Worksheets100.3
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Parthenogenesis is a form of
a)
sexual reproduction in ciliate protozoa
b)
sexual reproduction in hermaphrodites
c)
asexual reproduction in which females produce eggs that develop without fertilization
d)
asexual reproduction in lower organisms by which progeny arises by fragmentation of a parent organism
2.
The human zygote produced during fertilization
a)
divides by meiosis
b)
starts its development in the ovary
c)
divides by mitosis
d)
is haploid
3.
Which of the following is true for a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
a)
The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
b)
The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
c)
Each cell has 8 homologous pairs.
d)
A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes.
4.
Which of these statements is false?
a)
In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.
b)
In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female or male.
c)
Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
d)
At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
5.
In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in
a)
spores
b)
gametophytes
c)
zygotes
d)
clones
6.
A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?
a)
It must be a human.
b)
It must be a primate.
c)
It must be an animal.
d)
Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.
7.
A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following?
a)
63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs
b)
63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3
c)
63 chromosomes, each with three chromatids
d)
21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes
8.
Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?
a)
Homologous chromosomes are separated.
b)
The chromosome number per cell is conserved.
c)
Sister chromatids are separated.
d)
Four daughter cells are formed.
9.
Homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs.
a)
The statement is true for mitosis only.
b)
The statement is true for meiosis I only.
c)
The statement is true for meiosis II only.
d)
The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis.
10.
Chromatids are separated from each other.
a)
The statement is true for meiosis I only.
b)
The statement is true for meiosis II only.
c)
The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
d)
The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
11.
Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.
a)
The statement is true for mitosis only.
b)
The statement is true for meiosis I only.
c)
The statement is true for meiosis II only.
d)
The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis.
12.
Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
a)
chromosome replication
b)
synapsis of chromosomes
c)
production of daughter cells
d)
alignment of chromosomes at the equator
13.
How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species?
a)
by allowing independent assortment of chromosomes
b)
by allowing fertilization
c)
by increasing gene stability
d)
by decreasing mutation frequency
14.
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
a)
a sperm
b)
an egg
c)
a zygote
d)
a somatic cell
15.
Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis I
c)
meiosis II
d)
fertilization
16.
Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that
a)
sister chromatids separate during anaphase
b)
DNA replicates before the division
c)
the daughter cells are diploid
d)
the chromosome number is reduced
17.
Which one is not an embryonic layer?
a)
mesoderm
b)
periderm
c)
endoderm
d)
ectoderm
18.
During embryonic development, the sperm and the ovum combine to form
a)
a morula
b)
a zygote
c)
endoderm
d)
a blastomere
19.
What are antigens?
a)
proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump
b)
proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains
c)
foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies
d)
proteins released during an inflammatory response
20.
Proteins with protective function are
a)
albumin
b)
antigens
c)
myosin
d)
antibodies
21.
The lifespan is
a)
a species attribute that is not encoded in the genetic program of each individual
b)
a species attribute that is encoded in the genetic program of each individual
c)
an individual attribute that is not encoded in the genetic program
d)
none of these
22.
Tissues are groups of
a)
cells that have a common origin, similar structure and function
b)
cells that have a common origin but differ in structure and function
c)
cells differing in origin, structure and function
d)
cells differing in origin but have similar structure and function
23.
Tissues are composed of cells, and tissues functioning together make up
a)
organs
b)
organ systems
c)
organelles
d)
organisms
24.
An example of a connective tissue is the
a)
skin
b)
nerves
c)
blood
d)
smooth muscles
25.
Connective tissues have
a)
many densely packed cells without an extracellular matrix
b)
an epithelial origin
c)
relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix
d)
the ability to transmit electrochemical impulses
26.
Blood is best classified as connective tissue because
a)
its cells can be separated from each other by an extracellular matrix
b)
it contains more than one type of cell
c)
it is contained in vessels that 'connect' different parts of an organism’s body
d)
it is found within all the organs of the body
27.
With its abundance of collagenous fibers, cartilage is an example of
a)
connective tissue
b)
reproductive tissue
c)
nervous tissue
d)
epithelial tissue
28.
