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Unit 2 Quiz 2 ChemII F25

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 4hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A 15.67 g sample of a hydrate of magnesium carbonate was heated to drive off the water. The mass was reduced to 7.58 g. What is the formula of the hydrate?
a)
MgCO3 · 5H2O
b)
MgCO3 · 4H2O
c)
MgCO3 · 6H2O
d)
MgCO3 · 1H2O
2.

A 4.175 gram sample of a certain hydrate of copper (II) sulfate, CuSO4•xH2O, is heated until all the water is driven off. The resulting anhydrous compound weighs 3.120 grams. What is the formula of the hydrate?

a)

CuSO4•H2O

b)

CuSO4•3H2O

c)

CuSO4•6H2O

d)

CuSO4•4H2O

3.

A 5.018 gram sample of a certain hydrate of magnesium sulfate, MgSO4•xH2O, is heated until all the water is driven off. The resulting anhydrous compound weighs 2.449 grams. What is the formula of the hydrate?

a)

MgSO4•9H2O

b)

MgSO4•8H2O

c)

MgSO4•7H2O

d)

MgSO4•6H2O

4.

Calculate the percent by mass of water in the hydrate Na2CO3 ⋅\cdot  10H2O. Be sure to round all masses from the Periodic Table to the nearest tenth and round the percent water to the correct number of significant figures. Include the correct unit with your numerical answer.

(a)  

5.

Calculate the percent by mass of water in the hydrate FeCl3 ⋅\cdot  6H2O. Be sure to round all masses from the Periodic Table to the nearest tenth and round the percent water to the correct number of significant figures. Include the correct unit with your numerical answer.

(a)  

6.
Name HF
a)
hydrofluoric acid
b)
Hypofluoric acid
c)
hydrogen fluorine acid
d)
fluoric acid
7.
What is the formula for nitric acid?
a)
HNO2
b)
HNO3
c)
HNO4
d)
H2NO3
8.
What is the formula for perchloric acid?
a)
H3ClO3
b)
H3ClO4
c)
HClO3
d)
HClO4
9.

When naming oxyacids, change "-ite" to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ic

c)

-ous

d)

-ite

10.

Antimony tribromide

a)

AnBr3

b)

AtBr3

c)

Sb1Br3

d)

SbBr3

11.

Hexaboron monosilicide

a)

B5S

b)

B6S

c)

B6Si

d)

Br6Si1

e)

Br6Si

12.

Si2Br6

a)

silicon bromide

b)

disilicide bromide

c)

disilicon hexabromide

d)

disilicide hexabromide

13.
The chemical formula of carbon tetrachloride is
a)
CCl
b)
C₄Cl
c)
CCl₄
d)
C(IV)Cl
14.

Name the ionic compound SnSe2

a)

Tin diselenide

b)

Tin (IV) Selenide

c)

Tin selenide

d)

Tin (II) triselenide

15.

What is the name of the compound Sc(OH)3?

a)

Scandium (III) hydroxide

b)

Scandium (I) hydroxide

c)

Scandium (II) hydroxide

d)

Scandium hydroxide

16.
If an atom becomes an ion with a 2+ charge, what does that mean?
a)
It has lost 2 electrons
b)
It has gained 2 electrons
c)
The atom is in period 2
d)
The atom has an atomic # of 2
17.
How do the following two elements bond together?
Cr3+  O2-         
a)
CrO
b)
Cr3O2
c)
Cr2O3
d)
CrO3
18.
How do the following two elements bond together?
K1+  S2- 
a)
KS
b)
K8S
c)
K6S3
d)
K2S
19.
What is the formula for magnesium chloride?
a)
MgCl
b)
Mg2Cl
c)
MgCl2
d)
Mg(ClO3)2
20.
What is the formula for copper(I) sulfate?
a)
Cu(SO3)
b)
Cu(SO4)
c)
Cu2(SO3)
d)
Cu2(SO4)
21.
Which of these combinations is an ionic compound made of?
a)
Metal and Metal
b)
Nonmetal and Nonmetal
c)
Metal and Nonmetal
d)
Cation and Cation
22.

