

b)

Headache

c)

Back pain

d)

Infection

31.

Mrs Jones has had a cerebral vascular accident, so her left leg is increased in tone, very stiff and difficult to position comfortably when she is in bed. What would you do?

a)

Give Mrs Jones analgesia and suggest she sleeps in the chair.

b)

Try to diminish increased tone by avoiding extra stimulation by ensuring her foot doesn’t come into contact with the end of the bed; supporting, with a pillow, her left leg in side lying and keeping the knee flexed.

c)

Give Mrs Jones diazepam and tilt the bed.

d)

Suggest a warm bath before she lies on the bed. Then use pillows to support the stiff limb.

32.

Ask her to score her pain, describe its intensity, duration, the site, any relieving measures and what makes it worse, looking for non-verbal clues, so you can determine the appropriate method of pain management.

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33.

A patient is agitated and is unable to settle. She is also finding it difficult to sleep, reporting that she is in pain. What would you do at this point?

a)

water mattress

b)

Egg crater mattress

c)

air mattresses

d)

Dynamic mattress

34.

A patient has been confined in bed for months now and has developed pressure ulcers in the buttocks area. When you checked the waterlow it is at level 20. Which type of bed is best suited for this patient?

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35.

What is positive fluid balance?

a)

A deficit in fluid volume.

b)

A state when fluid intake is greater than output.

c)

Retention of both electrolytes and water in proportion to the levels in the extracellular fluid.

d)

A state where the body has less water than it needs to function properly.

36.

How should you position a patient after lumbar puncture?

a)

flat on bed

b)

Fowler’s

c)

semi-fowlers

d)

side-lying

37.

Why would the intravenous route be used for the administration of medications?

a)

It is a useful form of medication for patients who refuse to take tablets because they don’t want to comply with treatment.

b)

It is cost effective because there is less waste as patients forget to take oral medication.

c)

The intravenous route reduces the risk of infection because the drugs are made in a sterile environment and kept in aseptic conditions.

d)

The intravenous route provides an immediate therapeutic effect and gives better control of the rate of administration for reliable treatment

38.

A patient has collapsed with an anaphylactic reaction. What symptoms would you expect to see?

a)

The patient will have a low blood pressure and will have a fast heart rate usually associated with skin and mucosal changes.

b)

The patient will have a high blood pressure and will have a fast heart rate

c)

The patient will quickly find breathing very difficult because of compromise to their airway or circulation. This is accompanied by skin and mucosal changes.

d)

The patient will experience a sense of impending doom, hyperventilate and be itchy all over.

39.

When is the time to take the vital signs of the patients? Select which does not apply:

a)

At least once every 12 hours, unless specified otherwise by senior staff.

b)

When they are admitted or initially assessed.

c)

On transfer to a ward setting from critical care or transfer from one ward to another.

d)

Every four hours.

40.

What are the principles of gaining informed consent prior to planned surgery?

a)

Gaining permission for an imminent procedure by providing information in medical terms, ensuring a patient knows the potential risks and intended benefits.

b)

Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing information, both verbally and with written material, relating to the planned procedure, for them to read on the day of planned surgery.

c)

Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by informing them about the procedure and highlighting risks if the procedure is not carried out.

d)

Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing information in understandable terms prior to surgery, allowing time for answering questions, and inviting voluntary participation.

41.

When will you disclose the identity of a patient under your care?

a)

You can disclose it anytime you want

b)

When a patient relatives wishes to

c)

When media demands for it

d)

Justified by public interest law and order

42.

If you were told by a nurse at handover to take ‘standard precautions’, what would you expect to be doing?

a)

Taking precautions when handling blood and ‘high risk’ body fluids so as not to pass on any infection to the patient.

b)

Wearing gloves, an apron and a mask when caring for someone in protective isolation.

c)

Asking relatives to wash their hands when visiting patients in the clinical setting.

d)

Using appropriate hand hygiene, wearing gloves and an apron when necessary, disposing of used sharp instruments safely, and providing care in a suitably clean environment to protect yourself and the patients.

