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WorksheetsBlue Packet-Ch. 10,11,12,13 & 14
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 23hrs 30mins
When a condition has a rapid and severe onset, it is________.
vaccine
acute
AIDS
carrier
______ is a disease of the immune system primarily caused through sexual contact or sharing contaminated needles with infected individuals.
AIDS
vaccine
virus
carrier
A________ is a person who harbors an infectious agent of a disease and is capable of transmitting the disease.
vaccine
carrier
acute
body
A_______ is introduced into the body to induce immunity.
vaccine
virus
carrier
AIDS
A _________ is a microorganism that replicates in living cells.
carrier
vaccine
virus
body
Define antibiotic:
mass of bacteria growing on teeth
treats bacterial infections
disease
against
Define biofilm:
liver
mass of bacteria growing on teeth/dental plaque
against
devour
Define antimicrobial:
dental plaque
body produces own antibodies
inhibits/kills pathogenic microorganisms
None of the Above
Who is Louis Pasteur?
discovered bacteria in air
discovered a process to kill germs; known as the Father of Microbiology.
practiced antiseptic surgery
None of the Above
Name the group of bacteria that have been known to contribute to dental caries and endocarditis, as well as lead to pneumonia or rheumatic fever.
staphylococcal
streptococcal
bacilli
protozoa
Protozoa and bacteria together cause a dental condition called ________ that is found in the inflamed tissue around the tooth.
dental decay
calculus/tartar
periodontal disease
candidiasis
What is herpes simplex virus type 1?
infections of lips, mouth and face
associated with genital area
What is herpes simplex virus type 2
infections of lips, mouth and face
associated with genital area
What is Hepatitis B?
serum hepatitis
infection of CD4 T-cells
What is HIV?
infection of CD4 T-cell
serum hepatitis
Define asepsis?
skin inflammation
absence of disease-producing microorganisms
occurring after exposure to a disease
None of the above
Define cross-contamination
sterilizing agent
transmission of disease-carrying microorganisms from one area or person to another.
capable of killing spores
None of the above
Define dermatitis:
capable of destroying viruses
passage by needle puncture
skin inflammation
None of the above
Define post-exposure:
capable of destroying fungi
occurring after exposure to a disease
skin inflammation
None of the above
Define sepsis:
presence of microorganisms or their toxins in tissues.
microorganisms floating in water
determining if the sterilizer is effective with a spore strip.
None of the above
In 1992, OSHA established the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard. It mandates that facilities must do which of the following.
Provide infection control training manuals
protect workers from infectious and chemical hazards.
protect workers from physical hazards
All the Above
What cycle is perpetuated when pathogens are allowed to pass from dentist to patient or from patient to dentist?
material safety data
cross-contamination
pathogens standard
standard exposure
One of the primary concerns of handwashing is to remove the ______ microorganisms because they constitute the group that includes hepatitis.
transient
bloodborne
saliva
causative
During handwashing, a generous lather is produced by rubbing hands together for how many seconds?
60
30
15
90
Barriers that prevent potential pathogens from being encountered during patient care from gaining access to dental personnel include which of the following?
gloves
mask
eyewear
All the above
Which type of gloves are used for patient treatment whenever the dental assistant anticipates contact with saliva or blood?
examination
overgloves
utility
knitted
Which of the following are recommended for use by dental assistants as protection from aerosol mists during the Covid-19 pandemic?
obergloves
N95 masks
rubber dams
lead aprons
Concerning the asepsis requirement, some surfaces do not lend themselves to the use of barriers. Those surfaces will need to be ______.
suctioned
sterilized
autoclaved
disinfected
According to EPA-ratings, which disinfection level will kill most bacterial spores?
high
intermediate
low
holding
Which of the following EPA-registered disinfectants is considered to be a high-level disinfectant?
alcohol
glutaraldehyde
iodophor
sodium hypochlorite
Which of the following EPA-registered disinfectants is considered an intermediate-level disinfectant?
alcohol
hydrogen peroxide
glutaraldehyde
iodophor
Which device uses sound waves that vibrate and create invisible bubbles in a special solution to clean debris from dental instruments?
sterilizer
autoclave
ultrasonic cleaner
holding bath
Which process destroys all forms of microorganisms?
disinfection
sterilization
asepsis
sanitization
If immersion sterilization is used, what is the minimum number of hours the instruments are placed in the disinfecting solution to ensure that all microorganisms are destroyed?
1
5
10
3
Which is the most accurate way to assess sterilization?
cavitation
cleaning
sanitizing
biological test
What is the purpose of placing loose and contaminated instruments in an ultrasonic cleaner?
disinfection and cleaning
disinfection only
cleaning only
Remove any large particles
According to OSHA, how long should sterilization monitoring records be maintained?
they do not need to be maintained
for 10 years after the batch was sterilized
for 6 years after the autoclave was monitored
according to state and local regulations
Which of the following is correct regarding semicritical instruments?
Semicritical instruments contact only mucous membranes and nonintact skin.
Semicritical instruments include blood pressure cuffs and radiology machine heads.
Semicritical instrments may be disinfected with an intermediate-level EPA registered hospital disinfectant.
None of the above are correct.
Intermediate-level disinfectants are recommended on clinical contact surfaces and noncritical surfaces soiled with visible blood.
True
False
Gloves are used by the dental health care workers to help protect the workers from pathogens.
True
False
Gloves are used by the dental health care workers to help prevent pathogenic microorganisms from being transmitted from the worker to the patient.
True
False
Gloves are used by the dental health care worker to reduce contamination of the DHCW's hands by organisms transmitted from one patient to another.
True
False
Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act was passed by U.S. Congress and directed OSHA to revise its bloodborne pathogens standard.