The nucleus of a typical nerve cell is found in the
a)
cell body
b)
axonal region
c)
dendritic region
d)
synapse
29.
All types of muscle tissue have
a)
striated banding pattern seen under the microscope
b)
cells that lengthen when appropriately stimulated
c)
a response that can be consciously controlled
d)
interactions between actin and myosin
30.
All skeletal muscle fibers are both
a)
smooth and involuntary
b)
striated and voluntary
c)
smooth and voluntary
d)
striated and involuntary
31.
Cardiac muscle is both
a)
striated and involuntary
b)
smooth and voluntary
c)
striated and voluntary
d)
smooth and involuntary
32.
The type of muscle tissue associated with internal organs, other than the heart, is
a)
skeletal muscle
b)
cardiac muscle
c)
striated muscle
d)
smooth muscle
33.
Skeletal muscle cells
a)
are long highly branched cells with many nuclei
b)
are identical in appearance to smooth muscle cells found in the heart
c)
contain contractile filaments made of actin and myosin
d)
are primarily under involuntary control
34.
The human thorax has
a)
10 pairs of ribs
b)
8 pairs of ribs
c)
12 pairs of ribs
d)
14 pairs of ribs
35.
The human spinal column consists of the following vertebrae:
a)
5 cervical, 12 thoracic, 7 lumbar, sacrum, and coccyx
b)
7 cervical, 10 thoracic, 7 lumbar, sacrum, and coccyx
c)
7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, sacrum, and coccyx
d)
7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 7 lumbar, sacrum, and coccyx
36.
Which of the following statements is false?
a)
The human hand has five metacarpal bones.
b)
The human hand has eight carpal bones.
c)
The human skeleton is made up of more than 300 bones of all shapes and sizes.
d)
There are seven metatarsal bones.
37.
White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process?
a)
exocytosis
b)
phagocytosis
c)
pinocytosis
d)
osmosis
38.
Where are semilunar valves to be found in the mammalian heart?
a)
where blood goes from atria to ventricles
b)
on the right side of the heart only
c)
where the pulmonary veins attach to the heart
d)
at the places where blood leaves via the aorta and pulmonary arteries
39.
After the birth erythrocytes are produced only in
a)
red bone marrow of flat and short bones
b)
liver
c)
spleen
d)
lymph nodes
40.
There can be immunological conflict due to Rh-incompatibility between mother and fetus when
a)
mother (Rh+), and the fetus is (Rh-)
b)
mother (Rh-), and the fetus is (Rh+)
c)
mother (Rh+), and the fetus is (Rh+)
d)
mother (Rh-), and the fetus is (Rh-)
41.
Red blood cells contain
a)
myoglobin
b)
albumin
c)
fibrinogen
d)
hemoglobin
42.
Blood serum differs from blood plasma in that
a)
it contains fibrinogen
b)
it does not contain fibrinogen
c)
it contains albumin
d)
it does not contain albumin
43.
Human plasma proteins do not include which of the following?
a)
fibrinogen
b)
hemoglobin
c)
immunoglobulin
d)
albumin
44.
What is the role for red blood cells?
a)
to participate in blood clotting to stop bleeding
b)
to take part in immunological defense
c)
oxygen transfer
d)
iron transfer
45.
Which of the following proteins is involved in blood clotting?
a)
fibrin
b)
gamma globulins
c)
albumin
d)
collagen
46.
Platelets are
a)
specialized cells with non-functional nuclei
b)
specialized anucleated cells
c)
cytoplasmic fragments of large bone marrow cells
d)
erythrocytes free of hemoglobin
47.
The thickest layer of the heart is
a)
endocardium
b)
epicardium
c)
myocardium
d)
pericardium
48.
The site of the thickest musculature in the heart is the
a)
right atrium
b)
left ventricle
c)
aorta
d)
right ventricle
49.
Blood flows into the left atrium through
a)
4 pulmonary veins
b)
pulmonary artery
c)
two venae cavae
d)
aorta
50.
Blood flows into the right atrium through
a)
4 pulmonary veins
b)
pulmonary artery
c)
two venae cavae
d)
aorta
51.
In the pulmonary artery flows
a)
arterial blood
b)
venous blood
c)
blood rich in oxygen
d)
lymph
52.
