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Chapter 5 Pharm Final Review

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What age range defines an adult according to the document?

a)

19 to 64 years

b)

18 to 65 years

c)

20 to 60 years

d)

21 to 63 years

2.

What is the term for the use of several drugs during the same period?

a)

Monotherapy

b)

Polypharmacy

c)

Pharmacodynamics

d)

Pharmacokinetics

3.

Which of the following is a common age-related condition mentioned in the document?

a)

Asthma

b)

Pulmonary insufficiency

c)

Migraine

d)

Hypertension

4.

What does the risk to benefit ratio refer to in the context of medication?

a)

The cost of medication versus its effectiveness

b)

The adverse effects of medications in relation to desired effects

c)

The time taken for medication to work versus its side effects

d)

The dosage of medication versus its potency

5.

At what age is a person considered an older adult according to the document?

a)

60 years or older

b)

65 years or older

c)

70 years or older

d)

75 years or older

6.

What is polypharmacy in older adults defined as?

a)

The use of a single medication

b)

The use of multiple medications

c)

The use of herbal supplements

d)

The use of alternative therapies

7.

According to the Lau et al. (2010–2019) study, which condition was found in adults 80+?

a)

Type 2 diabetes

b)

Nonvalvular atrial fibrillation

c)

Non–small cell lung cancer

d)

Hypertension

8.

What must nurses closely monitor in older adults according to the nursing implications?

a)

Diet and exercise routines

b)

Reactions to medications

c)

Sleep patterns

d)

Social interactions

9.

What is the study of drug actions on target cells and resulting biochemical changes called?

a)

Pharmacokinetics

b)

Pharmacodynamics

c)

Pharmacogenomics

d)

Pharmacotherapy

10.

How do age-related physiologic changes in older adults affect drug actions?

a)

They enhance drug effectiveness.

b)

They have no impact on drug actions.

c)

They can alter how drugs act.

d)

They make drugs act faster.

11.

What is a consequence of fewer receptor sites or reduced receptor affinity in older adults?

a)

Increased drug effectiveness

b)

Reduced drug effectiveness

c)

Faster drug metabolism

d)

Enhanced drug clearance

12.

What happens to the volume of distribution for fat-soluble drugs in older adults?

a)

It decreases

b)

It remains the same

c)

It increases

d)

It fluctuates randomly

13.

What is the effect of decreased renal function on drug clearance in older adults?

a)

Faster clearance of drugs

b)

No change in drug clearance

c)

Slower clearance of drugs

d)

Enhanced drug metabolism

14.

What is the number one cause of death in older adults?

a)

Cancer

b)

Cardiovascular disease

c)

Respiratory disease

d)

Diabetes

15.

What percentage of older adults are affected by hypertension?

a)

50-60%

b)

60-70%

c)

70-80%

d)

80-90%

16.

Which of the following is often not enough for treating hypertension in older adults?

a)

Medication

b)

Lifestyle changes

c)

Surgery

d)

Physical therapy

17.

Which medication should be avoided as first-line therapy for systolic hypertension in older adults?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

d)

Long-acting calcium channel blockers

18.

For which conditions is Digoxin (Lanoxin) indicated in older adults?

a)

Diabetes and hypertension

b)

Heart disease and atrial fibrillation

c)

Osteoporosis and arthritis

d)

Asthma and COPD

19.

What is the usual maximum dose per day for a patient with atrial fibrillation?

a)

0.125 mg/day

b)

0.25 mg/day

c)

0.5 mg/day

d)

1.0 mg/day

20.

According to the Beers Criteria, which of the following is NOT a focus of the guidelines?

a)

Medications to avoid

b)

Dosage adjustments for chronic kidney disease

c)

Drug-drug interactions

d)

Medications for pediatric care

21.

What is the loading dose for supraventricular tachydysrhythmia?

a)

0.125 mg

b)

0.25 mg

c)

0.5 mg

d)

1.0 mg

22.

What percentage of medical admissions are accounted for by adverse drug events (ADEs)?

a)

1%–3%

b)

3%–10%

c)

10%–15%

d)

15%–20%

23.

What is a key consideration when using opioids in end-of-life care?

a)

They should be avoided entirely.

b)

They require careful patient assessment.

c)

They are always safe to use.

d)

They should be used in high doses.

24.

What does the Drug Burden Index (DBI) assess?

a)

Cumulative exposure to medications with anticholinergic and sedative effects

b)

The effectiveness of cardiac medications

c)

The cost of medications for older adults

d)

The nutritional value of medications

25.

