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Exam 3 Practice Review

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer (IVF-ET)?

a)

Woman’s eggs are collected from the ovary, fertilized in a laboratory, and transferred into the uterus at the embryo stage of development.

b)

Woman’s eggs are fertilized inside the body and the embryo is transferred to the fallopian tube.

c)

Sperm is directly injected into the uterus without egg retrieval.

d)

Only sperm is collected and analyzed in a laboratory without fertilization.

2.

What is zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)?

a)

After in vitro fertilization, the ovum is placed into the fallopian tube at the zygote stage of development.

b)

A technique where sperm is directly injected into the ovary.

c)

A process where the embryo is implanted into the uterus at the blastocyst stage.

d)

A method where the ovum is fertilized inside the fallopian tube.

3.

What is gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)?

a)

Multiple eggs collected from the ovaries are placed in a thin catheter with the sperm to be used. The gametes (eggs and sperm) are then injected into the fallopian tubes via laparoscopy while the patient is under general anesthesia.

b)

Eggs are fertilized outside the body and the resulting embryos are implanted into the uterus.

c)

A single sperm is injected directly into an egg in the laboratory and then transferred to the uterus.

d)

Sperm is directly injected into the uterus to facilitate fertilization.

4.

What is frozen embryo transfer (FET)?

a)

One or more embryos frozen during a previous treatment cycle are thawed and transferred into the uterus. The endometrium has been primed with estrogen and progestogen.

b)

A process where eggs are fertilized and immediately transferred into the uterus without freezing.

c)

A method where sperm is directly injected into the uterus without using embryos.

d)

A technique where embryos are frozen and stored indefinitely without ever being transferred.

5.

A gestational carrier is a person who carries and delivers a child for an intended parent or parents, using eggs retrieved from another person.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which of the following is NOT an intervention you can discuss with patients regarding infertility?

a)

Using water-soluble lubricants during intercourse

b)

Having the male partner avoid high scrotal temperatures

c)

Having the male partner avoid tight and fitting underwear

d)

Encouraging the use of spermicidal lubricants

7.

Fill in the blank: Using water-soluble lubricants during intercourse is recommended because these do not have ______ properties.

a)

spermicidal

b)

antibacterial

c)

antifungal

d)

antiviral

8.

Fill in the blank: Having the male partner avoid environments that cause high ______ temperatures, such as saunas, can reduce sperm production.

a)

scrotal

b)

cranial

c)

abdominal

d)

thoracic

9.

Fill in the blank: Stress management, nutrition counseling, and ______ analysis are interventions you can discuss with patients regarding infertility.

a)

lifestyle

b)

financial

c)

genetic

d)

medication

10.

What is menopause?

a)

Menopause is the cessation of menses for 12 consecutive months because of a decrease in estrogen production.

b)

Menopause is the onset of puberty in women.

c)

Menopause is the period of increased fertility in women.

d)

Menopause is the monthly cycle of ovulation in women.

11.

Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with menopause?

a)

Thinning of the vaginal walls

b)

Increased vaginal infections

c)

Increased estrogen production

d)

Painful sexual relations (dyspareunia)

12.

Osteoporosis is a decrease in bone mass that increases the risk of bone fractures.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What role does estrogen play in bone health?

a)

Estrogen enables vitamin D to assist in calcium absorption in the intestine and helps maintain healthy bone tissue.

b)

Estrogen increases the breakdown of bone tissue, leading to weaker bones.

c)

Estrogen prevents the absorption of calcium in the kidneys, reducing bone density.

d)

Estrogen has no effect on bone health or calcium metabolism.

14.

Older women on long-term combination hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are at increased risk for which of the following?

a)

Ovarian cancer

b)

Breast cancer

c)

Stroke

d)

Pulmonary embolism

15.

Which lifestyle activity does NOT increase the risk of osteoporosis?

a)

Inadequate intake of calcium and vitamin D

b)

Smoking

c)

Regular exercise

d)

Excessive alcohol intake

16.

Excessive caffeine, cola, or soft drink intake results in imbalanced calcium and phosphorus or demineralizes bone.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Define fistulectomy.

a)

Fistulectomy is the surgical excision of a rectovaginal or urethrovaginal fistula and repair of the tissue to prevent passage of urine or feces into the vagina.

b)

Fistulectomy is the removal of hemorrhoids from the anal canal.

c)

Fistulectomy is the surgical repair of a hernia in the abdominal wall.

d)

Fistulectomy is the excision of a cyst from the ovary.

18.

