Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Components of Nutritional Assessment

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three main components of nutritional assessment?

a)

History taking, Physical assessments, Laboratory data

b)

Dietary supplements, Exercise routines, Sleep patterns

c)

Genetic testing, Medication review, Family history

d)

Body temperature, Blood pressure, Heart rate

2.

Which of the following is NOT a part of history taking in nutritional assessment?

a)

Dietary data

b)

Socioeconomic data

c)

Skinfold measurements

d)

Medical data

3.

Give two examples of data collected during history taking in nutritional assessment.

a)

# of meals, fluid intake, food preferences, history of GI issues, allergies, taste, chewing/swallowing, appetite, elimination, medication use, activity, religious/cultural nutritional screening tools (any two)

b)

Blood pressure and heart rate only

c)

Height and weight only

d)

Vision and hearing screening results

4.

Physical assessments in nutritional assessment include anthropometric and clinical data.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

BMI and skinfold measurements are examples of which component of nutritional assessment?

a)

Physical assessments

b)

Dietary assessments

c)

Biochemical assessments

d)

Clinical assessments

6.

Laboratory data in nutritional assessment includes which of the following?

a)

Protein status

b)

Body vitamin status

c)

Trace element status

d)

All of the above

7.

List any three laboratory data parameters used in nutritional assessment.

a)

Cholesterol, triglycerides, hemoglobin, electrolytes, albumin, pre-albumin, transferrin, lymphocyte count, nitrogen balance (any three)

b)

Blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate

c)

Height, weight, BMI

d)

Urine color, skin turgor, capillary refill

8.

The diagram of the human figure with outstretched arms and labeled measurements is used for which purpose?

a)

To illustrate the proportions of the human body

b)

To show the internal organs of the body

c)

To demonstrate different types of exercise

d)

To display the nervous system layout

9.

What is a possible mental effect of poor nutrition?

a)

Mental status changes

b)

Increased muscle mass

c)

Improved vision

d)

Faster wound healing

10.

What physical symptom of poor nutrition involves feeling tired and lacking strength?

a)

Weakness, fatigue

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Improved vision

d)

Rapid hair growth

11.

What is a visible sign of poor nutrition that affects the eyes and bones?

a)

Sunken eyes, bony prominences

b)

Bright, clear eyes and strong bones

c)

Red, swollen gums and healthy teeth

d)

Smooth skin and shiny hair

12.

What are some skin and hair-related findings in a person with poor nutrition?

a)

Poor skin turgor, dry skin, brittle nails, loss of hair

b)

Oily skin, thick hair, strong nails, flushed cheeks

c)

Rapid hair growth, smooth skin, rosy nails, increased sweating

d)

Darkened skin, curly hair, long eyelashes, moist palms

13.

What blood protein level is often low in individuals with poor nutrition? (Normal range: 3.5-5.5)

a)

Albumin

b)

Globulin

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Hemoglobin

14.

What is a possible effect of poor nutrition on muscles?

a)

Flaccid muscles

b)

Stronger bones

c)

Improved vision

d)

Increased energy levels

15.

What dental issue can be a sign of poor nutrition?

a)

Poor dental health and bleeding gums

b)

Whiter teeth and fresh breath

c)

Stronger enamel and no cavities

d)

Perfectly aligned teeth

16.

Fill in the blank: One way to promote appetite is to ________ with feeding.

a)

assist

b)

argue

c)

ignore

d)

delay

17.

Fill in the blank: Creating ________ meal plans is a strategy to promote appetite.

a)

individualized

b)

random

c)

restrictive

d)

expensive

18.

Fill in the blank: To promote appetite, provide after ________ snacks.

a)

meal

b)

exercise

c)

school

d)

work

19.

Fill in the blank: ________ screening (nurse can order without MD order) is a way to promote appetite.

a)

Dietary

b)

Vision

c)

Hearing

d)

Blood pressure

20.

Fill in the blank: Education on ________ choices helps promote appetite.

a)

healthy

b)

expensive

c)

random

d)

limited

21.

Name one disease process that alters nutrition and requires careful monitoring.

a)

CHF

b)

Sprained ankle

c)

Seasonal allergies

d)

Mild sunburn

22.

Name one disease process that alters nutrition and requires careful monitoring.

a)

Stroke

b)

Sprained ankle

c)

Mild headache

d)

Paper cut

23.

Name one disease process that alters nutrition and requires careful monitoring.

a)

GI bleed, ulcers, hiatal hernia

b)

Sprained ankle

c)

Seasonal allergies

d)

Mild sunburn

24.

Name one disease process that alters nutrition and requires careful monitoring.

a)

DM

b)

Asthma

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Conjunctivitis

25.