Pulmonary circulation begins from
a)
right ventricle
b)
left ventricle
c)
left atrium
d)
right atrium
53.
Systemic circulation begins from
a)
right ventricle
b)
left ventricle
c)
left atrium
d)
right atrium
54.
The hemoglobin molecule is an assembly of four globular protein subunits. Each subunit is composed of a protein chain and a non-protein heme group, which consists of heterocyclic ring and a
a)
magnesium ion
b)
calcium ion
c)
sodium ion
d)
iron ion
55.
The walls of alveoli are made of
a)
muscle cells
b)
nerve cells
c)
epithelial cells
d)
secretory cells
56.
Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by
a)
smooth muscles
b)
voluntary muscles
c)
striated muscles
d)
skeletal muscles
57.
Some nutrients are considered “essential” in the diets of certain animals because
a)
only those animals use the nutrients
b)
they are subunits of important polymers
c)
they cannot be manufactured by the organism
d)
they are necessary coenzymes
58.
Animals require certain amino acids in their diet. An amino acid that is referred to as nonessential would be best described as one that
a)
can be made by the animal’s body from other substances
b)
is not used by the animal in biosynthesis
c)
must be ingested in the diet
d)
is less important than an essential amino acid
59.
Bile is produced in
a)
liver
b)
pancreas
c)
gall bladder
d)
duodenum
60.
Gastric digestive juice contains
a)
pepsin
b)
pectin
c)
amylase
d)
maltase
61.
The first section of the small intestine is called
a)
appendix
b)
sphincter
c)
duodenum
d)
sphincter
62.
In the cells of the liver is produced
a)
bile
b)
liver juice
c)
gastric juice
d)
insulin
63.
The process by which the organism accepts food is called
a)
digestion
b)
nutrition
c)
absorption
d)
phagocytosis
64.
The cornifying of the surface layers of the epithelium is a result of the accumulation of the protein
a)
keratin inside the cells
b)
keratin between the cells
c)
melanin inside the cells
d)
melanin between the cells
65.
The skin is mainly composed of two layers
a)
dermis and hypodermis
b)
epidermis and dermis
c)
epidermis and mesodermis
d)
epidermis and hypodermis
66.
The vagina is a muscle tube that connects
a)
uterus with external reproductive organs
b)
uterus with fallopian tubes
c)
fallopian tubes with ovary
d)
ovary with uterus
67.
In the center of the elastic membrane called hymen there are openings
a)
of the urethra
b)
of the anus
c)
of the uterus
d)
for the menstrual blood
68.
Fallopian tubes are 10–20 cm long and connect
a)
uterus with external reproductive organs
b)
uterus with vagina
c)
vagina with ovary
d)
ovary with uterus
69.
Most often fertilization occurs in
a)
uterus
b)
vagina
c)
fallopian tubes
d)
ovary
70.
The sperm cells mature completely in the
a)
vas deferens
b)
epididymis
c)
seminal vesicles
d)
prostate gland
71.
The secretion produced by the seminal vesicles contains a simple sugar, which provides the sperm with additional energy. This sugar is
a)
glucose
b)
fructose
c)
galactose
d)
lactose
72.
Which statement about the epididymis is not correct?
a)
It begins at the end of vas deferens and passes into the abdominal cavity.
b)
It is 6 m long.
c)
It is a coiled tube, the end of which passes into the vas deferens.
d)
It sticks tightly to the testis.
73.
Gametogenesis:
a)
begins at puberty in males and females
b)
results in the production of diploid cells from haploid cells
c)
begins at puberty in females
d)
requires that meiosis halve the chromosome number so that sperm and eggs carry half the number of chromosomes
74.
The corpus luteum is formed
a)
in menopause
b)
by the effect of prolactin
c)
by the effect of progesterone
d)
from a ruptured follicle
75.
The spinal cord contains
a)
white and red matter
b)
white and grey matter
c)
red and yellow matter
d)
white and yellow matter
76.
Transmission of a nerve impulse across a synapse is facilitated
a)
by mechanical irritation of adjoining cells
b)
in a chemical way by means of ATP
c)
in a chemical way using a mediator
d)
by means of the sodium-potassium pump
77.
