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Worksheets

Dosage Forms - Rectal Dosage Forms

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is one benefit of using rectal dosage forms?

a)

Increased first pass metabolism

b)

Less GI effects

c)

Only for oral use

d)

Not suitable for drugs with bad taste

2.

Which of the following is a local effect of rectal dosage forms?

a)

Anti-inflammatory

b)

Analgesic

c)

Used for pain & itch (e.g., haemorrhoids)

d)

Systemic infection

3.

Fill in the blank: Systemic effects of rectal dosage forms include ________ and analgesics (suppositories, foams, enemas).

a)

anti-inflammatory

b)

antibiotics

c)

antacids

d)

antifungals

4.

Step: Drug release - What happens during this step in rectal absorption?

a)

Drug diffuses through mucus

b)

Drug leaves base and dissolves in rectal fluid

c)

Drug is absorbed by the liver

d)

Drug is excreted

5.

Which of the following is an advantage of the rectal route?

a)

Poor patient acceptability for long term use

b)

Can use when oral route not available (e.g., unconscious, children, elderly, GI issues)

c)

Possible expulsion due to rectal wall movement

d)

Difficult to administer correctly in some cases

6.

Fill in the blank: A disadvantage of the rectal route is ________ for long term use.

a)

Poor patient acceptability

b)

High absorption rate

c)

Enhanced taste masking

d)

Rapid onset of action

7.

Which of the following is NOT an ideal characteristic of suppositories?

a)

Melts at body temperatures

b)

Non-toxic, non-irritant

c)

Difficult to remove from mould

d)

Allows optimal drug release

8.

Which type of suppository base spreads easily and has a faster release than hydrophilic bases?

a)

Hydrophilic

b)

Lipophilic

c)

PEGS

d)

Poloxamers

9.

Fill in the blank: Drug solubility in rectal fluid determines ________ concentration, which is the absorption driving force.

a)

maximum

b)

minimum

c)

average

d)

plasma

10.

Smaller particle size leads to faster dissolution and less irritation.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which drug and base combination has a RAPID rate of absorption?

a)

Lipophilic drug + lipophilic base

b)

Hydrophilic drug + lipophilic base

c)

Lipophilic drug + hydrophilic base

d)

Hydrophilic drug + hydrophilic base

12.

Fill in the blank: Enemas come as a solution, emulsion, foams, or ________.

a)

suspensions

b)

tablets

c)

capsules

d)

powders

13.

Which of the following is NOT an ideal property of vaginal dosage forms?

a)

Easy to insert

b)

Odourless

c)

Causes irritation

d)

Limited leakage following administration

14.

Vaginal dosage forms can be used for which of the following local effects?

a)

Bacterial infections (clindamycin)

b)

Fungal infections (clotrimazole)

c)

Hormones for labour (cervidil)

d)

All of the above

15.

Systemic effects of vaginal dosage forms include delivery of which hormones?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Prostaglandin analogues

c)

Progestogens (IVF)

d)

All of the above

16.

Fill in the blank: Vaginal dosage forms are commonly used for ______ uses.

a)

systemic

b)

topical

c)

oral

d)

ophthalmic

17.

One advantage of vaginal dosage forms is localized drug delivery, and one disadvantage is possible irritation.

a)

One advantage is localized drug delivery; one disadvantage is possible irritation.

b)

One advantage is rapid absorption; one disadvantage is high systemic side effects.

c)

One advantage is oral convenience; one disadvantage is taste issues.

d)

One advantage is long shelf life; one disadvantage is poor patient compliance.

18.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of vaginal dosage forms?

a)

Easy access

b)

Avoids 1st pass metabolism

c)

Absorption affected by physiological factors

d)

Avoids hepatoxicity

19.

Endocrine dosage forms are commonly used for which of the following?

a)

Antifungals

b)

Antibacterial

c)

Hormone delivery

d)

All of the above

20.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an endocrine dosage form?

a)

Rings

b)

Cream

c)

Tablets

d)

Injections

21.