True
False
Exposure Control Plan is the office policies and procedures that prevent or reduce the risk of disease transmission between dental office personnel, their families, patients, and the community.
True
False
Needleless Systems are devices such as a jet injection system or an IV medication system in which a port is used instead of a needle.
True
False
Engineering and work practice controls the physical equipment and mechanical devices that employers provide to safeguard and protect employees at work.
True
False
Parenteral is a means of piercing mucous membranes on the skin barrier through such events as needlesticks, cuts, and abrasions.
True
False
The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals are chemicals and materials are classified and labeled the same way internationally, regardless of where the chemicals are manufactured, sold, or used.
True
False
Safety Data Sheets are summaries that provide information about the potential hazards of a product as well as safety measures.
True
False
If an occupational exposure occurs for any employee, which of the following is (are) required?
The employee must report the incident immediately
Employer must immediately provide medical evaluation and follow-up.
Medical evaluation and follow-up are made available to the employee at no cost.
All of the above
In accordance with OSHA's standard on access to employee exposure and medical records, the employer must maintain employee records for how many year(s)?
15
1
24
30
The assistant notices a yellowing of the patient's skin. they would not the presence of ____________ on the patient's chart.
atrophy
jaundice
heart attack
blood
________ occurs when conditions involving a progressive degeneration of cells result in a wasting away of an organ.
Atrophy
Heart attack
Blood
Tachycardia
The patient's medical record indicates that the patient previously experienced a myocardial infarction. This is also known as a ____________.
heart attack
atrophy
jaundice
blood
The patient complained of an excessively rapid heartbeat during the new patient examination. The dentist instructed the assistant to note the presence of ___________.
atrophy
tachycardia
blood
heart attack
Due to the presence of ____________ during the mother's pregnancy, the baby was born with birth defects.
teratogens
heart attack
blood
atrophy
Dental office employees need to know and comply with the OSHA safety standards. Which of the following is not the subject of an OSHA safety standard?
employee training
labeling/SDS
housekeeping/
laundry
ADA
The physical equipment and mechanical devices that employers provide to safeguard and protect employees are known as
SDS
engineering/work practice controls
housekeeping/
laundry
labeling
A means of piercing mucous membranes or the skin barrier through such events as needlesticks, cuts, and abrasions.
OPIM
parenteral
synovial
biohazardous
Which of the following would not go into the shaprs container?
orthodontic wire
contaminated needles
surgical knives or blades
rubber dam
Blue means health hazard?
True
False
Red means Fire Hazard?
True
False
Yellow means reactivity or stability of a chemical?
True
False
White means PPE needed when using the chemical.
True
False
Summaries that provide information about the potential hazards of a product as well as safety measures are kept in a
safety data sheet
exposure control plan
hazardous communication standard
globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals.
If the SDS is not available in the office for a given material, what should be done?
Request it from the manufacturer
Use the material with caution
Use the material and review the SDS once the manufacturer supplies it.
SDS is not necessary to use a material.
Adverse means occurrence of effect that is not desired.
True
False
Elixir means:
a drug that relieves pain
poisonous
a sweetened, aromatic, solution of alcohol and water.
None of the Above
Define narcotic:
a class of substances that produce stupor or sleep
poisonous
building up of body tissues.
None of the above
Define suspension:
a drug that relieve pain
a system consisting of small particles kept dispersed by agitation or by molecular motion in the surrounding medium
building up of body tissues
None of the above
Define toxic:
poisonous
building up of body tissues
a drug that relieves pain
None of the Above
Define analgesic:
a drug that relieves pain
building up of body tissues
poisonous
None of the above
Define vasoconstrictor:
drug causing constriction or narrowing of the blood vessels.
a drug that relieves pain
poisonous
None of the above.
A transdermal patch is an adhesive patch that is applied to the_______.
decrease
skin
aromatic
none of the above
Orthostatic hypotension is a result of a _______ in blood pressure to below normal.
decrease
skin
euphoria
none of the above
A state of intense happiness is known as ________.
euphoria
skin
decrease
None of the above
Which of the following is the study of all drugs?
Medicine
Addiction
Pharmmacology
Parenteral
What is the concentration of lidocaine?
3%, no vasoconstrictor
2%, 1:100,000
4%, 1:100,000
None of the above
What is the concentration of mepivacaine?
3%, no vasoconstrictor
2%, 1:100,000
4%, 1:100,000
none of the above
What is the concentration of prilocaine?
4%, no vasoconstrictor
3%, no vasoconstricor
2%, 1:100,000
None of the Above
What is the concentration of bupivacaine?
5%, 1:200,000
3%, no vasoconstrictor
2%, 1:100,000
None of the above
What is the concentration of articaine?
4%, 1:100,000
3%, no vasoconstrictor
2%, 1:100,000
None of the Above
What is the brand name for codeine and acetaminophen?
Percocet
Demerol
Tylenol #3
Vicodin
What is the brand name for Lidocaine?
Octocaine
Marcaine
Citanest
None of the Above
What is the brand name for Mepivacaine?
Carbocaine
Septocaine
Octocaine
None of the above
What is the brand name for Prilocaine?
Citanest
Marcaine
Septocaine
None of the Above
What is the brand name for Bupivacaine?
Marcaine
Citanest
Septocaine
None of the Above
What is the brand name for Articaine?
Septocaine
Marcaine
Citanest
None of the Above
Valium (diazepam) is considered which DEA schedule?
I
II
III
IV
What is the antibiotic prophylactically regimen for a patient who is able to take oral medication with no medication allergies?
amoxicillin, 2g
amoxicillin, 500mg
clindamycin, 500mg
clindamycin, 600mg