What is removed in a total hysterectomy?

a)

The entire uterus and cervix are removed. Ovaries and fallopian tubes are left intact.

b)

Only the ovaries are removed.

c)

Only the cervix is removed.

d)

The uterus, cervix, ovaries, and fallopian tubes are all removed.

19.

What is removed during an oophorectomy?

a)

An ovary

b)

A kidney

c)

A lung

d)

An appendix

20.

Hydrocele is defined as a larger-than-normal amount of fluid accumulating in the space between the testis and which structure?

a)

Tunica vaginalis

b)

Tunica albuginea

c)

Epididymis

d)

Spermatic cord

21.

Which of the following is a sign of hydrocele?

a)

Painful scrotum

b)

Swollen scrotum that is painless

c)

Redness of the scrotum

d)

Itching of the scrotum

22.

Hydrocele can be caused by trauma or infection such as epididymitis.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What is a typical treatment for hydrocele if the swelling is large or uncomfortable?

a)

Aspiration or surgical incision and drainage of the sac

b)

Application of topical antibiotics

c)

Oral antihistamines

d)

Physical therapy exercises

24.

Varicocele typically occurs on which side of the scrotum?

a)

Left side

b)

Right side

c)

Both sides equally

d)

Neither side

25.

Which diagnostic method is used to confirm varicocele?

a)

Doppler ultrasound

b)

X-ray

c)

CT scan

d)

Urinalysis

26.

Untreated varicocele is associated with long term complications.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Assigned female at birth.

b)

Obesity after menopause.

c)

Alcohol consumption.

d)

Lack of physical activity.

28.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Age (especially age 55 and up)

b)

Physical inactivity

c)

High-fat diet

d)

Alcohol consumption

29.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

BRCA1 and/or BRCA2 gene mutation.

b)

Obesity after menopause.

c)

Alcohol consumption.

d)

Physical inactivity.

30.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Other select gene mutations

b)

Obesity

c)

Alcohol consumption

d)

Physical inactivity

31.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Family history of breast cancer in a first-degree relative, a father, or a brother.

b)

Obesity after menopause

c)

Alcohol consumption

d)

Use of oral contraceptives

32.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Personal history of breast cancer

b)

Obesity

c)

Alcohol consumption

d)

Physical inactivity

33.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Race (African American females under age 40 and White females develop breast cancer at a higher risk than others; African American females are more likely to die from breast cancer at any age)

b)

Diet high in saturated fats

c)

Physical inactivity

d)

Alcohol consumption

34.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Physical characteristics: tall, dense breast tissue, certain benign breast conditions.

b)

Diet high in saturated fats.

c)

Lack of physical activity.

d)

Alcohol consumption.

35.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Early menarche; late menopause.

b)

Obesity after menopause.

c)

Alcohol consumption.

d)

Use of oral contraceptives.

36.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Chest radiation

b)

Obesity

c)

Alcohol consumption

d)

Physical inactivity

37.

Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)

b)

Obesity

c)

Alcohol consumption

d)

Physical inactivity

38.

Which of the following is a lifestyle-associated risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Drinking alcohol

b)

Wearing tight clothes

c)

Using mobile phones

d)

Drinking cold water

39.

Which of the following is a lifestyle-associated risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Being overweight or obese.

b)

Having blue eyes.

c)

Living at high altitude.

d)

Being left-handed.

40.

Which of the following is a lifestyle-associated risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Not being physically active.

b)

Having blue eyes.

c)

Eating only organic food.

d)

Living at high altitude.

41.

Which of the following is a lifestyle-associated risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Having breast implants.

b)

Having a tattoo.

c)

Wearing glasses.

d)

Using sunscreen.

42.

Which of the following is a risk factor for breast cancer that may be nonmodifiable or lifestyle-associated?

a)

Not having children.

b)

Having a diet rich in fruits and vegetables.

c)

Regular physical activity.

d)

Low body weight.

43.

Which of the following is a risk factor for breast cancer that may be nonmodifiable or lifestyle-associated?

a)

Not breastfeeding.

b)

Having a cold.

c)

Wearing glasses.

d)

Eating carrots.

44.

Which of the following is a risk factor for breast cancer that may be nonmodifiable or lifestyle-associated?

a)

Use of birth control or menopausal hormone therapy.

b)

Daily intake of vitamin C supplements.

c)

Regular physical exercise.

d)

Drinking only filtered water.

45.

What is a contributing risk factor for breast cancer in males?

a)

Older age

b)

BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations

c)

Radiation therapy to the chest

d)

Overweight and obesity

e)

All of the above

46.