Hydrogen nitrite (nitrous acid)

a)
H2NO3
b)
HNO3
c)
HNO2
d)
H2NO2
23.
What is the element/ion symbol for Iron(III)?
a)
Fe
b)
Fe3+
c)
Fe3-
d)
Fe(III)
24.
What is the name of the compound Li(OH)?
a)
lithium hydrogen oxide
b)
lithium hydroxide
c)
lithium hydride
d)
lithium oxide hydride
25.
The chemical formula for an ionic compound of potassium and oxygen is
a)
KO.
b)
K2O.
c)
K2O2.
d)
KO2.
26.
Name this compound: 
Ca(CO3)
a)
Calcium carbon oxide
b)
Calcium (II) carbonate
c)
Calcium carbonate
d)
Carbonate (I) calcide
27.
What is the formula for sodium nitrate?
a)
Na3(NO)
b)
Na(NO)
c)
Na3(NO3)
d)
Na(NO3)
28.
What is the compound made between Chlorate and Magnesium
a)
Cl2Mg
b)
(ClO3)2Mg
c)
MgCl2
d)
Mg(ClO3)2
29.
How do the following two elements bond together?
Pb4+  O2-       
a)
PbO
b)
Pb4O2
c)
PbO2
d)
Pb2O4
30.
The name of FeCl₂ is
a)
iron chloride
b)
iron (II) chloride
c)
iron (I) chloride
d)
iron dichloride
31.
The name of Cu₃N₂ is
a)
copper (III) nitride
b)
copper (II) nitride
c)
copper nitride
d)
tricopper dinitride
32.
Whats the formula
Sr+2  +  (CO3)-2
a)
Sr(CO3)
b)
Sr2 (CO3)2
c)
Sr1(CO)5
d)
Sr(CO5)
33.
What is the formula for Copper II Sulfide?
a)
CuS
b)
Cu₂S
c)
CuS₂
d)
CuSO₃
34.
If an atom becomes an ion with a 2+ charge, what does that mean?
a)
It has lost 2 electrons
b)
It has gained 2 electrons
c)
The atom is in period 2
d)
The atom has an atomic # of 2
35.
When metals bond with non-metals they form what type of bonds
a)
covalent
b)
ionic
c)
cooperative
d)
lewis
36.
How do the following two elements bond together?
Cr3+  O2-         
a)
CrO
b)
Cr3O2
c)
Cr2O3
d)
CrO3
37.
When a nonmetal gains electrons, it becomes this type of ion.
a)
Anion
b)
Cation
c)
Isotope
d)
Isobar
38.
How do the following two elements bond together?
K1+  S2- 
a)
KS
b)
K8S
c)
K6S3
d)
K2S
39.
Name the following compound: PbS2
a)
lead sulfide
b)
lead sulfur
c)
lead (II) sulfide
d)
lead (IV) sulfide
40.

Name the following compound: Fe2O3

a)

iron oxide

b)

iron oxygen

c)

iron (II) oxide

d)

iron (III) oxide

41.
Covalent compounds form between
a)
Metal and Nonmetal
b)
 Metals
c)
Nonmetals
d)
Metalloids
42.
Name the following compound: AgF. Why is there no Silver (I) option in the answers?
a)
silver fluoride
b)
silver fluorine
c)
monosilver monofluoride
d)
silver monofluorine
43.
An ion with a positive charge is a/an 
a)
anion
b)
cation
c)
monoion
d)
perion
44.
What is the chemical formula for Tetrasulfur pentoxide?
a)
SO
b)
S4O
c)
S4O5
d)
S5O4
45.
What is the name of C3Cl8 ?
a)
Carbon octachloride
b)
Tricarbon octachloride
c)
Carbon trichloride
d)
Octacarbon trichloride
46.
What is the chemical formula for Tetraphosphorous Pentachloride ?
a)
4P5Cl
b)
PCl
c)
P4Cl5
d)
none of the above
47.
What is the name of Br6F10 ?
a)
Bromium fluoride
b)
Hexabromine fluoride
c)
Bromium decafluoride
d)
none of the above
48.
Which of these is covalent?
a)
NaCl
b)
Pb(NO3)2
c)
CO2
d)
AlCl3
49.
What is the name of Fe(OH)3
a)
iron (II) hydroxide
b)
iron (III) hydroxide
c)
iron trihydroxide
d)
iron hydroxide
50.
Name the following ionic compound: Cr(NO2)3
a)
chromium nitrite
b)
chromium nitride
c)
chromium (III) nitride
d)
chromium (III) nitrite
51.
Three compounds are listed below:
·  Fe(C2H3O2)3 ·  Ba(NO3)2 ·  Li2O  
Which of the answer choices contain the correct name for each of the compounds?
a)
Iron acetate, Barium (I) nitrate, Lithium (II) oxide
b)
Iron (III) acetate, Barium nitrite, Lithium oxide
c)
Iron acetate, Barium (II) nitrite, Lithium oxide
d)
Iron (III) acetate, Barium nitrate, Lithium oxide
52.
What determines the number of hydrogens in your acid?
a)
there are always just one
b)
its the same as the charge of hydrogen
c)
its the same as the charge of the anion
d)
magic
53.
Name HF
a)
hydrofluoric acid
b)
Hypofluoric acid
c)
hydrogen fluorine acid
d)
fluoric acid
54.

