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Chapter 15: Mood Disorders - Depression

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a core symptom of major depressive disorder (MDD)?

a)

Pressured speech

b)

Euphoria

c)

Anhedonia

d)

Flight of ideas

2.

Which neurotransmitter is most closely linked with depression?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

GABA

c)

Serotonin

d)

Glutamate

3.

Which medication class is considered first-line for depression?

a)

Benzodiazepines

b)

MAOIs

c)

SSRIs

d)

Tricyclics

4.

What is a vegetative symptom of depression?

a)

Auditory hallucinations

b)

Loss of energy

c)

Compulsive behavior

d)

Elated mood

5.

Which of the following is the best initial nursing intervention for suicidal ideation?

a)

Offer group therapy

b)

Encourage journaling

c)

Implement 1:1 observation

d)

Suggest exercise

6.

What is the therapeutic response timeframe for SSRIs?

a)

1–3 days

b)

5–7 days

c)

1–2 weeks

d)

2–4 weeks

7.

Which side effect requires immediate intervention?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Sedation

8.

What symptom is most specific to depression with melancholic features?

a)

Mood reactivity

b)

Loss of pleasure in all activities

c)

Paranoia

d)

Elevated mood

9.

Persistent depressive disorder requires a depressed mood for:

a)

1 month

b)

6 months

c)

1 year

d)

2 years

10.

A patient with MDD says, “I feel hopeless.” What is the nurse's priority?

a)

Encourage deep breathing

b)

Assess suicide risk

c)

Suggest distraction

d)

Offer reassurance

11.

What tool is commonly used to assess depression severity?

a)

CIWA

b)

PHQ-9

c)

PANSS

d)

MMSE

12.

What is a hallmark feature of atypical depression?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Weight loss

c)

Mood reactivity

d)

Lack of appetite

13.

Which patient statement indicates improvement?

a)

I still don’t want to eat.

b)

I’m thinking about hurting myself.

c)

I started walking my dog again.

d)

Life is pointless.

14.

14. The therapy especially useful for identifying negative thought patterns is:

a)

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy

b)

Psychoanalysis

c)

Humanistic Therapy

d)

Behavioral Therapy

15.

Which symptom best characterizes mania?

a)

Hypersomnia

b)

Grandiosity

c)

Social withdrawal

d)

Apathy

16.

Which is a key difference between bipolar I and II disorder?

a)

Bipolar I includes hypomania

b)

Bipolar II includes psychosis

c)

Bipolar I includes full manic episodes

d)

Bipolar II includes delusions

17.

What is the therapeutic range for lithium?

a)

0.1–0.4 mEq/L

b)

0.4–1.2 mEq/L

c)

1.5–2.0 mEq/L

d)

2.5–3.0 mEq/L

18.

Which early sign may suggest lithium toxicity?

a)

Sedation

b)

Fine hand tremors

c)

Nausea and vomiting

d)

Insomnia

19.

Which lab should be monitored regularly with lithium therapy?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Potassium

c)

Chloride

d)

Sodium

20.

Which medication is also used to treat acute mania besides lithium?

a)

Fluoxetine

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Valproate

d)

Buspirone

21.

Which nursing action is best during an acute manic episode?

a)

Provide group therapy

b)

Encourage vigorous exercise

c)

Limit environmental stimuli

d)

Promote detailed discussions

22.

What eating pattern is typical in mania?

a)

Overeating

b)

Skipping meals

c)

Regular meals

d)

Emotional eating

23.

Which behavior requires the most immediate intervention?

a)

Grandiose delusions

b)

Loud speech

c)

Hypersexual behavior

d)

Not sleeping for 3 nights

24.

What is a common side effect of valproate?

a)

Liver toxicity

b)

Weight loss

c)

Hypertension

d)

Renal impairment

25.

What is a priority discharge teaching topic for a patient with bipolar I?

a)

Discuss trauma triggers

b)

Monitor early signs of relapse

c)

Encourage work productivity

d)

Reduce screen time

26.

