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Blue Packet-Ch. 10,11,12,13 & 14

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 23hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When a condition has a rapid and severe onset, it is________.

a)

vaccine

b)

acute

c)

AIDS

d)

carrier

2.

______ is a disease of the immune system primarily caused through sexual contact or sharing contaminated needles with infected individuals.

a)

AIDS

b)

vaccine

c)

virus

d)

carrier

3.

A________ is a person who harbors an infectious agent of a disease and is capable of transmitting the disease.

a)

vaccine

b)

carrier

c)

acute

d)

body

4.

A_______ is introduced into the body to induce immunity.

a)

vaccine

b)

virus

c)

carrier

d)

AIDS

5.

A _________ is a microorganism that replicates in living cells.

a)

carrier

b)

vaccine

c)

virus

d)

body

6.

Define antibiotic:

a)

mass of bacteria growing on teeth

b)

treats bacterial infections

c)

disease

d)

against

7.

Define biofilm:

a)

liver

b)

mass of bacteria growing on teeth/dental plaque

c)

against

d)

devour

8.

Define antimicrobial:

a)

dental plaque

b)

body produces own antibodies

c)

inhibits/kills pathogenic microorganisms

d)

None of the Above

9.

Who is Louis Pasteur?

a)

discovered bacteria in air

b)

discovered a process to kill germs; known as the Father of Microbiology.

c)

practiced antiseptic surgery

d)

None of the Above

10.

Name the group of bacteria that have been known to contribute to dental caries and endocarditis, as well as lead to pneumonia or rheumatic fever.

a)

staphylococcal

b)

streptococcal

c)

bacilli

d)

protozoa

11.

Protozoa and bacteria together cause a dental condition called ________ that is found in the inflamed tissue around the tooth.

a)

dental decay

b)

calculus/tartar

c)

periodontal disease

d)

candidiasis

12.

What is herpes simplex virus type 1?

a)

infections of lips, mouth and face

b)

associated with genital area

13.

What is herpes simplex virus type 2

a)

infections of lips, mouth and face

b)

associated with genital area

14.

What is Hepatitis B?

a)

serum hepatitis

b)

infection of CD4 T-cells

15.

What is HIV?

a)

infection of CD4 T-cell

b)

serum hepatitis

16.

Define asepsis?

a)

skin inflammation

b)

absence of disease-producing microorganisms

c)

occurring after exposure to a disease

d)

None of the above

17.

Define cross-contamination

a)

sterilizing agent

b)

transmission of disease-carrying microorganisms from one area or person to another.

c)

capable of killing spores

d)

None of the above

18.

Define dermatitis:

a)

capable of destroying viruses

b)

passage by needle puncture

c)

skin inflammation

d)

None of the above

19.

Define post-exposure:

a)

capable of destroying fungi

b)

occurring after exposure to a disease

c)

skin inflammation

d)

None of the above

20.

Define sepsis:

a)

presence of microorganisms or their toxins in tissues.

b)

microorganisms floating in water

c)

determining if the sterilizer is effective with a spore strip.

d)

None of the above

21.

In 1992, OSHA established the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard. It mandates that facilities must do which of the following.

a)

Provide infection control training manuals

b)

protect workers from infectious and chemical hazards.

c)

protect workers from physical hazards

d)

All the Above

22.

What cycle is perpetuated when pathogens are allowed to pass from dentist to patient or from patient to dentist?

a)

material safety data

b)

cross-contamination

c)

pathogens standard

d)

standard exposure

23.

One of the primary concerns of handwashing is to remove the ______ microorganisms because they constitute the group that includes hepatitis.

a)

transient

b)

bloodborne

c)

saliva

d)

causative

24.

During handwashing, a generous lather is produced by rubbing hands together for how many seconds?

a)

60

b)

30

c)

15

d)

90

25.

Barriers that prevent potential pathogens from being encountered during patient care from gaining access to dental personnel include which of the following?

a)

gloves

b)

mask

c)

eyewear

d)

All the above

26.

Which type of gloves are used for patient treatment whenever the dental assistant anticipates contact with saliva or blood?

a)

examination

b)

overgloves

c)

utility

d)

knitted

27.

Which of the following are recommended for use by dental assistants as protection from aerosol mists during the Covid-19 pandemic?

a)

obergloves

b)

N95 masks

c)

rubber dams

d)

lead aprons

28.

Concerning the asepsis requirement, some surfaces do not lend themselves to the use of barriers. Those surfaces will need to be ______.

a)

suctioned

b)

sterilized

c)

autoclaved

d)

disinfected

29.