When the anion has a suffix of -ide, what will the binary acid name be?

a)

___ic Acid

b)

___ous Acid

c)

Hydro___ic Acid

55.

What is the suffix of an anion when the acid name includes ___ous Acid?

a)

-ate

b)

-ite

c)

-ide

56.

Binary acids consist of oxygen, hydrogen, and one other element

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Oxyacids contain hydrogen, oxygen, and one other element?

a)

True

b)

False

58.

What is the formula for Sulfuric acid?

a)

H2SO4

b)

HSO

c)

H3SO3

59.

What is the formula for Phosphorous acid?

a)

H3PO4

b)

H3PO3

c)

HPO2

60.

What is the formula for Nitrous acid?

a)

HNO2

b)

H2NO

c)

H2NO2

61.

What is the formula for hydrochloric acid?

a)

HCl

b)

HClO

c)

H3ClO3

d)

HClO3

62.

Binary acids start with the prefix "____________"

a)

acid

b)

nitric

c)

hydraulic

d)

hydro

63.

When naming binary acids, the ending always changes to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ite

c)

-ic

d)

-ous

64.

When naming oxyacids, change "-ite" to:

a)

-ate

b)

-ic

c)

-ous

d)

-ite

65.

Name this acid: H2SO4

a)

hydrogen sulfate

b)

hydrosulfuric acid

c)

sulfuric acid

d)

sulfurous acid

66.
Hydroiodic acid
a)
H2I2
b)
H1I1
c)
HI
67.
The word 'atomos' termed by Democritus means:
a)
Indivisible
b)
Unconscious
c)
Blue
d)
Nuclear powered
68.

Which of these is part of Dalton's atomic theory?

a)

Every element is identical on the atomic level

b)

Atoms are made of elements

c)

Two atoms of the same element are identical

d)

Atoms never interact with other atoms

69.

In the chocolate chip cookie model, the "DOUGH" was thought to have a(n)…

a)

Average charge of 5

b)

Negative charge

c)

Positive charge

d)

Neutral charge

70.
The Gold Foil experiment FIRST led to the discovery of the…
a)
Atom
b)
Electron
c)
Neutron
d)
Nucleus
71.
What was the charge of the alpha particles in the Gold Foil experiment?
a)
Neutral
b)
Positive
c)
Unknown
d)
Negative
72.

How did the Gold Foil experiment DISPROVE the chocolate chip cookie model of the atom? (2 answers)

a)

The chocolate chip cookie model didn't account for a nucleus in the center; the α-particles bounced off this nucleus

b)

The α-particles bounced off the electrons in the center of the atom

c)

The α-particles that got close enough to the nucleus were curved/deflected

d)

The α-particles turned into energy and cooked the cookie which is delicious

e)

The electrons were too small to deflect the α-particle

73.

What's the difference between these two atomic models?

a)

The Bohr model has specific paths for the electrons, whereas the Rutherford model just has electrons wherever

b)

The Bohr model has a nucleus and the Rutherford model doesn't

c)

The Rutherford model has electrons because Rutherford discovered the electron

d)

Rutherford's model is slightly smaller because Bohr felt like he deserved it

74.

The Bohr model is the first atomic model to describe electron shells. What does this mean?

a)

Calcium carbonate exoskeletons to protect the electrons from predators

b)

Special places the electron can be without the nucleus interfering

c)

Levels and paths that the electrons travel around when they orbit the nucleus

d)

Quantum spin probabilities which account for electron momentum

75.

Which is NOT a feature of the Bohr model?

a)

Nucleus in the middle

b)

Electrons on specific paths

c)

Electrons orbiting the nucleus

d)

Neutrons in the nucleus

e)

More than 1 electron

76.