43.

On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug record book as a newly qualified nurse, you and a colleague notice a discrepancy. What would you do?

a)

Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren’t found, contact pharmacy to resolve the issue. Make sure to fill out an incident form.

b)

Document the discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior pharmacist on duty.

c)

Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren’t found the police need to be informed.

d)

Check the cupboard, record book and order book and inform the registered nurse or person in charge of the clinical area. If the missing drugs are not found then inform the most senior nurse on duty. Make sure to fill out an incident form.

44.

You would refer to the early phase of scar tissue formation as which of the following kinds of tissue?

a)

Granulation

b)

Fibrous

c)

Keloid

d)

Cicatrix

45.

The following must be considered in procuring a consent, except:

a)

respect and support people’s rights to accept or decline treatment or care

b)

withhold people’s rights to be fully involved in decisions about their care

c)

be aware of the legislation regarding mental capacity

d)

gain consent before treatment or care starts

46.

Which is not an appropriate way to care for patients with Dementia/Alzheimer’s?

a)

Ensure people with dementia are excluded from services because of their diagnosis, age, or any learning disability.

b)

Encourage the use of advocacy services and voluntary support.

c)

Allow people with dementia to convey information in confidence.

d)

Identify and wherever possible accommodate preferences (such as diet, sexuality and religion).

47.

All but one, are characteristics of an ideal wound dressing

a)

Cost-effective

b)

allows gaseous exchange

c)

Low humidity

d)

Absorbent

48.

A 45-year old patient was diagnosed to have Piles (Haemorrhoids). During your health education with the patient, you informed him of the risk factors of Piles. You would tell him that it is caused by all of the following except:

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49.

Which behaviours will encourage a patient to talk about their concerns?

a)

Giving re assurance and telling them not to worry.

b)

Asking the patient about their family and friends.

c)

Tell the patient you are interested in what is concerning them and that you are available to listen.

d)

Tell the patient you are interested in what is concerning them and if they tell you, they will feel better.

50.

What is the difference between denial and collusion?

a)

Denial is when a healthcare professional refuses to tell a patient their diagnosis for the protection of the patient whereas collusion is when healthcare professionals and the patient agree on the information to be told to relatives and friends.

b)

Denial is when a patient refuses treatment and collusion is when a patient agrees to it.

c)

Denial is a coping mechanism used by an individual with the intention of protecting themselves from painful or distressing information whereas collusion is the withholding of information from the patient with the intention of ‘protecting them’.

d)

Denial is a normal acceptable response by a patient to a life threatening diagnosis whereas collusion is not.

51.

Effect of toxins released by Clostridium Difficile:

a)

Ulcerative colitis

b)

Crohn’s Disease

c)

Hashimotos Diseases

d)

Pseudomembranous Colitis

52.

Where is the common aneurysm location for an elderly?

a)

Abdominal

b)

Hepatic

c)

Renal

d)

loop of Willis

53.

Patient’s husband died. The brother of the patient saw that she was upset but mentally and physically well. After a few weeks, the patient called her brother and said that her husband died yesterday, she verbalized “I didn’t know he was sick”. She also told her brother that she has been seeing mice and rats in the house. The pt. had difficulty sleeping, had incontinence and pain in urinating. A community nurse visited the patient. She observed that the patient is reclusive, passive but pleasant. What could be the problem?

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54.

Early signs of phlebitis would include:

a)

slight pain and redness

b)

increased WBC

c)

Pyrexia

d)

swelling

55.

Infected linen should be separated from soiled linen. What type of bag should be used?

a)

white linen bag to be washed in high temperature

b)

red plastic bag to be incinerated

c)

red linen bag to be washed in high temperature

d)

yellow plastic bag for disposal

56.

What to teach a young patient when he is taking antibiotics?

a)

take it during morning and complete the dose

b)

don’t take it with alcohol

c)

take it with food or after meal and complete dose

d)

medication may cause hypotension

57.

They shouldn’t sit out in a chair; lying flat is the only position for someone with shortness of breath so that there are no negative effects of gravity putting pressure on the lungs.