According to EPA-ratings, which disinfection level will kill most bacterial spores?

a)

high

b)

intermediate

c)

low

d)

holding

30.

Which of the following EPA-registered disinfectants is considered to be a high-level disinfectant?

a)

alcohol

b)

glutaraldehyde

c)

iodophor

d)

sodium hypochlorite

31.

Which of the following EPA-registered disinfectants is considered an intermediate-level disinfectant?

a)

alcohol

b)

hydrogen peroxide

c)

glutaraldehyde

d)

iodophor

32.

Which device uses sound waves that vibrate and create invisible bubbles in a special solution to clean debris from dental instruments?

a)

sterilizer

b)

autoclave

c)

ultrasonic cleaner

d)

holding bath

33.

Which process destroys all forms of microorganisms?

a)

disinfection

b)

sterilization

c)

asepsis

d)

sanitization

34.

If immersion sterilization is used, what is the minimum number of hours the instruments are placed in the disinfecting solution to ensure that all microorganisms are destroyed?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

d)

3

35.

Which is the most accurate way to assess sterilization?

a)

cavitation

b)

cleaning

c)

sanitizing

d)

biological test

36.

What is the purpose of placing loose and contaminated instruments in an ultrasonic cleaner?

a)

disinfection and cleaning

b)

disinfection only

c)

cleaning only

d)

Remove any large particles

37.

According to OSHA, how long should sterilization monitoring records be maintained?

a)

they do not need to be maintained

b)

for 10 years after the batch was sterilized

c)

for 6 years after the autoclave was monitored

d)

according to state and local regulations

38.

Which of the following is correct regarding semicritical instruments?

a)

Semicritical instruments contact only mucous membranes and nonintact skin.

b)

Semicritical instruments include blood pressure cuffs and radiology machine heads.

c)

Semicritical instrments may be disinfected with an intermediate-level EPA registered hospital disinfectant.

d)

None of the above are correct.

39.

Intermediate-level disinfectants are recommended on clinical contact surfaces and noncritical surfaces soiled with visible blood.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Gloves are used by the dental health care workers to help protect the workers from pathogens.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Gloves are used by the dental health care workers to help prevent pathogenic microorganisms from being transmitted from the worker to the patient.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Gloves are used by the dental health care worker to reduce contamination of the DHCW's hands by organisms transmitted from one patient to another.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act was passed by U.S. Congress and directed OSHA to revise its bloodborne pathogens standard.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Exposure Control Plan is the office policies and procedures that prevent or reduce the risk of disease transmission between dental office personnel, their families, patients, and the community.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Needleless Systems are devices such as a jet injection system or an IV medication system in which a port is used instead of a needle.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Engineering and work practice controls the physical equipment and mechanical devices that employers provide to safeguard and protect employees at work.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Parenteral is a means of piercing mucous membranes on the skin barrier through such events as needlesticks, cuts, and abrasions.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals are chemicals and materials are classified and labeled the same way internationally, regardless of where the chemicals are manufactured, sold, or used.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Safety Data Sheets are summaries that provide information about the potential hazards of a product as well as safety measures.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

If an occupational exposure occurs for any employee, which of the following is (are) required?

a)

The employee must report the incident immediately

b)

Employer must immediately provide medical evaluation and follow-up.

c)

Medical evaluation and follow-up are made available to the employee at no cost.

d)

All of the above

51.

In accordance with OSHA's standard on access to employee exposure and medical records, the employer must maintain employee records for how many year(s)?

a)

15

b)

1

c)

24

d)

30

52.

The assistant notices a yellowing of the patient's skin. they would not the presence of ____________ on the patient's chart.

a)

atrophy

b)

jaundice

c)

heart attack

d)

blood

53.

________ occurs when conditions involving a progressive degeneration of cells result in a wasting away of an organ.

a)

Atrophy

b)

Heart attack

c)

Blood

d)

Tachycardia

54.

The patient's medical record indicates that the patient previously experienced a myocardial infarction. This is also known as a ____________.

a)

heart attack

b)

atrophy

c)

jaundice

d)

blood

55.

The patient complained of an excessively rapid heartbeat during the new patient examination. The dentist instructed the assistant to note the presence of ___________.

a)

atrophy

b)

tachycardia

c)

blood

d)

heart attack

56.

Due to the presence of ____________ during the mother's pregnancy, the baby was born with birth defects.

a)

teratogens

b)

heart attack

c)

blood

d)

atrophy

57.

Dental office employees need to know and comply with the OSHA safety standards. Which of the following is not the subject of an OSHA safety standard?

a)

employee training

b)

labeling/SDS

c)

housekeeping/

laundry

d)

ADA

58.