The Heisenburg Uncertainty Principal states that if you know the _______, you do not know the momentum of an electron

a)

Positive charge value

b)

Position

c)

Vector path

d)

Speed

77.

Why do we talk about Heisenberg in our study of the development of atomic models?

a)

Because he predicted the possibility of neutrons

b)

Because his research proved that the Bohr model was ALMOST but not quite correct

c)

Because nobody understood that electrons were smaller than protons

d)

Because he was BFFs with Schrodinger and wanted to be included

e)

Because he was the only one who didn't assume electrons behaved like protons

78.
Schrodinger did research on the _____ of finding an electron in any given shell
a)
Position
b)
Promise
c)
Probability
d)
Proceedings
79.

Ultimately, Schrodinger's model had electrons in ______ around the nucleus

a)

Specific orbits

b)

Nodes

c)

Waves

d)

Clouds

80.

What does this graph indicate?

a)

The probability of an electron touching the nucleus is 100%

b)

The Schrodinger model allows for the electrons to be anywhere they feel like

c)

The likelihood of an electron's position depends on its distance from the nucleus

d)

That Aristotle was WRONG and he should feel bad :(

81.

What is a node?

a)

A space between electron shells

b)

The region where an electron is least likely to be

c)

Where the probability graph has Y=0

d)

A region that is not part of an electron shell

82.
Who discovered the neutron?
a)
JJ Thompson
b)
Democritus
c)
Schrodinger
d)
Chadwick
e)
Bohr
83.
Which particle is the LIGHTEST?
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
d)
Nucleus
84.
What 2 particles are located in the nucleus?
a)
Protons
b)
Neutrons
c)
Electrons
d)
Muons
85.

Whose model is closest to the currently accepted standard?

a)

Democritus's "Pumpkin is made of pumpkin atoms"

b)

Chocolate Chip Cookie model

c)

Bohr's atomic orbits

d)

Wave Mechanical Model

86.
Explain what happened to our model of the atom as scientists learned more information about subatomic particles
4 lines
87.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

discovered the electron

discovered the nucleus

discovered energy levels

discovered the atom

Dalton
Thomson
Rutherford
Bohr
88.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

atom model

atom model

atom model

atom model

Dalton
Thomson
Rutherford
Bohr
89.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

had 4 postulates

discovered the electron

discovered the nucleus

discovered energy levels

noticed the energies given off were always the same

gold foil experiment

cathode ray tube

broke substances down and realized the products were always in a fixed ratio

Dalton
Thomson
Rutherford
Bohr
90.

An atom of Aluminum had a charge of +3, how many protons does aluminum have?

(a)  

91.

If this atom had a charge of positive 1, how many neutrons are in this atom on average?

(a)  

92.

An atom of sodium has a +1 charge, how many electrons would this atom of sodium have?

(a)  

93.

Label the parts of an atom.

94.

Label the parts of an atom based on who discovered it.

95.

What is the atomic mass?

96.

Match the following

a)

1.

Neutral Atom

b)

2.

Positive Carbon Ion

c)

3.

Negative Boron Atom

d)

4.

Negative Carbon Ion

e)

5.

Negative Atom

97.

Match the following

a)

1.

Mass = 19 amu

b)

2.

Positive

Mass = 12 amu

c)

3.

Mass = 11 amu

d)

4.

Mass = 12 amu

e)

5.

Mass = 18 amu

98.

Organize these options into the right categories.

Categorize the following

dictates the atom's charge

if it changes, the mass of the atom changes

if it changes, the element changes

equals the atomic number

equals the number of protons if it is neutral

equals the mass minus the number of protons

positive

negative

neutral

Proton
Electron
Neutron
99.

Which choice(s) below are/is needed to get density?

a)

Water

b)

Volume

c)

Mass

d)

Avocado

100.

The formula for density is:

a)

Mass + volume

b)

Mass - volume

c)

mass x volume

d)

mass ÷ volume

e)

Just mass/just volume

101.

Mass alone tells you its relative density.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Volume alone tells you its relative density.

a)

False

b)

True

103.

Fire burning a forest is a chemical change.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

Which choices below are physical changes?

a)

Dented Hydro Flask! Oh no!

b)

Fireworks exploding

c)

Candle burning

d)

Candle wax melting

e)

All of the above

105.