Which statement best indicates a manic episode?

a)

A. “I’ve been sleeping 10 hours a night.”

b)

B. “I have a million-dollar idea to change the world!”

27.

Which therapy is best for long-term bipolar management?

a)

EMDR

b)

Family-focused therapy

c)

Exposure therapy

d)

Behavioral therapy only

28.

Which electrolyte imbalance increases lithium toxicity risk?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Hypercalcemia

29.

What’s the best action if a patient on lithium develops diarrhea and tremors?

a)

Give antacids

b)

Encourage fluids

c)

Hold lithium and notify provider

d)

Reassure and continue dose

30.

Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

A. Avolition

b)

B. Alogia

c)

C. Delusions

d)

D. Social withdrawal

31.

Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Disorganized speech

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Catatonia

d)

Flat affect

32.

Atypical antipsychotics treat both:

a)

Positive symptoms only

b)

Negative symptoms only

c)

Positive and negative symptoms

d)

Cognitive symptoms only

33.

Which neurotransmitter is most implicated in schizophrenia?

a)
Acetylcholine
b)

Dopamine

c)

GABA

d)

Seretonin

34.

What is the most common type of hallucination in schizophrenia?

a)

Visual

b)

Olfactory

c)

Tactile

d)

Auditory

35.

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) are more likely to occur with:

a)

A. Atypical antipsychotics

b)

B. Antidepressants

c)

C. Typical antipsychotics

d)

D. Mood stabilizers

36.

Which symptom is a cognitive deficit in schizophrenia?

a)

Hallucination

b)

Delusion

c)

Poor memory

d)

Flat affect

37.

What is the purpose of the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS)?

a)

Assess suicidal risk

b)

Evaluate EPS

c)

Detect tardive dyskinesia

d)

Monitor hallucinations

38.

Which statement by a patient shows insight into their condition?

a)

A. “The voices tell me I’m Jesus.”

b)

B. “I don’t need meds. I’m not sick.”

c)

C. “I hear voices, but I know they aren’t real.”

d)

D. “People are spying on me through the TV.”

39.

Which side effect is specific to clozapine?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Agranulocytosis

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Rash

40.

The priority nursing action if a patient reports command hallucinations is:

a)

Assess the content of the hallucinations and ensure patient safety

b)

Ignore the hallucinations and continue routine care

c)

Administer sedative medication immediately

d)

Encourage the patient to rest alone in their room

41.

What does "anosognosia" refer to?

a)

Loss of pleasure

b)

Memory loss

c)

Inability to recognize one’s illness

d)

Disorganized thoughts

42.

Which is a key feature of disorganized schizophrenia?

a)

Catatonia

b)

Flat affect

c)

Word salad

d)

Delusions of grandeur

43.

What is “avolition”?

a)

Lack of motivation

b)

Lack of pleasure

c)

Lack of speech

d)

Lack of sleep

44.

Which medication has the highest risk of metabolic syndrome?

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Olanzapine

c)

Ziprasidone

d)

Fluphenazine

45.

Somatic symptom disorder is defined as:

a)

Intentional fabrication of illness

b)

Preoccupation with health without significant symptoms

c)

Multiple physical symptoms with distress and functional impairment

d)

Excessive eating and weight gain

46.

What best characterizes illness anxiety disorder?

a)

Persistent concern over minor symptoms

b)

Loss of sensory function

c)

Drug-seeking behavior

d)

Physical complaints with obvious medical explanation

47.

Conversion disorder symptoms often mimic:

a)

Endocrine conditions

b)

Neurologic conditions

c)

Cardiovascular disease

d)

Dermatologic disorders

48.

Factitious disorder is different from malingering because:

a)

Symptoms are not intentional

b)

It involves external gain

c)

Motivation is to assume the sick role

d)

It's treated with surgery

49.

The best treatment approach for somatic symptom disorders is:

a)

Avoiding psychological explanations

b)

Validating the pain and referring to CBT

c)

Frequent diagnostic testing

d)

Bedrest and medications

50.

What’s a key intervention for patients with conversion disorder?

a)

Tell them it’s all in their head

b)

Limit care team involvement

c)

Maintain safety and reinforce coping

d)

Give narcotics

51.