Which type of troche base is associated with causing allergic reaction and inflammation of the gum?

a)

Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

b)

Gelatine

22.

Troches must sit in the cheek until dissolved and should not be eaten or drunk at the same time.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Fill in the blank: Troches are generally marked in ______. Place the indicated amount either under tongue or in the cheek cavity.

a)

quarters

b)

halves

c)

thirds

d)

eighths

24.

A troche should be left in the mouth until it dissolves completely for how long?

a)

About 15-30 minutes

b)

Less than 1 minute

c)

Over 1 hour

d)

5 minutes

25.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended point for using troches?

a)

Swallow or chew the troche before it is dissolved

b)

Wait 5-10 minutes after eating to use troches

c)

Place the indicated amount under tongue or in the cheek cavity

d)

Keep them inside the refrigerator in an airtight container in summer

26.

What is one advantage of the transdermal route for delivering hormones?

a)

Causes skin irritation

b)

Bypasses 1st metabolism

c)

Increases risk of transfer to another person

d)

Difficult to apply

27.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the transdermal route?

a)

Convenient

b)

Easy to apply

c)

Skin irritation

d)

Bypasses 1st metabolism

28.

Fill in the blank: Transdermal creams deliver hormones directly into ______ through the skin.

a)

circulation

b)

muscles

c)

bones

d)

nerves

29.

Which part of the brain coordinates movement and stores motor memory?

a)

Medulla

b)

Pons

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Thalamus

30.

What is the function of the somatic system in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Involuntary control of glands

b)

Voluntary control of skeletal muscles

c)

Cluster of nerve cells

d)

Controls emotions

31.

Fill in the blank: The autonomic system controls ______ muscle, glands, and organs involuntarily.

a)

smooth

b)

skeletal

c)

cardiac

d)

striated

32.

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the 'fight or flight' response.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which neurotransmitter is involved in the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

NA

b)

ACH

c)

ATP

d)

5HT

34.

Which system is responsible for voluntary control and skeletal muscles?

a)

Autonomic nervous system

b)

Somatic nervous system

c)

Parasympathetic nervous system

d)

Sympathetic nervous system

35.

Which neurotransmitter is associated with the Locus Coeruleus and is responsible for arousal, mood, and blood pressure regulation?

a)

NA & some adrenaline

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Acetylcholine

36.

Which brain region is associated with dopamine and is involved in movement, motivation, and reward?

a)

Substantia nigra (SN)

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Amygdala

d)

Hippocampus

37.

Which neurotransmitter is the target of SSRIs and is associated with mood regulation in the Raphe nuclei?

a)

5HT

b)

Dopamine

c)

GABA

d)

Acetylcholine

38.

Which neurotransmitter is associated with learning, memory, and Alzheimer's disease in the Nucleus Basalis?

a)

ACH

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

GABA

39.

Dopamine acts on which receptors to control motor function, reward, and hormone control?

a)

D1-D5

b)

Alpha-1 and Alpha-2

c)

Beta-1 and Beta-2

d)

Nicotinic

40.

Which neurotransmitter acts on 5HT1-5HT7 receptors and is involved in mood, arousal, feeding, and sensory functions?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

GABA

41.

Which neurotransmitter is associated with wakefulness, appetite, sedation, and nausea, and acts on H1 receptors?

a)

Histamine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Acetylcholine

42.

Which neurotransmitter acts on A1-A3 receptors and is involved in sedation and neuroprotection?

a)

Purines

b)

Dopamine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Acetylcholine

43.

Which neurotransmitter is involved in sleep and circadian rhythm and does not have a specific receptor listed?

a)

Melatonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Acetylcholine

44.

Which neurotransmitter is a signaling molecule, and excess causes neurotoxicity?

a)

NO (Nitric Oxide)

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Acetylcholine

45.

Which neurotransmitter acts on CB1 receptors and is involved in mood, appetite, sleep, and analgesia?

a)

Cannabinoids

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Acetylcholine

46.

Which neurotransmitter is involved in pain control and mood?

a)

Opioids (endorphins)

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Glutamate

47.