Which choices below are chemical changes?

a)

Baking a cake

b)

Cracking an egg open

c)

Digesting the egg

d)

Eating the cake

e)

All of the above

106.

Mass is measured in (a)   .

107.

BRAIN BREAK! Choose the biggest number.

a)

-17

b)

-56

c)

20

d)

100000000000000

e)

-35.978583246898654783638365

108.

Changing state is a (a)   change.

109.

Baking is a (a)   change.

110.

Poll: BRAIN BREAK: e

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

W A T

d)

:P

111.

Which Student is the most Precise?

a)

Alex

b)

Shandra

c)

Luis

112.

I2O5 + 5CO → 5CO2 + I2

Consider the reaction above. If 80 grams of iodine (V) oxide reacts with 28.0 grams of carbon monoxide. Determine the limiting reactant of iodine gas.

a)

I2O5

b)

CO

c)

CO2

d)

I2

113.

I2O5 + 5CO → 5CO2 + I2

Consider the reaction above. If 80 grams of iodine (V) oxide reacts with 28.0 grams of carbon monoxide. What is the mass, theoretical yield of iodine gas. Give your answer to 1 decimal place and include the appropriate unit.

(a)  

114.

3FeCl2 + 2Na3PO4 → Fe3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl

If 23 grams of iron (II) chloride reacts with 41 grams of sodium phosphate. Determine the limiting reactant

a)

Fe3(PO4)2

b)

Na3PO4

c)

FeCl2

d)

NaCl

115.

Cu + 2AgNO3 → 2Ag + Cu(NO3)2

When 160 g of copper reacts with 200 g of silver nitrate according to the equation above, the limiting reactant of copper (II) nitrate is ​ (a)   and the theoretical yield is ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words

Cu(NO3)2 Cu\left(NO_3\right)_{2\ }  

110.4 g110.4\ g  

AgAg
CuCu
AgNO3AgNO_3
472.2 g472.2\ g
441.6 g441.6\ g
116.

How many neutrons are in an isotope of lead with a mass of 206?

a)

125

b)

82

c)

124

d)

83

117.

A certain element has two isotopes with masses of 113 amu and 115 amu, which have an abundance of 4.28% and 95.72% respectively. What is the average atomic mass of this element?

a)

114.91 amu

b)

158.44 amu

c)

113.09 amu

118.

[Kr]5s14d7

Ruthenium has the ground-state electron configuration shown above. How many valence electrons does a ground-state atom of ruthenium have?

a)

1

b)

8

c)

7

d)

2

119.

Which of the following electron configurations represents an atom in the ground-state?

a)

1s22s22p63s13p64s1

b)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d7

c)

1s22s12p63s23p5

d)

1s22s22p53s23p64s23d9

120.

Which of the following represents the ground-state electron configuration for the gold (I) ion, Au+?

a)

[Xe]6s24f145d9

b)

[Xe]6s14f145d9

c)

[Xe]4f145d9

d)

[Xe]6s15d9

121.

1s22s22p53s23p64s23d7

How many unpaired electrons are in an atom with the above electron configuration?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

122.

Shown above is the infrared absorption spectrum for D-glucose, which indicates the types of bonds present in the molecular structure. Which of the following describes the molecular change in D-glucose caused by infrared radiation?

a)

Infrared radiation causes the bonds to break and rotate.

b)

Infrared radiation causes the entire molecule to rotate.

c)

Infrared radiation causes bonds to stretch and vibrate.

d)

Infrared radiation causes electron held in bonds to move to an excited state.

123.

Shown above is the completed photoelectron spectrum for an element. What is the most likely identity of this element?

a)

Be

b)

B

c)

C

d)

F

124.

Based on the image above, which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation would have the greatest frequency?

a)

X-ray

b)

Microwave

c)

Visible

d)

Radio

125.

Based on the calibration curve shown above for phenol red, a solution of phenol red with an absorbance of 0.20 will have a concentration of

a)

3.0 μM

b)

4.5 μM

c)

1.2 μM

d)

2.0 μM

126.

Shown above is the mass spectrum for a pure sample of an element. Which of the following is the most likely identity of the element?

a)

Y

b)

Sr

c)

Fr

d)

Ra

127.

Shown above is the mass spectrum taken from a pure sample of an element. Based on the mass spectrum, how many isotopes of this element exist?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

128.

Shown above is the mass spectrum of a pure sample of tin, Sn. How many neutrons are in the most abundant isotope of tin?