Name one disease process that alters nutrition and requires careful monitoring.

a)

Altered mental status

b)

Hypertension

c)

Asthma

d)

Osteoarthritis

26.

Name one disease process that alters nutrition and requires careful monitoring.

a)

Respiratory compromised

b)

Sprained ankle

c)

Mild headache

d)

Seasonal allergies

27.

Name one disease process that alters nutrition and requires careful monitoring.

a)

Oral cancers, lesions

b)

Sprained ankle

c)

Mild sunburn

d)

Seasonal allergies

28.

Fill in the blank: Teaching nutritional information involves providing __________.

a)

appropriate diets

b)

mathematical formulas

c)

historical dates

d)

musical notes

29.

Fill in the blank: Monitoring __________ status is a key nursing intervention.

a)

nutritional

b)

emotional

c)

financial

d)

recreational

30.

Which of the following are methods for stimulating appetite?

a)

Oral hygiene

b)

Favorite foods

c)

Minimize environmental odors

d)

All of the above

31.

Fill in the blank: Assisting with eating involves __________.

a)

promoting independence

b)

restricting choices

c)

feeding without consent

d)

ignoring preferences

32.

Fill in the blank: Providing __________ nutrition is a nursing intervention.

a)

oral

b)

visual

c)

auditory

d)

tactile

33.

Fill in the blank: Providing long-term nutritional support involves __________.

a)

individualized menu plans

b)

short-term fasting

c)

eliminating all carbohydrates

d)

avoiding all fats

34.

What does NPO (nil per os) mean?

a)

Nothing by mouth

b)

Take with food

c)

Drink plenty of water

d)

Take before bedtime

35.

Which type of therapeutic diet consists of only clear liquids?

a)

Clear liquids

b)

Full liquids

c)

Soft diet

d)

Regular diet

36.

Which therapeutic diet includes clear liquids, liquid dairy, and all juices?

a)

Full liquids

b)

Clear liquids

c)

Soft diet

d)

Low residue diet

37.

Which therapeutic diet includes clear, full, and pureed meats, fruits, and scrambled eggs?

a)

Pureed

b)

Clear liquid

c)

Low sodium

d)

Diabetic

38.

Which therapeutic diet includes clear, full, and diced or ground foods?

a)

Mechanical soft

b)

Ketogenic

c)

Low sodium

d)

Vegan

39.

Which therapeutic diet is low in fiber and easy to digest, such as dairy, eggs, and ripe bananas?

a)

Soft/low residue

b)

High-protein

c)

Ketogenic

d)

Gluten-free

40.

Which therapeutic diet includes whole grains, raw and dried fruits?

a)

High fiber

b)

Low sodium

c)

Clear liquid

d)

Low protein

41.

What is the term for difficulty swallowing, which may require a special therapeutic diet?

a)

Dysphagia

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Dyspepsia

d)

Dysphasia

42.

Which therapeutic diet involves no added salt or 1-2 g Na?

a)

Low sodium

b)

High protein

c)

Gluten free

d)

Low fat

43.

Which therapeutic diet limits dietary cholesterol to no more than 300 mg/day?

a)

Low cholesterol

b)

High protein

c)

Low sodium

d)

Gluten free

44.

Which therapeutic diet requires a balanced intake of protein, fats, and carbs of about 1800 calories?

a)

Diabetic

b)

Ketogenic

c)

Gluten-free

d)

Low-sodium

45.

Fill in the blank: One way to prevent aspiration is to position the client in ______ position.

a)

Fowlers

b)

Supine

c)

Prone

d)

Trendelenburg

46.

Fill in the blank: To help propel food down and prevent aspiration, have the client ______ their chin when swallowing.

a)

tuck

b)

raise

c)

tilt back

d)

turn

47.

Fill in the blank: To prevent aspiration, avoid the use of ______ when feeding the client.

a)

straws

b)

spoons

c)

cups

d)

plates

48.

Fill in the blank: When preventing aspiration, it is important to observe for ______ of food in the mouth.

a)

pocketing

b)

chewing

c)

swallowing

d)

tasting

49.

Fill in the blank: Observe for indications of ______, such as coughing, gagging, drooling, or choking, to prevent aspiration.

a)

dysphagia

b)

hypertension

c)

tachycardia

d)

hypoglycemia

50.

Fill in the blank: After eating, keep the client in a semi-fowlers position for at least ______ hour(s) to prevent aspiration.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

0.5

d)

3

51.

Fill in the blank: To prevent aspiration, provide ______ hygiene after meals.

a)

oral

b)

hand

c)

foot

d)

ear

52.