Which neurotransmitter acts on GABA A & GABA B receptors and inhibits CNS control?

a)

GABA

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Acetylcholine

48.

Which neurotransmitter acts on NMDA, AMPA, and kainite receptors and is involved in learning, memory, and excitation?

a)

Glutamate

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

GABA

49.

Which neurotransmitter acts on nicotinic and muscarinic receptors and is involved in muscle movement, memory, and ANS function?

a)

ACH

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

GABA

50.

Which CNS drug action mechanism activates or blocks receptors?

a)

Agonist/antagonist

b)

Enzyme inhibitor

c)

Reuptake enhancer

d)

Ion channel opener

51.

Which CNS drug action mechanism increases neurotransmitter at synapse?

a)

Reuptake inhibitor

b)

Enzyme inducer

c)

Receptor blocker

d)

Ion channel opener

52.

Which CNS drug action mechanism prevents breakdown of neurotransmitters?

a)

Enzyme inhibitor

b)

Receptor agonist

c)

Ion channel blocker

d)

Neurotransmitter reuptake enhancer

53.

Which CNS drug action mechanism delays therapeutic response, such as with SSRIs?

a)

Neuroadaptation

b)

Immediate receptor blockade

c)

Direct neurotransmitter release

d)

Enzyme inhibition

54.

Which of the following is NOT a type of depression listed in the worksheet?

a)

Major depression

b)

Melancholia

c)

Bipolar disorder

d)

Atypical depression

55.

Depression can be secondary to an underlying condition or primary with an unknown cause.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which of the following is NOT a type of depression listed in the notes?

a)

Postnatal depression

b)

Seasonal affective disorder

c)

Bipolar depression

d)

Schizophrenia

57.

According to the notes, what is a risk factor for depression under the 'Genetics' category?

a)

A) Family history of depression or psychosis

b)

B) Trauma

c)

C) Abuse

d)

D) Stroke

58.

Fill in the blank: A stressful life event that can contribute to depression includes _________

a)

Trauma, loss, chronic pain, social isolation, life changes

b)

Eating a balanced diet, regular exercise, and enough sleep

c)

Winning a lottery, going on vacation, and making new friends

d)

Learning a new skill, reading books, and playing sports

59.

Which hormone is decreased in neuroendocrine abnormalities associated with depression?

a)

Serotonin (5HT)

b)

Dopamine (DA)

c)

Noradrenaline (NA)

d)

Cortisol

60.

According to the monoamine hypothesis, depression is due to a deficiency of which neurotransmitters?

a)

Dopamine (DA), Serotonin (5HT), Noradrenaline (NA)

b)

Glutamate, GABA, Acetylcholine

c)

Histamine, Glycine, Glutamate

d)

Endorphins, Substance P, Enkephalins

61.

The neurotransmitter hypothesis suggests that depression is due to higher levels of neurotransmitters and how neurons respond to them.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom under the 'Emotional' category in the clinical presentation of depression?

a)

Depressed mood

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Sadness

d)

Anhedonia

63.

Fill in the blank: Impaired concentration, indecisiveness, and poor memory are symptoms under the ________ category in depression.

a)

Cognitive

b)

Physical

c)

Emotional

d)

Behavioral

64.

Which symptom is classified as a psychotic symptom in depression?

a)

Hallucinations

b)

Sleepiness

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Fatigue

65.

According to the notes, what is required for the diagnosis of depression?

a)

Full history and symptom recognition

b)

1 week of symptoms

c)

Only physical symptoms

d)

No need to exclude differential diagnosis

66.

40% of patients have a recurrent attack of depression in 1 year.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Fill in the blank: One third of patients with depression achieve ________.

a)

remission

b)

relapse

c)

mania

d)

psychosis

68.

What is one of the physical risks associated with depression?

a)

Suicide

b)

CVD

c)

Gambling

d)

Poor hygiene

69.

Which of the following is a goal of depression treatment?

a)

Ignore underlying cause

b)

Provide education

c)

Increase drug dosage

d)

Avoid psychotherapy

70.