How often should clinical breast exams be performed for females aged 25–39?

a)

Every 1–3 years

b)

Every 6 months

c)

Only if symptoms appear

d)

Every 5 years

47.

At what age should mammography begin and how often should it be performed until age 75?

a)

Every 1–2 years beginning at age 40 until age 75

b)

Every year beginning at age 30 until age 60

c)

Every 5 years beginning at age 50 until age 75

d)

Every 2 years beginning at age 50 until age 65

48.

Which type of mastectomy involves removal of the entire breast and axillary lymph nodes?

a)

Simple or total mastectomy

b)

Radical mastectomy

c)

Partial mastectomy

d)

Subcutaneous mastectomy

49.

Radical mastectomy involves removal of the breast, axillary lymph nodes, and chest wall muscles under the breast.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

What are the most common cancers for males mentioned in the text?

a)

Testicular cancer and prostate cancer

b)

Breast cancer and ovarian cancer

c)

Lung cancer and skin cancer

d)

Leukemia and lymphoma

51.

Lymphedema is swelling of the arm that sometimes occurs after breast cancer surgery because of the damage to and resulting congestion of the _________

a)

lymphatic tract

b)

arterial tract

c)

venous tract

d)

nervous tract

52.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended management for lymphedema?

a)

Refraining from taking blood pressure in the affected arm

b)

Giving injections in the affected arm

c)

Providing meticulous skin care

d)

Teaching the patient to wear gloves in the kitchen

53.

Testicular torsion is commonly caused by elevated ________ levels in young adult males.

a)

hormone

b)

glucose

c)

cholesterol

d)

calcium

54.

What is a common disease in which priapism occurs?

a)

Sickle cell disease

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Asthma

d)

Hypertension

55.

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

a)

Enlargement of the prostate gland causing obstruction of urine flow

b)

Shrinking of the prostate gland

c)

Infection of the bladder

d)

Cancer of the prostate

56.

One of the symptoms of BPH is ________ after voiding.

a)

dribbling

b)

pain

c)

fever

d)

nausea

57.

Which diagnostic method is considered the gold standard for detecting bladder outlet obstruction in BPH?

a)

Blood test

b)

Digital rectal examination

c)

Pressure flow studies (urodynamics)

d)

Transrectal ultrasound

58.

A transrectal ultrasound can differentiate BPH from prostate cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Two laboratory studies often included in the diagnosis of BPH are:

a)

Urinalysis and serum creatinine

b)

Liver function test and ECG

c)

Chest X-ray and blood glucose

d)

Thyroid function test and urine culture

60.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for BPH?

a)

Avoidance of caffeine and alcohol

b)

Immediate catheterization if the patient cannot void

c)

Urinating immediately when the urge occurs

d)

Increasing caffeine intake

61.

Fill in the blank: Blood-tinged urine is normal for the first few days after _______.

a)

surgery

b)

exercise

c)

eating

d)

sleeping

62.

What are two goals/outcomes after prostatectomy?

a)

Patient establishes normal fluid volume and stable vital signs

b)

Urinary drainage is clear to pink with no clots

c)

Patient experiences frequent bleeding

d)

Both A and B

63.

What is the most common cause of Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)?

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

64.

Which of the following is a risk factor for Toxic Shock Syndrome?

a)

Use of low-absorbency tampons

b)

Prolonged use of high-absorbency tampons

c)

Daily exercise

d)

High-protein diet

65.

Fill in the blank: Toxic Shock Syndrome is primarily associated with the trapping of bacteria within the _______ for a prolonged time.

a)

reproductive tract

b)

digestive tract

c)

respiratory tract

d)

urinary tract

66.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Toxic Shock Syndrome?

a)

Rapid onset of hypotension

b)

Fever and chills

c)

High blood sugar

d)

Headache, confusion, agitation, hallucinations

67.

Two symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome are:

a)

Fever and low blood pressure

b)

Cough and sneezing

c)

Itchy eyes and runny nose

d)

Joint pain and swelling

68.

What is the recommended treatment for Trichomoniasis?

a)

Administer metronidazole.

b)

Administer amoxicillin.

c)

Administer acyclovir.

d)

Administer fluconazole.

69.

Fill in the blank: The 1st stage of HIV is called _______.

a)

acute infection

b)

chronic infection

c)

AIDS

d)

latent phase

70.

What is the recommended action if someone is HIV positive?

a)

Start treatment within 72 hours

b)

Wait for symptoms to appear

c)

No need for treatment

d)

Only treat if pregnant

71.

