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The Core Chapter 6 Test Review

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the monomer of the DNA molecule?

a)

Polynucleotide

b)

Monosaccharide

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Peptide

2.

What do the letters D-N-A stand for?

a)

Dioxyribonucleic acid

b)

Dioxyribonuclear acid

c)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

d)

Deoxyrobonuclear acid

3.

What is the type of bond between two strands of DNA?

a)

A peptide bond

b)

A hydrogen bond

c)

A ionic bond

d)

A covalent bond

4.

What is different from one DNA nucleotide to the next?

a)

The sugar molecule

b)

The phosphate group

c)

The base

d)

The protein

5.

What are the three components of a DNA nucleotide?

a)

A sugar, a phosphate and a base

b)

A sugar, a base, and a polypeptide

c)

A sugar, a phosphate, and a peptide

d)

A phosphate, a base, and a polypeptide

6.

If you know that a DNA double helix consists of 20% adenine, what percentage of the DNA double helix is guanine (G)?

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

80%

d)

There is not information to know

7.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding complementary DNA bases to an exposed DNA strand?

a)

DNA helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

DNA peptidase

8.

What is the main function of DNA helicase in DNA replication?

a)

Unzipping the DNA double helix

b)

Adding complementary DNA bases to the newly forming DNA strand

c)

Proofreading the DNA molecule

d)

Fusing DNA fragments together

9.

According to the base pairing rules of DNA, if the sequence of bases on one strand was AGGCCTTA, what would be the sequence of bases on the complementary strand?

a)

AGGCCTTA

b)

ATTGGGA

c)

CGGATTC

d)

TGCGAAT

10.

DNA replication is a semi-conservative process. This means that after replication, ________.

a)

each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands

b)

each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand

c)

each new DNA double helix contains 25% of the old DNA double helix

d)

each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands

11.

Which of the following statement is not correct about DNA replication?

a)

It happens in the nucleus

b)

It is semi-conservative

c)

Only genes are replicated in DNA replication

d)

It involves DNA polymerase

12.

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding DNA and RNA?

a)

They each contain a slightly different sugar molecule.

b)

DNA is double stranded, and RNA is a single strand.

c)

One of the bases is different.

d)

All of the above are correct.

13.

If DNA directs the production of RNA, what does RNA make?

a)

RNA makes proteins.

b)

RNA makes more DNA.

c)

RNA makes membranes.

d)

RNA makes more RNA.

14.

How is DNA linked to the production of proteins?

a)

Proteins hold the instructions on how to make DNA.

b)

DNA is the end point of protein production that allows cells to finish making proteins.

c)

DNA holds the instructions for the cells on how to make proteins.

d)

DNA is not linked to the production of proteins.

15.

The base that is not found in DNA, but only in RNA is (a)   .

Choose from the below words

thymine

uracil

guanine

adenine

16.

Why does transcription occur in the nucleus and not in the cytoplasm in eukaryotes?

a)

RNA cannot exist in the cytoplasm.

b)

DNA cannot leave the nucleus.

c)

Ribosomes cannot leave the nucleus.

d)

Codons are only found in the nucleus.

17.

A codon is ________.

a)

three nucleotides of DNA that code for an amino acid

b)

three nucleotides of RNA that code for an amino acid

c)

the section of DNA that codes for a protein

d)

the section of RNA that codes for a protein

18.

Ribosomes ________.

a)

translate mRNA into proteins

b)

transcribe DNA into mRNA

c)

are located inside the nucleus in eukaryotic cells

d)

are involved in making ATP for eukaryotic cells

19.

What part of a chromosome goes through transcription and translation?

a)

Only genes go through transcription and translation.

b)

Only introns go through transcription and translation.

c)

Both introns and exons go through transcription and translation.

d)

All of the chromosome goes through transcription and translation.

20.

What is a gene?

a)

A discrete sequence of DNA nucleotides

b)

A section of DNA that codes for one or more proteins

c)

A section of DNA that codes for a portion of a protein

d)

All of these and more are part of the expanding definition of a gene.

21.

Which of the following is not a modification to the mRNA before leaving the nucleus?

a)

Intron removal

b)

Promoter binding

c)

End capping

d)

Exon splicing

22.

What is a terminator?

a)

A promoter is a region of mRNA that is sliced out.

b)

A promoter is a region of DNA that marks the beginning of a gene.

c)

A promoter is a region of DNA that marks the end of a gene.

d)

A promoter is a region of mRNA where RNA polymerase binds.