Which factor is NOT considered in the Drug Burden Index (DBI)?

a)

Type of drug

b)

Total number of medications

c)

Daily dosing

d)

Patient's age

26.

What is a clinical impact of a high Drug Burden Index (DBI)?

a)

Improved cognitive function

b)

Increased fall risk in long-term care residents

c)

Enhanced mobility

d)

Reduced medication side effects

27.

What percentage of ED visits related to psychiatric medication ADEs in adults ≥65 is Zolpidem responsible for?

a)

10%

b)

21%

c)

35%

d)

50%

28.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of anticholinergic medications in older adults?

a)

Enhanced memory

b)

Improved vision

c)

Memory impairment

d)

Increased energy

29.

Which condition is associated with an increased risk of urinary retention in high-risk populations?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

c)

Hypertension

d)

Osteoporosis

30.

Which cardiac medication is not appropriate as first-line therapy for atrial fibrillation?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Methyldopa

d)

Rivaroxaban

31.

What risk is associated with the use of Digoxin (Lanoxin)?

a)

Risk of digoxin toxicity

b)

Increased blood pressure

c)

Enhanced appetite

d)

Improved sleep quality

32.

What is a potential risk when Trimethoprim–Sulfamethoxazole is used with ACE inhibitors or ARBs?

a)

Increased risk of hypokalemia

b)

Increased risk of hyperkalemia

c)

Increased risk of hypotension

d)

Increased risk of hypertension

33.

Which antidepressant is known to cause anticholinergic effects, sedation, and orthostatic hypotension?

a)

Dextromethorphan/Quinidine

b)

Amitriptyline hydrochloride

c)

Serotonin–Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)

d)

Cyclobenzaprine

34.

What should be avoided in patients with fractures or at risk of falls?

a)

Dextromethorphan/Quinidine

b)

Amitriptyline hydrochloride

c)

Serotonin–Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)

d)

Hydroxyzine hydrochloride

35.

Which medication is associated with a risk of serotonin syndrome?

a)

Cyclobenzaprine

b)

Flurazepam hydrochloride

c)

Methocarbamol

d)

Diphenhydramine hydrochloride

36.

What is a potential side effect of Diphenhydramine hydrochloride?

a)

Increased alertness

b)

Urinary retention

c)

Hyperactivity

d)

Sedation

37.

What is a significant risk associated with the use of Ketorolac?

a)

High risk of GI bleeding

b)

Can cause confusion

c)

Pulmonary toxicity

d)

Decreased absorption

38.

Which of the following is a potential side effect of Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)?

a)

High risk of GI bleeding

b)

Can cause confusion

c)

Renal toxicity

d)

Decreased distribution

39.

What are the risks associated with the antibiotic Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)?

a)

Pulmonary, renal, and hepatic toxicity

b)

High risk of GI bleeding

c)

Confusion and dizziness

d)

Decreased absorption and distribution

40.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the assessment for preventing adverse drug reactions (ADRs)?

a)

Review all meds: Rx, OTC, herbals

b)

Check renal function: BUN and creatinine clearance

c)

Monitor blood pressure

d)

Evaluate med adherence

41.

What age-related physiological changes affect pharmacokinetics in older adults?

a)

Increased metabolism

b)

Decreased organ function affecting absorption and distribution

c)

Enhanced renal clearance

d)

Improved liver function

42.

What is the Anticholinergic Drug Scale (ADS) used to assess?

a)

Risk of cardiovascular disease

b)

Cognitive impairment risk

c)

Metabolic rate

d)

Physical activity level

43.

Which of the following conditions is commonly treated with anticholinergic drugs?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Parkinson disease

d)

Asthma

44.

At what age may adverse effects of anticholinergic drugs begin?

a)

45

b)

55

c)

65

d)

75

45.

Which of the following is a common over-the-counter anticholinergic drug to avoid?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Aspirin

46.

What is a potential risk associated with high ADS scores?

a)

Increased metabolism

b)

Enhanced physical strength

c)

Falls and confusion

d)

Improved memory

47.

What effect does decreased gastric acidity have on drug absorption in older adults?

a)

Increases absorption of drugs needing low pH

b)

Leads to delayed or impaired absorption of drugs needing low pH

c)

Enhances the efficiency of drug absorption

d)

Reduces the risk of nausea and vomiting

48.

How does reduced GI blood flow and surface area affect drug absorption in older adults?

a)

Increases the efficiency of drug absorption

b)

Has no effect on drug absorption

c)

Reduces the efficiency of drug absorption

d)

Enhances gastric emptying

49.