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58.

What do you need to consider when helping a patient with shortness of breath sit out in a chair?

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59.

Normal HR of a 2-yr old child:

a)

70-130 per minute

b)

80-150 per minute

c)

60-100 per minute

d)

120-160 per minute

60.

A doctor is about to apply oxygen therapy to patient via nasal cannula at 2L per minute when he was called for an emergency, and gave the task to you. However you are not trained. What should you do?

a)

Inform your supervisor that the doctor left you to do it.

b)

Apply the cannula since you have seen it done before.

c)

Do not give because you’re not trained and assessed as competent.

d)

Have a friend help you apply it.

61.

Who should be responsible in proper disposal of sharps?

a)

healthcare assistant

b)

doctor

c)

registered nurse

d)

the professional who used the sharp

62.

What is clinical benchmarking?

a)

A systematic process in which current practice and care are compared to, and amended to attain, best practice and care.

b)

A system that provides a non-structured approach for realistic and supportive practice development.

63.

How long does the proliferation phase of a wound occur?

a)

3-24 days

b)

5-21 days

c)

4-18 days

d)

3-30 days

64.

Which one is not a sign of an Ectopic Pregnancy?

a)

Vaginal bleeding

b)

Shoulder tip pain

c)

Positive pregnancy test

d)

Protein excretion exceeds 2 g/day

65.

Scenario: You are the nurse in charge of the unit and you are accompanied by 4th year nursing students. What should you do?

a)

Allow students to give meds

b)

Assess competence of student

c)

Get consent of patient

66.

Among the following drugs, which does not cause falls in an elderly?

a)

Have direct supervision

b)

Diuretics

c)

NSAIDS

d)

Beta blockers

e)

Hypnotics

67.

Which is not a definition of an informed consent?

a)

a decision to participate in research, taken by a competent individual who has received the necessary information; who has adequately understood the information, and who, after considering the information, has arrived at a decision without having been subjected to coercion, undue influence or inducement, or intimidation.

b)

a process for getting permission before conducting a healthcare intervention on a person

c)

the process by which the treating health care provider discloses appropriate information to a competent patient so that the patient may make a voluntary choice to accept or refuse treatment.

d)

For consent to be valid, it must be involuntary and informed, and the person consenting must have the capacity to make the decision.

68.

What is Supportive Communication?

a)

To listen and clarify using close-ended questions

b)

A communication that seeks to preserve a positive relationship between the communicators while still addressing the problem at hand.

c)

It involves a self-perceived flaw that an individual refuses to admit to another person, a sensitivity to that flaw, and an attack by another person that focuses on the flaw.

69.

Patient had CVA and can’t speak nor read. What does the loss of speech mean?

a)

Dysphagia

b)

Progressive Aphasia

c)

Aphasia

d)

Apraxia

70.

5 moments of hand hygiene include all of the following except:

a)

Before Patient Contact

b)

Before a clean / aseptic procedure

c)

Before Body Fluid Exposure Risk

d)

After Patient contact

e)

After Contact with Patient’s surrounding

71.

All are purposes of NMC except:

a)

NMC’s role is to regulate nurses and midwives in England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland

b)

It sets standards of education, training, conduct and performance so that nurses and midwives can deliver high quality healthcare throughout their careers.

c)

It makes sure that nurses and midwives keep their skills and knowledge up to date and uphold its professional standards

d)

It is responsible for regulating hospitals or other healthcare settings

72.

All but one are Nursing teachings for patients taking Allopurinol:

a)

Instruct patient to take the drug after meals;

b)

Educate patient that he may experience these side effects: nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite; drowsiness

c)

Encourage patient to report unusual bleeding or bruising; fever, chills; gout attack; numbness or tingling; flank pain, skin rash.

d)

Instruct patient to chew medication

73.