The main male sex hormone is
a)
estrogen
b)
progesterone
c)
testosterone
d)
estradiol
78.
The main female sex hormone is
a)
testosterone
b)
estradiol
c)
adrenalin
d)
insulin
79.
The hormone secreted by the pancreas is
a)
testosterone
b)
estradiol
c)
adrenalin
d)
insulin
80.
The hormone secreted by the adrenal glands is
a)
testosterone
b)
estradiol
c)
adrenalin
d)
insulin
81.
Which of the following statements about glucagon is incorrect?
a)
It is an insulin antagonist.
b)
It catalyzes glycogen dissociation in the liver.
c)
It belongs to pancreas-produced hormones.
d)
It belongs to hypophysis-produced hormones.
82.
Insulin is a hormone that
a)
facilitates glucose metabolism in cells
b)
participates in protein metabolism
c)
is involved in the urinary excretion of glucose
d)
increases the level of blood acetone
83.
All of the following are steroid hormones except
a)
androgen
b)
estrogen
c)
insulin
d)
testosterone
84.
Which is not part of the middle ear?
a)
malleus
b)
cochlea
c)
incus
d)
stapes
85.
The vibrations of the eardrum are passed to the
a)
malleus
b)
cochlea
c)
incus
d)
stapes
86.
The vibrations are passed to the inner ear by
a)
malleus
b)
cochlea
c)
incus
d)
stapes
87.
The innermost, light-sensitive layer of the eyeball is called
a)
cornea
b)
sclera
c)
retina
d)
iris
88.
The irregular shape of cornea is defect known as
a)
astigmatism
b)
color blindness
c)
double vision
d)
cross vision
89.
There are four primary taste sensations
a)
sweet, salty, sour, chili
b)
salty, sweet, chili, bitter
c)
sour, salty, sweet, bitter
d)
bitter, chili, sour, sweet
90.
The hominids (the first humanlike primates) include which of the following?
a)
gorillas
b)
chimpanzees
c)
australopithecines
d)
dryopithecines
91.
The most primitive hominid discovered to date
a)
may have hunted dinosaurs
b)
closely resembled a chimpanzee
c)
walked on two legs
d)
had a relatively large brain
92.
As humans diverged from other primates, which of the following appeared first?
a)
language
b)
bipedal locomotion
c)
making stone tools
d)
an enlarged brain
93.
Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bird?
a)
hindlimb of a kangaroo
b)
wing of a butterfly
c)
tail fin of a flying fish
d)
flipper of a cetacean
94.
Of the following anatomical structures, which is analogous to the wing of a bird?
a)
hindlimb of a kangaroo
b)
wing of a butterfly
c)
tail fin of a flying fish
d)
flipper of a cetacean
95.
Which of the following pairs of structures is least likely to represent homology?
a)
the wings of a bat and the arms of a human
b)
the hemoglobin of a baboon and that of a gorilla
c)
the mitochondria of a plant and those of an animal
d)
the wings of a bird and those of an insect
96.
Convergent structures are described as
a)
homologues
b)
analogous
c)
rudimental
d)
atavistic
97.
Which of the following statements is not true?
a)
Biocenosis includes phytocenosis and zoocenosis.
b)
Biocenosis interacts with abiotic factors, forming an ecosystem.
c)
Biotope, the environment of biocenosis, is the complex of biotic factors.
d)
Biome is a region characterized by a distinct climate and a particular assemblage of plants and animals adapted to it.
98.
All organisms living together in an area constitute
a)
zoocenosis
b)
biocenosis
c)
phytocenosis
d)
ecosystem
99.
The best classification system is that which most closely
a)
unites organisms that possess similar morphologies
b)
conforms to traditional, Linnaean taxonomic practices
c)
reflects evolutionary history
d)
reflects the basic separation of prokaryotes from eukaryotes
100.
The correct sequence, from the most to the least comprehensive, of the taxonomic levels listed here is
a)
family, phylum, class, kingdom, order, species, and genus
b)
kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species
c)
kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, and species
d)
phylum, kingdom, order, class, species, family, and genus
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