What is a clinical impact of slower absorption rates in older adults?

a)

Decreases peak serum drug levels

b)

Alters peak serum drug levels

c)

Increases drug circulation

d)

Reduces the need for higher doses

50.

What happens to lipid-soluble drugs in older adults?

a)

They are stored longer in muscle tissue

b)

They are stored longer in fat tissue

c)

They are rapidly eliminated

d)

They have no change in distribution

51.

What is a consequence of decreased serum albumin in older adults?

a)

Increased protein binding

b)

Decreased free drug

c)

Increased free drug

d)

Decreased drug effects

52.

How does aging affect liver metabolism in older adults?

a)

Increases liver size and mass

b)

Increases hepatic blood flow

c)

Slows metabolism of drugs

d)

Increases enzyme activity

53.

What is a clinical implication of age-related liver changes in older adults?

a)

Decreased risk of drug accumulation

b)

Increased risk of drug accumulation and toxicity

c)

No need for dose adjustment

d)

Faster drug metabolism

54.

What does pharmacogenomics use to guide drug therapy?

a)

Patient's age

b)

Patient's genetic makeup

c)

Patient's diet

d)

Patient's race

55.

Which of the following is a change in kidney function related to aging?

a)

Increased kidney blood flow

b)

Increased functioning nephrons

c)

Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

d)

Increased tubular secretion

56.

What is the best indicator of kidney function, although complex to measure directly?

a)

Serum creatinine

b)

Creatinine clearance (CrCl)

c)

Tubular secretion

d)

Blood pressure

57.

Which formula is commonly used to estimate creatinine clearance for drug dosing?

a)

Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

b)

Cockcroft-Gault formula

c)

Michaelis-Menten equation

d)

Hill equation

58.

Why might serum creatinine appear normal despite decreased kidney function?

a)

Increased muscle mass

b)

Decreased muscle mass

c)

Increased dietary protein

d)

Increased tubular secretion

59.

What is a clinical implication of reduced kidney function in older adults?

a)

Increased drug excretion

b)

Decreased risk of drug accumulation

c)

Increased risk of drug accumulation and toxicity

d)

Increased dosages of drugs with long half-lives

60.

What are some age-related infection risks in older adults?

a)

Increased cytokine production

b)

Enhanced immunity

c)

Physiologic changes in integumentary, pulmonary, GI systems

d)

Decreased risk of chronic diseases

61.

Which symptom is most commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTI) in older adults?

a)

Decreased urination

b)

Acute dysuria

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Weight gain

62.

Why is it important to monitor drug levels during antibiotic therapy in older adults?

a)

To increase the dosage

b)

To prevent nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

c)

To ensure faster recovery

d)

To reduce the cost of treatment

63.

What is a potential risk of long-term antiretroviral therapy in older adults with HIV?

a)

Improved bone density

b)

Enhanced liver function

c)

Kidney injury

d)

Increased immunity

64.

What is a common challenge faced by older adults using multiple medications?

a)

Enhanced memory

b)

Improved vision

c)

Altered mental status

d)

Increased energy levels

65.

Why is vaccination critical for older adults in communal settings?

a)

To increase appetite

b)

To reduce morbidity and mortality

c)

To enhance physical strength

d)

To improve social skills

66.

What is a strategy to improve medication adherence in older adults?

a)

Prescribe high doses immediately

b)

Use only brand-name medications

c)

Start with small doses and increase slowly

d)

Avoid educating patients about medications

67.

What is a barrier to medication adherence in older adults?

a)

Feeling symptomatic

b)

Experiencing adverse effects

c)

Having a strong support system

d)

Access to free medications

68.

What is one way to keep care affordable according to the nursing and provider roles?

a)

Use brand-name medications

b)

Use generics

c)

Increase pill burden

d)

Complicate dosing schedules

69.

What reading level is "The Basics" patient education material designed for?

a)

1st-2nd grade

b)

3rd-4th grade

c)

5th-6th grade

d)

7th-8th grade

70.

According to Pariseault et al. (2021), what is one key theme identified in managing polypharmacy in older adults?

a)

Financial management

b)

Defining polypharmacy

c)

Dietary restrictions

d)

Exercise routines

71.

What is the focus of the study by Pariseault et al. (2021) regarding nurse practitioners?

a)

Enhancing surgical techniques

b)

Improving medication management

c)

Developing new medications

d)

Increasing hospital admissions