General rules of treatment for depression include:

a)

Psychotherapy (monotherapy for mild) + pharmacotherapy (severe cases)

b)

SSRI & SNRI are most effective treatment options

c)

Adherence is critical

d)

Effects can take 2-3 weeks, but full effect seen at 8 weeks

71.

Fill in the blank: If no response in 6-12 weeks, trial other agent with different _____

a)

MOA

b)

dose

c)

frequency

d)

route

72.

The recommended approach when switching between medications for depression is:

a)

Taper the first medication before starting the new one

b)

Stop the first medication abruptly and start the new one immediately

c)

Take both medications at full dose simultaneously

d)

Switch only if the first medication causes weight gain

73.

Which drug category requires gradual withdrawal and may need hospitalisation during washout/changeover if severely depressed?

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

74.

Combination therapy for depression is:

a)

Always recommended

b)

Not recommended due to increased risk of AE, toxicity, and drug interactions

c)

The first line of treatment

d)

Only for mild depression

75.

Which of the following is a non-pharmacological treatment for depression?

a)

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

b)

Dietary modifications

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

76.

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is highly effective for which of the following conditions?

a)

Major depressive disorder

b)

Generalized anxiety disorder

c)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

d)

Schizoid personality disorder

77.

A consideration when using Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is:

a)

The risk of memory loss

b)

The need for daily exercise

c)

The importance of dietary supplements

d)

The use of antibiotics

78.

What is Bright Light Therapy (BLT) used for?

a)

Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) or morning depression

b)

Moderate-severe depression

c)

All depression

d)

Postnatal depression

79.

Which therapy is underused for moderate-severe depression when medications have not worked?

a)

Bright light therapy (BLT)

b)

Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

c)

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)

d)

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)

80.

Fill in the blank: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) inhibit reuptake of ____ & 5HT + other receptors.

a)

NA

b)

DA

c)

GABA

d)

ACh

81.

Which of the following is NOT a counselling point for Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)?

a)

Not 1st line due to adverse effects

b)

Used for sleep and pain

c)

Risk of hyperkalaemia

d)

Caution in elderly

82.

Which drug class selectively inhibits 5HT reuptake?

a)

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)

b)

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)

c)

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)

d)

Tetracyclic antidepressants

83.

Selective noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (Reboxetine) is less commonly used and has a risk of hyperkalaemia.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

What is a major counselling point for Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)?

a)

Many drug/food interactions causing hypertensive crisis

b)

Used for sleep and pain

c)

Risk of serotonin syndrome

d)

Good for insomnia

85.

Which antidepressant is associated with blocking alpha2 adrenoreceptors and enhancing NA/5HT release?

a)

Mirtazapine

b)

Agomelatine

c)

Bupropion

d)

Reboxetine

86.

Fill in the blank: Agomelatine is a melatonin receptor agonist and a ____ antagonist.

a)

5HT2c

b)

D2

c)

NMDA

d)

GABA-A

87.

Which antidepressant can cause insomnia, anxiety, seizures, and has weak efficacy for depression?

a)

Bupropion

b)

Mirtazapine

c)

Agomelatine

d)

Amitriptyline

88.

Antipsychotics are used in treatment resistant depression as adjunct therapy.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

What is the peak period for 'baby blue' depression during the postpartum period?

a)

Between 4-5 days postpartum

b)

Immediately after delivery

c)

After 2 weeks postpartum

d)

At 6 weeks postpartum

90.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for postnatal depression?

a)

A) History of depression

b)

B) Stressful life event

c)

C) Regular exercise

d)

D) Unintended pregnancy or complications during pregnancy

91.

Postnatal depression usually occurs after the ____ month postpartum.

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

6th

92.

Which medication is considered safe in breastfeeding for treating postnatal depression?

a)

TCA

b)

Fluoxetine

c)

Sertraline

d)

All of the above

93.

In depression during pregnancy, treatment outweighs the risk of not treating.

a)

True

b)

False