Primary dysmenorrhea usually occurs 6 to 12 months after the ______ (when the process of ovulation becomes established and regular menstruation occurs).

a)

menarche

b)

menopause

c)

fertilization

d)

implantation

72.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended therapy for primary dysmenorrhea?

a)

Heating pad

b)

Back massage

c)

High-fat diet

d)

NSAIDs

73.

Secondary dysmenorrhea typically occurs after what age?

a)

12 years

b)

18 years

c)

25 years

d)

40 years

74.

Primary infertility is the inability of a couple to conceive a child after at least 1 year of active, unprotected sexual relations without using contraceptives.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Secondary infertility is the inability to conceive after having once conceived or to maintain a pregnancy long enough to deliver a viable infant.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

What is the mons pubis?

a)

A) A type of muscle

b)

B) A rounded mound of fatty tissue that protects the symphysis pubis

c)

C) A gland

d)

D) A bone

77.

The labia majora are two elongated, raised folds of pigmented skin that enclose the ______.

a)

vulvar cleft

b)

clitoris

c)

urethral opening

d)

mons pubis

78.

The labia minora are soft folds of skin within the labia majora. They are soft, shiny, and made up of fat tissue and glands and have no _________?

a)

hair follicles

b)

blood vessels

c)

nerve endings

d)

sweat glands

79.

Where is the clitoris located?

a)

At the bottom of the vulvar cleft

b)

At the top of the vulvar cleft, above the urethral opening

c)

Inside the vagina

d)

Between the labia majora

80.

The urethral meatus, or external opening of the urethra of the urinary bladder, is located below the ________ within the folds of the labia minora.

a)

clitoris

b)

cervix

c)

vagina

d)

mons pubis

81.

The vaginal vestibule is situated below the urethral meatus within the labia minora and is the entrance to the ________.

a)

vagina

b)

ureter

c)

rectum

d)

bladder

82.

The perineum is the flat muscular surface between the ________ and the ________.

a)

vagina, anus

b)

urethra, rectum

c)

clitoris, cervix

d)

bladder, uterus

83.

What is the function of the vagina?

a)

It produces eggs

b)

It connects the external and internal female sexual organs

c)

It supports the pelvic organs

d)

It secretes hormones

84.

The lower opening of the uterus is called the ________.

a)

cervix

b)

ovary

c)

fallopian tube

d)

vagina

85.

There are two ________ tubes that branch outward from the right and left sides at the top of the uterus. They form the pathway for the ovum (egg) from the ovary to the uterus.

a)

fallopian

b)

bronchial

c)

eustachian

d)

ureter

86.

At birth, the ovaries contain all the eggs (oocytes) the woman will ever produce.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

The bony pelvis, located at the base of the body between the hips, supports the pelvic organs, including the growing uterus during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

At what age do women start annual breast cancer screenings with mammograms if they choose?

a)

44

b)

35

c)

50

d)

60

89.

At what age should women get a mammogram every year?

a)

25-34

b)

35-44

c)

45-54

d)

55-64

90.

How often should women aged 55 and older get mammograms if they choose to switch from yearly screenings?

a)

Every 6 months

b)

Every year

c)

Every 2 years

d)

Every 5 years

91.

HPV Screening: How often should women aged 25-49 get screened?

a)

Every year

b)

Every 3 years

c)

Every 5 years

d)

Only if abnormal test recently

92.

HPV Screening: At what age should screening be done up to 6 months before turning?

a)

18

b)

21

c)

25

d)

30

93.

List the four stages of syphilis.

a)

Primary, Secondary, Latent, Tertiary

b)

Incubation, Acute, Chronic, Recovery

c)

Initial, Progressive, Advanced, Terminal

d)

Onset, Peak, Decline, Resolution

94.

Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a hard, painless sore on the genitals, skin, or mucous membranes?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Latent

d)

Tertiary

95.

FSH stands for _________.

a)

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone

b)

Fat-Soluble Hormone

c)

Fibrin-Stimulating Hormone

d)

Fructose-Synthesizing Hormone

96.

In girls, FSH helps the little eggs in the ovaries _______.

a)

grow

b)

disappear

c)

shrink

d)

move

97.

In boys, FSH helps make _______.

a)

sperm

b)

insulin

c)

bile

d)

adrenaline

98.

LH stands for _________.

a)

Luteinizing Hormone

b)

Lactating Hormone

c)

Leukocyte Hormone

d)

Lipid Hormone

99.

In girls, LH makes the egg _______ out of the ovary (this is called ovulation).

a)

pop

b)

sink

c)

hide

d)

freeze