Which term describes faking symptoms for external rewards?

a)

Conversion

b)

Factitious disorder

c)

Hypochondriasis

d)

Malingering

52.

A patient complains of blindness after a traumatic event. Medical workup is negative. This likely indicates:

a)

Somatic symptom disorder

b)

Conversion disorder

c)

Factitious disorder

d)

Malingering

53.

What is "la belle indifférence"?

a)

Extreme anxiety about illness

b)

Indifference to significant symptoms

c)

Refusal of medical treatment

d)

Manipulative behavior

54.

Which therapy is most effective for somatic symptom disorders?

a)

EMDR

b)

CBT

c)

Group therapy only

d)

Light therapy

55.

What is the nurse's most therapeutic response to a patient overly concerned with health?

a)

It’s just stress.

b)

Your tests were normal, so you’re fine.

c)

Let’s explore what this pain means to you.

d)

You need to stop focusing on symptoms.

56.

What is the focus of treatment in somatic symptom disorders?

a)

Eliminating all symptoms

b)

Controlling hallucinations

c)

Improving coping and daily function

d)

Sedation and rest

57.

What differentiates somatic symptom disorder from illness anxiety disorder?

a)

The number of providers involved

b)

The presence of real symptoms

c)

The patient’s willingness to take medication

d)

The involvement of multiple organ systems

58.

What is the most appropriate nursing goal for a patient with somatic symptom disorder?

a)

Patient will identify symptoms as false

b)

Patient will stop all complaints

c)

Patient will develop effective coping mechanisms

d)

Patient will accept that pain is not real

59.

Which of the following is a sign of secondary gain?

a)

Craving attention

b)

Anxiety about being ill

c)

Relief from obligations due to illness

d)

Seeking a diagnosis

60.

Which medication is used to reverse opioid overdose?

a)

Naltrexone

b)

Disulfiram

c)

Methadone

d)

Naloxone

61.

What is a hallmark symptom of alcohol withdrawal?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Visual hallucinations

c)

Seizures

d)

Sedation

62.

What is a sign of opioid intoxication?

a)

Dilated pupils

b)

Increased respirations

c)

Pinpoint pupils

d)

Diarrhea

63.

What is the priority concern during benzodiazepine withdrawal?

a)

Anxiety

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Seizures

d)

Nausea

64.

What is the CIWA-Ar used to assess?

a)

Opioid overdose

b)

Alcohol dependence

c)

Alcohol withdrawal severity

d)

Depression during withdrawal

65.

Which medication helps reduce alcohol cravings?

a)

Lorazepam

b)

Disulfiram

c)

Naltrexone

d)

Buprenorphine

66.

What is the primary goal in detoxification?

a)

Punishment

b)

Abstinence

c)

Safe withdrawal

d)

Hospitalization

67.

Disulfiram works by:

a)

Reducing euphoria from alcohol

b)

Causing a reaction with alcohol

c)

Blocking dopamine

d)

Binding to opioid receptors

68.

Which drug is used as maintenance therapy for opioid use disorder?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Diazepam

c)

Methadone

d)

Sertraline

69.

What is a behavioral sign of stimulant intoxication?

a)

Lethargy

b)

Hypervigilance

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Sedation

70.

What is motivational interviewing used for?

a)

Confronting the patient

b)

Enhancing self-efficacy for change

c)

Diagnosing substance use

d)

Teaching withdrawal symptoms

71.

Which lab value indicates recent alcohol use?

a)

BUN

b)

AST/ALT

c)

BAC

d)

TSH

72.

Which patient behavior indicates denial?

a)

A. “I only drink socially.”

b)

B. “I want to change.”

c)

C. “I don’t enjoy drinking anymore.”

d)

D. “I drink because I’m stressed.”

73.

Long-term use of alcohol can lead to:

a)

Thyroid disease

b)

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

c)

Parkinson’s disease

d)

ALS

74.

What is the best nursing response to a patient with relapse?

a)

A. “You failed.”

b)

B. “You clearly weren’t ready.”

c)

C. “Let’s talk about what triggered the relapse.”

d)

D. “You should go to rehab again.”

75.