(a)  

129.

Shown above is the linear regression produced from the aborbance of phenol red measured at several different concentrations using cuvettes with a path length of 1.0 cm. Based on the linear regression, what is the molar absorptivity of phenol red?

a)

0.067 μM-1 cm-1

b)

15 μM-1 cm-1

c)

0.67 μM-1 cm-1

d)

1.5 μM-1 cm-1

130.
What is the correlation between length of running start and distance of jump?
a)
positive:  the further you run the further you jump
b)
negative: the less you run the less distance of your jump
c)
positive: the further your running start the less your distance
131.

Which bar graph is the same as the data in the circle graph if 20 people were surveyed?

a)
b)
c)
d)
132.

A statement of what will happen when the hyphothesis is tested.

a)

proportion

b)

precision

c)

prediction

d)

scientific guess

133.

Assessment of scientific research by other scientists working in the same domain.

a)

method

b)

peer review

c)

median

d)

measurement

134.

If two substances are miscible, when mixed together they form

a)

an immiscion

b)

a solution

c)

an explosion

d)

an aliquot

135.
How many moles of NaCl are present in a solution with a molarity of 8.59 M and a volume of 125 mL?
a)
1074 mol
b)
0.069 mol
c)
1.07 mol
d)
62.7 mol
136.
What is the molarity of 4 grams of sodium chloride in 3,800 mL of solution?
a)
0.018 M
b)
0.018 mol
c)
1.052 M
d)
1.052 mol
137.
How many grams of AgNO3 (MM = 169.87) are needed to prepare 0.125M solution in 250 mL of water? 
a)
.03g
b)
0.5g
c)
5.3g
d)
84.9g
138.

A solution in which the solute has dissociated into ions to a large degree

a)
Non-electrolyte solution
b)
Covalent solution
c)
Neutral solution
d)
Electrolyte solution
139.

If you dilute 175 mL of a 1.6 M solution of LiCl to 1.0 L, determine the new concentration of the solution.

a)

2.2 M

b)

0.28 M

c)

4.3 M

d)

5 M

140.

You need to make 10.0 L of 1.2 M KNO3. What molarity would the potassium nitrate solution need to be if you were to use only 2.5 L of it?

a)

4.8 M

b)

4.2 M

c)

2.8 M

d)

3.3 M

141.

To what volume should you dilute 133 mL of an 7.90 M CuCl2 solution so that 51.5 mL of the diluted solution contains 4.49 g CuCl2?

a)

420 L

b)

1140 mL

c)

1620 mL

d)

3000 L

142.

I have a stock solution of sodium acetate equal to 10M. I want 0.5 L of a 0.3 M solution of sodium acetate. How much of 10M stock do I need?

a)

15 mL

b)

20 L

c)

21 mL

d)

22 mL

143.

How many mL do I add to create 150 mL of 0.3 M solution? Stock is 12 M.

a)

3.3 L

b)

3.75 mL

c)

4 L

d)

2.4 L

144.
What kind of correlation is this?
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
No correlation
145.
The correlation coefficient, is always between ___ and ___.
a)
0 and 1
b)
-1 and 1 
c)
-1 and 0
d)
0 and 10
146.
If there is NO correlation between 2 variables, the correlation coefficient is ____. 
a)
1
b)
-1
c)
0
d)
10
147.
What kind of correlation is this?
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
No correlation
148.

Match the following

a)

solute

1.

the substance being dissolved

b)

solvent

2.

the substance doing the dissolving

c)

solution

3.

homogeneous mixture

d)

solubility

4.

the ability of a substance to dissolve

e)

solvation

5.

the process of dissolving

149.

Match the following

a)

Homogeneous Mixture

1.

substance containing two or more components that are blended uniformly

b)

Suspension

2.

Heterogeneous mixture containing a liquid, & in which visible particles slowly settle to the botto

c)

Colloid

3.

Heterogeneous mixture whose particles never settle

d)

Tyndall Effect

4.

Tendency for a beam of light to scatter as it passes through a colloid

e)

Compound

5.

Substance in with the atoms of two or more elements are combined in a fixed proportion

150.

a change in participants illness or behavior that results from a belief that the treatment will have an effect rather than from the actual treatment

a)

Placebo Effect

b)

Self-Fulfilling Prophecy

c)

Longitudinal Study

d)

Control Group