23.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding promoters?

a)

Promoters are regions of DNA that indicates the start of a gene

b)

Promoters are regions of DNA where RNA polymerase can bind to start transcription

c)

Promoters act as a "start here" signal to help control gene expression

d)

All of the above are correct

24.

If the base sequence of template strand reads GCCATTAC, what is the base sequence of the mRNA?

a)

CGGUAAUG

b)

CGGTAATG

c)

CGGTUUTG

d)

GCCAUUAC

25.

What does "transfer RNA" actually transfer?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Codons

c)

Amino acids

d)

Anticodons

26.

If the codon is AAA, what is the complementary anticodon?

a)

UUU

b)

TTT

c)

AAA

d)

CCC

27.

Which process results in the creation of mRNA?

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

All of the above

28.

Where does translation occur in eukaryotes?

a)

In the nucleus only

b)

Both in the nucleus and in the cytoplasm

c)

In the cytoplasm only

d)

In neither the nucleus nor the cytoplasm

29.

How is translation initiated?

a)

DNA helicase binds to the origins of replication.

b)

Two ribosomal subunits bind to the mRNA transcript.

c)

RNA polymerase binds to the promoter sequence.

d)

Two ribosomal subunits bind to the DNA sequence.

30.

How many nucleotides are required to code for 10 amino acids?

a)

3

b)

10

c)

20

d)

30

31.

The genetic code is (a)   .

Choose from the below words

our DNA, in other words what makes us who we are

our genome

the complementary base-pairing of A going with T and C going with G

what allows codons to be translated into amino acids

32.

What is the correct sequence of events during translation?

a)

Elongation, initiation, termination

b)

Initiation, elongation, termination

c)

Termination, elongation, initiation

d)

Initiation, elongation, initiation

33.

Do all cells of the body express the same genes?

a)

Yes, since they all contain the same DNA

b)

Yes, since they all make the same proteins

c)

No, since they don't contain the same DNA

d)

No, since they don't all need to make the same proteins

34.

Can one gene make different proteins?

a)

Yes, by splicing the resulting mRNA differently (i.e., removing different exons)

b)

Yes, by modifying the original DNA

c)

No, because one gene codes only for a single protein

d)

No, because genes do not make proteins

35.

What does it mean when we say a gene is "turned off"?

a)

The gene is no longer working properly.

b)

The gene cannot be transcribed and translated into a protein.

c)

The gene has a mutation.

d)

The gene is now activated.

36.

What is gene regulation?

a)

Mechanisms that turn on and off specific genes to change which proteins are made

b)

Mechanisms that regulate the replication of DNA

c)

Mechanisms that regulate which genes get copied

d)

Mechanisms that turn on and off mitosis in the cell cycle

37.

In what way(s) can mRNAs be processed?

a)

By adding caps and tails to the ends of the mRNAs

b)

By removing the introns (the noncoding regions) of the mRNAs

c)

By splicing the exons (the coding regions) of the mRNAs in different ways

d)

All of the above are ways in which mRNAs can be processed

38.

Barr bodies are associated with ________.

a)

signal transduction

b)

X chromosome inactivation

c)

frameshift mutations

d)

proto-oncogenes

39.

The signal transduction pathway allows ________.

a)

one cell to regulate the gene expression of another cell

b)

a cell to repair damage to its DNA

c)

genes from one organism to be inserted into the nucleus of another organism's cells

d)

whole genomes to be sequenced

40.

When is cell-to-cell communication particularly important in regulating gene expression?

a)

During mitosis

b)

During meiosis

c)

During embryonic development

d)

During replication

41.

Which genes are responsible for your overall structure, such as how many legs you have and where they develop?

a)

Oncogenes

b)

Proto-oncogenes

c)

Growth factor genes

d)

Homeotic genes

42.

What are carcinogens?

a)

Physical or chemical factors that can lead to mutations causing cancer

b)

The only source of mutations in cells

c)

Errors during DNA replication

d)

Chemical factors that can treat cancer

43.

The type of mutation that alters the nucleotide sequence of a gene but does not alter the amino acid sequence of the protein produced from that gene is called (a)   mutation.

Choose from the below words

missense

silent

nonsense

frameshift

44.