Fill in the blank: During stroke and dysphagia screening, the patient must be in _______ position.

a)

Fowler’s

b)

Prone

c)

Supine

d)

Trendelenburg

53.

Fill in the blank: During stroke and dysphagia screening, the patient must be able to _______.

a)

hold up head

b)

close eyes tightly

c)

move fingers rapidly

d)

stand on one leg

54.

Fill in the blank: During stroke and dysphagia screening, you must perform a _______.

a)

dysphagia screening

b)

blood pressure check

c)

vision test

d)

hearing assessment

55.

During stroke and dysphagia screening, how much water should be used and should straws be allowed?

a)

3 oz of water, no straws

b)

8 oz of water, with straws

c)

3 oz of water, with straws

d)

8 oz of water, no straws

56.

Fill in the blank: If a patient fails dysphagia screening, they need a _______ and swallowing test.

a)

speech eval

b)

blood pressure

c)

vision

d)

hearing

57.

Fill in the blank: Patients who have dysphagia should use _______ and pureed foods.

a)

thickened liquids

b)

carbonated drinks

c)

spicy sauces

d)

crunchy snacks

58.

The speech therapist performs a swallowing evaluation and assists the client in swallowing techniques to reduce the risk of aspiration.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

What is the brand name of the instant food & beverage thickener shown in the image?

a)

Hormel

b)

Nestle

c)

Thick-It

d)

Ensure

60.

Assess Patient for the following behavior: Wet, gurgle, voice quality. (Circle Yes or No)

a)

Yes

b)

No

61.

Assess Patient for the following behavior: Excessive drooling or inability to handle saliva.

a)

Yes

b)

No

62.

Assess Patient for the following behavior: Facial numbness or drooping.

a)

Yes

b)

No

63.

Assess Patient for the following behavior: Consistent throat clearing. (Circle Yes or No)

a)

Yes

b)

No

64.

Assess Patient for the following behavior: Weak, absent or delayed cough and/or swallowing.

a)

Yes

b)

No

65.

Assess Patient for the following behavior: Whispered or slurred speech.

a)

Yes

b)

No

66.

Assess Patient for the following behavior: Feeling of food stuck in throat.

a)

Yes

b)

No

67.

Enter the date of the dysphagia screening: ____________

a)

12/03/2023

b)

01/01/2022

c)

15/08/2021

d)

23/11/2020

68.

Enter the time of the dysphagia screening: ____________

a)

08:30 AM

b)

12:00 PM

c)

03:45 PM

d)

07:15 AM

69.

Dysphagia Screen completed by: ____________

a)

(To be filled by the user)

b)

Patient

c)

Family Member

d)

Visitor

e)

Receptionist

70.

What type of nutritional support is provided through a tube inserted into the nose and down into the stomach?

a)

Nasogastric tube

b)

Intravenous line

c)

Gastrostomy tube

d)

Orogastric tube

71.

Which type of nutritional support involves intravenous alimentation?

a)

PPN and TPN

b)

Enteral nutrition

c)

Oral supplements

d)

Nasogastric feeding

72.

Name the tube that is inserted through the nose and ends in the duodenum for nutritional support.

a)

Nasoduodenal tube

b)

Nasogastric tube

c)

Orogastric tube

d)

Jejunostomy tube

73.

Which tube is used for nutritional support and is inserted through the abdominal wall directly into the stomach?

a)

Gastrostomy tube

b)

Nasogastric tube

c)

Endotracheal tube

d)

Jejunostomy tube

74.

Which of the following is NOT a type of tube used for enteral nutritional support?

a)

Nasogastric tube

b)

Jejunostomy tube

c)

PPN

d)

Gastrostomy tube

75.

What is the name of the tube that is inserted through the nose and ends in the jejunum for nutritional support?

a)

Nasojejunal tube

b)

Nasogastric tube

c)

Orogastric tube

d)

Jejunostomy tube

76.

Which tube is inserted directly into the jejunum for nutritional support?

a)

Jejunostomy tube

b)

Nasogastric tube

c)

Gastrostomy tube

d)

Orogastric tube

77.

What are the two routes mentioned for short-term nutritional support?

a)

Nasogastric or nasointestinal route

b)

Oral or sublingual route

c)

Intramuscular or subcutaneous route

d)

Transdermal or rectal route

78.

Which of the following is a method for confirming NG feeding tube placement?

a)

Radiographic examination

b)

Blood test

c)

MRI scan

d)

Ultrasound

79.

Name one method for confirming NG feeding tube placement that involves measuring pH and visual assessment.

a)

Measurement of aspirate pH and visual assessment of aspirate

b)

Auscultation of air insufflation over the stomach

c)

Observation of patient swallowing

d)

Checking for tube length at nostril

80.