Which disorder is defined by impaired communication and restricted behaviors?

a)

ADHD

b)

ODD

c)

Autism Spectrum Disorder

d)

Conduct Disorder

76.

Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of ADHD?

a)

Aggression

b)

Inattention

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Delusions

77.

What class of medication is most commonly used to treat ADHD?

a)

Antipsychotics

b)

Antidepressants

c)

Stimulants

d)

Anticonvulsants

78.

Which behavior is typical in oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)?

a)

Lying and stealing

b)

Defiance toward authority

c)

Destruction of property

d)

Cruelty to animals

79.

What is a priority nursing intervention for a child with autism?

a)

Enforce rules strictly

b)

Minimize environmental stimuli

c)

Use group therapy

d)

Assign multiple caregivers

80.

Conduct disorder is characterized by:

a)

Social withdrawal

b)

Manipulative behavior

c)

Violating others’ rights

d)

Mood swings

81.

What’s the first-line treatment for adolescent depression?

a)

Benzodiazepines

b)

Fluoxetine

c)

Risperidone

d)

Lithium

82.

What is a red flag for childhood anxiety?

a)

Repetitive behaviors

b)

School refusal

c)

Talking back

d)

High energy

83.

Which therapy is most evidence-based for childhood trauma?

a)

CBT

b)

EMDR

c)

Family therapy

d)

Psychoanalysis

84.

Which disorder is most associated with bullying others?

a)

Autism

b)

ADHD

c)

Conduct disorder

d)

Generalized anxiety disorder

85.

What is a common side effect of stimulant medication?

a)

Sedation

b)

Decreased appetite

c)

Weight gain

d)

Tics

86.

What is the best approach to discipline a child with ODD?

a)

Punishment

b)

Physical redirection

c)

Positive reinforcement

d)

Ignore behaviors

87.

What is the priority when assessing a child who has been abused?

a)

Interview the caregiver

b)

Collect medical history

c)

Ensure child safety

d)

Obtain consent for therapy

88.

Which symptom might indicate PTSD in a child?

a)

Bedwetting

b)

Paranoia

c)

Hyperactivity

d)

Lack of empathy

89.

Which developmental disorder may include repetitive motor movements?

a)

ADHD

b)

Autism

c)

ODD

d)

PTSD

90.

Which medication is considered a first-line SSRI for major depressive disorder?

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Sertraline

c)

Lithium

d)

Valproate

91.

Lithium toxicity symptoms include all EXCEPT:

a)

Fine tremors

b)

Weight gain

c)

Polyuria

d)

Bradycardia

92.

Which mood stabilizer is an anticonvulsant used primarily for bipolar disorder?

a)

Valproate

b)

Fluoxetine

c)

Clozapine

d)

Diazepam

93.

Which medication is classified as a typical antipsychotic?

a)

Olanzapine

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Risperidone

d)

Quetiapine

94.

Which atypical antipsychotic requires regular CBC monitoring for agranulocytosis risk?

a)

Clozapine

b)

Ziprasidone

c)

Aripiprazole

d)

Paliperidone

95.

What is the most common stimulant prescribed for ADHD in children?

a)

Lorazepam

b)

Methylphenidate

96.

Which medication is FDA-approved to reduce alcohol cravings?

a)

Disulfiram

b)

Methadone

c)

Naltrexone

d)

Buprenorphine

97.

Which medication is used for opioid maintenance therapy?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Methadone

c)

Diazepam

d)

Disulfiram

98.

What is a common serious side effect of tricyclic antidepressants?

a)

Weight loss

b)

Cardiac toxicity

c)

Agranulocytosis

d)

Hyperglycemia

99.

Which SSRI is NOT commonly used to treat depression?

a)

Fluoxetine

b)

Sertraline

c)

Paroxetine

d)

Valproate

100.

Which medication is primarily used as a mood stabilizer but can also treat acute mania?

a)

Risperidone

b)

Olanzapine

c)

Lithium

d)

Valproate

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