The physical equipment and mechanical devices that employers provide to safeguard and protect employees are known as

a)

SDS

b)

engineering/work practice controls

c)

housekeeping/

laundry

d)

labeling

59.

A means of piercing mucous membranes or the skin barrier through such events as needlesticks, cuts, and abrasions.

a)

OPIM

b)

parenteral

c)

synovial

d)

biohazardous

60.

Which of the following would not go into the shaprs container?

a)

orthodontic wire

b)

contaminated needles

c)

surgical knives or blades

d)

rubber dam

61.

Blue means health hazard?

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Red means Fire Hazard?

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Yellow means reactivity or stability of a chemical?

a)

True

b)

False

64.

White means PPE needed when using the chemical.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Summaries that provide information about the potential hazards of a product as well as safety measures are kept in a

a)

safety data sheet

b)

exposure control plan

c)

hazardous communication standard

d)

globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals.

66.

If the SDS is not available in the office for a given material, what should be done?

a)

Request it from the manufacturer

b)

Use the material with caution

c)

Use the material and review the SDS once the manufacturer supplies it.

d)

SDS is not necessary to use a material.

67.

Adverse means occurrence of effect that is not desired.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Elixir means:

a)

a drug that relieves pain

b)

poisonous

c)

a sweetened, aromatic, solution of alcohol and water.

d)

None of the Above

69.

Define narcotic:

a)

a class of substances that produce stupor or sleep

b)

poisonous

c)

building up of body tissues.

d)

None of the above

70.

Define suspension:

a)

a drug that relieve pain

b)

a system consisting of small particles kept dispersed by agitation or by molecular motion in the surrounding medium

c)

building up of body tissues

d)

None of the above

71.

Define toxic:

a)

poisonous

b)

building up of body tissues

c)

a drug that relieves pain

d)

None of the Above

72.

Define analgesic:

a)

a drug that relieves pain

b)

building up of body tissues

c)

poisonous

d)

None of the above

73.

Define vasoconstrictor:

a)

drug causing constriction or narrowing of the blood vessels.

b)

a drug that relieves pain

c)

poisonous

d)

None of the above.

74.

A transdermal patch is an adhesive patch that is applied to the_______.

a)

decrease

b)

skin

c)

aromatic

d)

none of the above

75.

Orthostatic hypotension is a result of a _______ in blood pressure to below normal.

a)

decrease

b)

skin

c)

euphoria

d)

none of the above

76.

A state of intense happiness is known as ________.

a)

euphoria

b)

skin

c)

decrease

d)

None of the above

77.

Which of the following is the study of all drugs?

a)

Medicine

b)

Addiction

c)

Pharmmacology

d)

Parenteral

78.

What is the concentration of lidocaine?

a)

3%, no vasoconstrictor

b)

2%, 1:100,000

c)

4%, 1:100,000

d)

None of the above

79.

What is the concentration of mepivacaine?

a)

3%, no vasoconstrictor

b)

2%, 1:100,000

c)

4%, 1:100,000

d)

none of the above

80.

What is the concentration of prilocaine?

a)

4%, no vasoconstrictor

b)

3%, no vasoconstricor

c)

2%, 1:100,000

d)

None of the Above

81.

What is the concentration of bupivacaine?

a)

5%, 1:200,000

b)

3%, no vasoconstrictor

c)

2%, 1:100,000

d)

None of the above

82.

What is the concentration of articaine?

a)

4%, 1:100,000

b)

3%, no vasoconstrictor

c)

2%, 1:100,000

d)

None of the Above

83.

What is the brand name for codeine and acetaminophen?

a)

Percocet

b)

Demerol

c)

Tylenol #3

d)

Vicodin

84.

What is the brand name for Lidocaine?

a)

Octocaine

b)

Marcaine

c)

Citanest

d)

None of the Above

85.

What is the brand name for Mepivacaine?

a)

Carbocaine

b)

Septocaine

c)

Octocaine

d)

None of the above

86.

What is the brand name for Prilocaine?

a)

Citanest

b)

Marcaine

c)

Septocaine

d)

None of the Above

87.

What is the brand name for Bupivacaine?

a)

Marcaine

b)

Citanest

c)

Septocaine

d)

None of the Above

88.

What is the brand name for Articaine?

a)

Septocaine

b)

Marcaine

c)

Citanest

d)

None of the Above

89.

Valium (diazepam) is considered which DEA schedule?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

90.

What is the antibiotic prophylactically regimen for a patient who is able to take oral medication with no medication allergies?

a)

amoxicillin, 2g

b)

amoxicillin, 500mg

c)

clindamycin, 500mg

d)

clindamycin, 600mg