What type of mutation leads to a frameshift in the reading of DNA?

a)

All point mutations

b)

Insertions only

c)

Deletions only

d)

Both insertions and deletions

45.

How does a cell typically know when to divide?

a)

Cells have an internal clock and divide only when they reach a certain age.

b)

Tumor suppressor genes code for growth factor proteins that initiate cell division.

c)

Proto-oncogenes code for growth factor proteins that initiate cell division.

d)

Oncogenes code for growth factor proteins that initiate cell division.

46.

Cancer is (a)   .

Choose from the below words

uncontrolled cell growth

any tumor in the body

cells with proto-oncogene activated

what happens when cells get old

47.

What are oncogenes?

a)

Oncogenes are necessary genes that help regulate the cell cycle.

b)

Oncogenes are mutated proto-oncogenes.

c)

Oncogenes are mutated tumor-suppressor genes.

d)

Oncogenes are necessary genes that inhibit the cell cycle.

48.

Which of the following mutations can help lead to cancer?

a)

Mutations to proto-oncogenes

b)

Mutations to tumor suppressor genes

c)

Mutations to growth factors

d)

All of the above would lead to cancer

49.

The spread of cancer cells from their site of origin to sites distant in the body is called _________.

a)

metastasis

b)

mitosis

c)

growth

d)

tumor

50.

What is a "benign" tumor?

a)

A mass of cancerous cells

b)

A single mutated cell that could potentially develop into cancer

c)

A mass of cells that grows out of control and spreads to other tissues

d)

A mass of cells that grows out of control but remains at the site of origin

51.

What is the main cause of cancer?

a)

DNA replication no longer working properly

b)

Exposure to carcinogens in the environment

c)

Old age, during which the cells of the body no longer work properly

d)

We do not currently know the main cause of cancer.

52.

Are there ways to prevent cancer?

a)

No, cancer cannot be prevented; it can only be treated.

b)

No, cancer cannot be prevented or treated.

c)

Yes, there are many ways cancer can be prevented, including through a healthy diet and exercise.

d)

Yes, cancer can be prevented, but only with intense exercise.

53.

Which of the following is a type of treatment for cancer?

a)

Chemotherapy

b)

Removing the tumor through surgery

c)

Removing the tumor through radiation therapy

d)

All of the above are ways that cancer can be treated

54.

Why can a person who is unable to produce insulin be successfully treated with insulin derived from genetically modified bacteria?

a)

Typical bacterial insulin is exactly the same as human insulin.

b)

The gene that produces insulin in humans was inserted into the bacteria where it continues to produce human insulin.

c)

The insulin-producing gene of bacteria was altered to have the same base sequence as the human counterpart and now produces the human version of insulin.

d)

Bacterial insulin is similar enough to human insulin to serve the same purpose.

55.

The small circular molecules of DNA commonly found in bacteria are called ________.

a)

chromatids

b)

plastids

c)

loops

d)

plasmids

56.

How would the cDNA created in a lab compare to the original DNA?

a)

It would contain only the genes that were producing proteins in the cell at the time the cDNA was created.

b)

It would be identical to the original DNA.

c)

It would be a single strand instead of the original double-stranded DNA.

d)

It would be circular, similar to bacterial DNA.

57.

What is recombinant DNA?

a)

A segment of DNA containing sequences from two different sources

b)

DNA that comes from plasmids

c)

DNA that can no longer replicate

d)

DNA that is circular

58.

A collection of cloned DNA fragments representing an organism's entire genome is called a ________.

a)

transgenic assembly

b)

genomic library

c)

clonal anthology

d)

complementary DNA collection

59.

What is the name of the enzyme that builds cDNA out of mRNA?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Reverse transcriptase

d)

DNA helicase

60.

Genetically modified organisms that acquire genes from a different species are called ________ organisms.

a)

mutant

b)

synthetic

c)

cloned

d)

transgenic

61.

Three of the following statements are correct. Identify the statement that is not correct regarding genetically modified organisms.

a)

There are no risks associated with GM crops.

b)

GM crops have been produced with increased nutrition.

c)

GM crops have been produced that are disease resistant.

d)

GM animals are not in our food supply.

62.

What separates the strands of DNA in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique?

a)

Restriction enzymes

b)

Helicase

c)

Centrifuge

d)

Heat

63.