What should be measured to confirm the placement of an NG feeding tube, according to the slide?

a)

Measurement of tube length and tube marking

b)

Patient's blood pressure

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Urine output

81.

Fill in the blank: Before feedings, it is important to confirm ______ placement.

a)

tube

b)

needle

c)

catheter

d)

stent

82.

Fill in the blank: Elevate the head of the bed at least ____ degrees during feedings and maintain the client in this position for approximately 60 min following completion of the feeding.

a)

30

b)

10

c)

45

d)

60

83.

Fill in the blank: Administer bolus feedings over a period of at least ____ min and according to client tolerance.

a)

15

b)

5

c)

30

d)

60

84.

Fill in the blank: Flush the tubing with at least ____ mL of water every 4 hr for continuous infusion, after measuring gastric residual, before and after bolus feedings, and between each medication administration.

a)

30

b)

10

c)

50

d)

100

85.

Fill in the blank: Unclog tubing using gentle pressure with 30 to 50 mL warm water in a ____ mL piston syringe.

a)

60

b)

10

c)

20

d)

100

86.

Which part of the PEG catheter is in contact with the stomach wall?

a)

External crossbar

b)

Internal crossbar

c)

Tubing clamp

d)

Plug-in adapter

87.

In the diagram showing the jejunal feeding tube, where is the end of the catheter located?

a)

Stomach

b)

Jejunum

c)

Esophagus

d)

Skin guard

88.

Fill in the blank: The ________ is used to secure the feeding tube at the skin surface in both diagrams.

a)

skin guard

b)

catheter clamp

c)

feeding port

d)

insertion stylet

89.

According to the instructions for gastric tube care, what should you connect to the feeding tube?

a)

the feeding bag system

b)

the oxygen mask

c)

the blood pressure cuff

d)

the stethoscope

90.

If using a pump for tube feedings, what should you do?

a)

Start the pump without programming

b)

Program the instillation rate and set the total volume to instill

c)

Only set the total volume

d)

Do nothing

91.

What is the next step after connecting the feeding bag system to the feeding tube?

a)

Start the pump.

b)

Disconnect the feeding tube.

c)

Remove the feeding bag.

d)

Shake the feeding tube vigorously.

92.

How often should you flush the enteral tubing with at least 30 mL water and check tube placement again?

a)

Every 4 to 6 hours

b)

Every 8 to 10 hours

c)

Once a day

d)

Every 12 hours

93.

What should be monitored and included in 24-hour totals during tube feedings?

a)

Intake and output

b)

Blood pressure readings

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Body temperature

94.

How often should capillary blood glucose be monitored until the client tolerates the maximum administration rate for 24 hours?

a)

Every 6 hours

b)

Every 2 hours

c)

Every 12 hours

d)

Every 24 hours

95.

What type of pump should be used for intestinal tube feedings?

a)

An infusion pump

b)

A vacuum pump

c)

A peristaltic pump

d)

A centrifugal pump

96.

According to the manufacturer's recommendations, what should be done with unused formula after 24 hours?

a)

Refrigerate unused formula, and discard after 24 hours.

b)

Freeze unused formula for later use.

c)

Leave unused formula at room temperature for up to 48 hours.

d)

Mix unused formula with fresh formula and use within 72 hours.

97.

Some facilities require gastric residual volume checks every 4 to 6 hours. What should you check for specific actions to take for the amount of residual?

a)

Check facility protocol

b)

Always discard the residual

c)

Increase the feeding rate

d)

Ignore the residual amount

98.

True or False: The skill of tube feeding should be delegated to assistive personnel.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Which type of nutritional support is administered through a central venous catheter?

a)

TPN

b)

PPN

c)

Both

d)

Neither

100.

TPN solutions contain a high concentration of ______ and dextrose.

a)

protein

b)

lipids

c)

calcium

d)

potassium

Similar Resources on Wayground

Final Exam Review 2025

105 questions

Final Exam Review 2025

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th Grade - University

Criminological Research Midterm Exam 2025

100 questions

Criminological Research Midterm Exam 2025

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

E.M. spectrum and light waves

100 questions

E.M. spectrum and light waves

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade - University

Bio Norms & Procedures

99 questions

Bio Norms & Procedures

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University

Medical Terminology Ch. #8 (Digestive System)

100 questions

Medical Terminology Ch. #8 (Digestive System)

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

Bio 101 - Chapter 2

104 questions

Bio 101 - Chapter 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Biology 1406-02P CH 3

96 questions

Biology 1406-02P CH 3

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Comprehensive MLT Quiz

100 questions

Comprehensive MLT Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

University