Select which is not a proper way of Administering Eye Drops?

a)

Administer the prescribed number of drops, holding the eye dropper 1–2 cm above the eye. If the patient links or closes their eye, repeat the procedure

b)

Ask the patient to close their eyes and keep them closed for 1–2 minutes.

c)

If administering both drops and ointment, administer ointment first.

d)

Ask the patient to sit back with neck slightly hyperextended or lie down.

74.

How should we transport controlled drugs? Select which does not apply:

a)

Controlled drugs should be transferred in a secure, locked or sealed, tamper-evident container.

b)

A person collecting controlled drugs should be aware of safe storage and security and the importance of handing over to an authorized person to obtain a signature.

c)

Have valid ID badge

d)

None of the above

75.

In a patient with hourly monitoring, when does a nurse formally document the monitoring?

a)

Every hour

b)

When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition

c)

At the end of the shift

d)

Mid of shift

76.

Appropriate wound dressing criteria includes all but one:

a)

Allows gaseous exchange.

b)

Maintains optimum temperature and pH in the wound.

c)

Forms an effective barrier to

d)

Is non-absorbent

77.

Signs of denture related stomatitis include all except:

a)

whiteness on the tongue

b)

patches of shiny redness on the cheek and tongue

c)

patches of shiny redness on the palette and gums

d)

patches of shiny redness on the tongue

78.

When do you plan a discharge?

a)

24 hrs within admission

b)

72 hrs within admission

c)

48 hrs within admission

d)

12 hrs within admission

79.

Postpartum haemorrhage: A patient gave birth via NSD. After 48 hours, patient came back due to bleeding, bleeding after birth is called postpartum haemorrhage. What type?

a)

primary post partumhaemorrhage

b)

secondary post partumhaemorrhage

c)

tertiary postpartum haemorrhage

d)

lochia

80.

The AVPU scale means:

a)

Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive

b)

Awake, Verbal, Pain, Unconscious

c)

Alert, verbal, Pressure, Unconscious

d)

Awake, Verbal, Pressure, Unresponsive

81.

Management in Blood Transfusion Reaction would include the following but:

a)

Close IV line

b)

Disconnect pack from patient.

c)

Complete Transfusion Reaction Report Form.

82.

Which of the following is not a cause of gingival bleeding?

a)

Vigorous brushing of teeth

b)

Intake of blood thinning medications (warfarin, aspirin, and heparin)

c)

Obtain blood/urine samples as directed.

d)

Vitamin deficiency (Vitamins C and K)

e)

Send pack, Transfusion Reaction Report Form and samples to hospital Blood Bank

83.

Your patient has bronchitis and has difficulty in clearing his chest. What position would help to maximize the drainage of secretions?

a)

Lying flat on his back while using a nebulizer.

b)

Sitting up leaning on pillows and inhaling humidified oxygen.

c)

Lying on his side with the area to be drained uppermost after the patient has had humidified air.

d)

Standing up in fresh air taking deep breaths.

84.

Which of the following should be considered before giving digoxin?

a)

1. Allergies

b)

2. Drug Interactions

c)

3. Other interactions with food or substances like alcohol and tobacco

d)

4. Medical problems (Thyroid problem, Kidney disease, etc.)

85.

A client requests you that he wants to go home against medical advice, what should you do?

a)

Inform the management

b)

Inform the local police

c)

Call the security guard

d)

Allow the client to go home as he won't pose any threat to self or others

86.

After instructing the client on crutch walking technique, the nurse should evaluate the client's understanding by using which of the following methods?

a)

Have client explain produce to the family

b)

Achievement of 90 on written test

c)

Explanation

d)

Return demonstration

87.

Patient had undergone post lumbar tap and is exhibiting increase HR, decrease BP, and alteration in consciousness and dilated pupils. What is the patient likely experiencing?

a)

Headache

b)

Shock

c)

Brain herniation

d)

Hypotension

88.

NMC defines record keeping as all of the following except:

a)

Helping to improve advocacy

b)

Showing how decisions related to patient care were made

c)

Supporting effective clinical judgements and decisions

d)

Helping in identifying risks, and enabling early detection of complications

89.

How to position patient for abdominal tap?

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