The PCR technique doubles the amount of DNA in a sample in each cycle. If you started the PCR technique with two fragments of double-stranded DNA, calculate how many double-stranded DNA fragments you would have after four cycles.

a)

8

b)

16

c)

32

d)

64

64.

Can the PCR technique be used to copy an entire chromosome all at once?

a)

No, only the genes would be copied.

b)

No, the PCR machine can only copy fragments of DNA.

c)

Yes, that is its primary function.

d)

There is not enough information provided to answer

65.

What is the role of primers in the PCR techniques?

a)

To separate strands of double-stranded DNA

b)

To add free nucleotides to the newly formed DNA molecule

c)

To allow single strands of DNA to bind together

d)

To target specific areas of DNA

66.

Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments according to their (a)   .

Choose from the below words

length

charge

polarity

base sequences

67.

DNA profiling relies on an individual's (a)   , no two of which are the same between different people, except identical twins.

Choose from the below words

unique set of genes

unique mRNA sequences

unique set of short tandem repeats within DNA

unique fingerprints

68.

Is most of our DNA made up of genes?

a)

Yes, the vast majority of human DNA consists of genes.

b)

No, genes make up only 1.5% of our DNA.

c)

No, genes make about 25% of our DNA

d)

No, genes make about 50% of our DNA

69.

How does a scientist get the corrected version of a gene into the cells of a gene therapy patient?

a)

It is delivered with a modified virus.

b)

It is directly injected with a microscopic hypodermic needle.

c)

It is attached to a food molecule, such as glucose and is then ingested by the individual.

d)

It is attached to the surface of microscopic beads and is then shot into the individual (i.e., shotgun method).

70.

What is the correct pathway of information to go from a gene to a protein in a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Information located on DNA, and specifically on a gene site, is transcribed into an mRNA by RNA polymerase inside the nucleus. The mRNA leaves the nucleus through nuclear pores and goes to a ribosome in the cytoplasm, where translation occurs. Translation involves the matching of tRNAs with codons of mRNAs to deliver the right amino acid.

b)

Information located on DNA is directly translated into protein by ribosomes inside the nucleus, without the involvement of mRNA.

c)

Information located on mRNA is transcribed into DNA by RNA polymerase in the cytoplasm, and then translated into protein in the nucleus.

d)

Information located on DNA is first translated into protein in the nucleus, and then the protein is transported to the cytoplasm for further modification.

71.

Signal transduction involves the transmission of signals from the cell membrane to the inside of the cell, and is linked to protein synthesis by activating specific genes. Which of the following best describes this process?

a)

Signal transduction transmits signals from the cell membrane to the inside of the cell and activates specific genes for protein synthesis.

b)

Signal transduction only occurs inside the nucleus and does not involve the cell membrane.

c)

Signal transduction is unrelated to protein synthesis and only affects cell shape.

d)

Signal transduction stops at the cell membrane and does not affect gene expression.

72.

Entire genes may be deleted, inverted, replicated, or even translocated to another chromosome. Which of the following best explains how these changes could potentially result in cancer?

a)

They can disrupt normal cell regulation, leading to uncontrolled cell growth.

b)

They always improve the function of the affected gene.

c)

They prevent any changes in cell behavior.

d)

They only affect non-coding regions and have no impact.

73.

Chemotherapy kills cancer cells by targeting rapidly dividing cells, which can also result in hair loss and nausea because:

a)

It affects all rapidly dividing cells, including those in hair follicles and the digestive tract.

b)

It only targets cancer cells and leaves healthy cells unharmed.

c)

It boosts the immune system to attack cancer cells, causing side effects.

d)

It slows down the metabolism, leading to hair loss and nausea.

74.

A restriction enzyme might defeat a virus by:

a)

cutting the viral DNA at specific sites

b)

binding to the viral RNA and blocking translation

c)

destroying the viral protein coat

d)

preventing the virus from attaching to the host cell

75.

Chestnut trees could be genetically modified to be resistant to the fungus and to grow again by:

a)

Introducing genes that confer resistance to the fungus

b)

Increasing the amount of water and sunlight they receive

c)

Applying chemical fertilizers to the soil

d)

Pruning the trees more frequently

76.

The basic mechanism of CRISPR in DNA manipulation involves:

a)

using a guide RNA to direct a Cas9 enzyme to a specific DNA sequence for cutting

b)

randomly cutting DNA at various locations

c)

using proteins to add new genes without cutting DNA

d)

replacing entire chromosomes with synthetic ones