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Biopharmaceutics and Pharmacokinetics

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 37hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The science that examines the inter-relationship of the physicochemical properties of the drug, the dosage form in which the drug is given, and the route of administration on drug’s bioavailability

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Biopharmaceutics

c)

Toxicology

d)

Pharmacokinetics

2.

The branch of pharmacology that deals with disposition and fate of drug is

a)

both

b)

pharmacokinetics

c)

pharmacodynamics

d)

none

3.

The application of pharmacokinetic principles in the safe and effective treatment of individual patients, and in the optimization of drug therapy

a)

clinical pharmacy

b)

clinical pharmacology

c)

clinical pharmacokinetics

d)

clinical biopharmaceutics

4.

Is the application of pharmacokinetic principles to design, conduct, and interpretation of drug safety evaluation studies and in validating dose-related exposure in animals

a)

Clinical pharmacokinetics

b)

Clinical pharmacology

c)

Clinical toxicokinetics

d)

Clinical biochemistry

5.

Which of the following statement is (are) correct?

a)

pharmacodynamic parameters characterize the effects of a drug on the body

b)

pharmacokinetic parameters describe the effects of the body on a drug

c)

a receptor is that component of the body with which a drug interacts to produce its effects

d)

none of the above

e)

all of the above

6.

The LADME system is employed in

a)

the development of new active compounds

b)

the development of new active compounds

c)

the adjustment of dosage regimen

7.

Is the delivery of the active ingredient from a dosage form into solution

a)

Drug release

b)

Absorption

c)

Distribution

d)

Metabolism

e)

Excretion

8.

Liberation as the first step, determines the following aspects;

a)

onset of action

b)

type of preparation

c)

rate of absorption

d)

bioavailability

9.

Liberation is a process controlled by

a)

age of the patient

b)

characteristics of the drug

c)

both

d)

none of the above

10.

Each statement below describes a characteristic of a particular route of drug administration. True statements include;

a)

IV administration provides a rapid response

b)

IM administration requires sterile technique

c)

oral administration requires that the patient be alert

d)

SC administration may cause local irritation

11.

The IV route of administration may be preferred over the peroral route for some systemic-acting drugs because

a)

the drug does not have to be absorbed

b)

absorption is predictable and complete

c)

a portion of the absorbed drug pass through the liver before entering the systemic circulation

d)

first-pass effect is not avoided

12.

Select the most appropriate route of drug administration for a 55-year old man who is brought to the emergency room with recurrent tonic-clonic seizures following a head injury

a)

SC

b)

rectal

c)

oral

d)

IV

e)

inhalational

13.

Select the most appropriate route of drug administration a 14 year-old boy who has type I diabetes mellitus and will be self-administering his insulin injections

a)

rectal

b)

SC

c)

oral

d)

sublingual

e)

IV

14.

What is the advantage of sublingual/buccal administration over peroral route of administration?

a)

no occurrence of GI degradation

b)

does not pass to the liver

c)

drug is given directly in the circulation

15.

The following is/are advantages of rectal route of administration except ;

a)

alternate for patients having difficulty of swallowing drugs

b)

a portion of the absorbed drug does not pass through the liver before entering the systemic circulation

c)

absorption is predictable and complete

16.

Drugs administered by inhalation are absorbed in the

a)

small intestine

b)

nasal mucosa

c)

lungs

d)

stomach

17.

Micromeritics is;

a)

he science of small particles

b)

microscopic blood count method

c)

a method of chemical analysis

d)

an optical instrument

e)

colorimetry

18.

The smallest particle size approved by the FDA is ;

a)

1-10 micro-meter

b)

0-0.1 micro-meter

c)

10-15 micro-meter

d)

all

19.

Which of the following methods is employed in promoting particle size reduction?

a)

grinding

b)

solid dispersion

c)

levigation

d)

milling

20.

The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic processes.

a)

lag time

b)

rate limiting step

c)

bioequivalence

d)

accumulation

21.

A rate limiting factor in the dissolution of tablet is

a)

disintegration of the tablet

b)

thickness

c)

content uniformity

d)

local effect

22.

Which of the following series in kinetic processes may be the rate-limiting step?

a)

disintegration and dissolution of the unit

b)

diffusion of active drug through the intestinal wall

c)

dissolution of the active drug

d)

disintegration only

23.

The rate limiting step in bioavailability of a conventional compressed tablet or drugs that are poorly soluble in aqueous media is the rate of ;

a)

disintegration of the drug

b)

transport of the drug molecules across the

intestinal mucosal cells

c)

dissolution of the drug

d)

biotransformation of the drug by the liver prior to systemic absorption

24.

If the particle size decreases;

a)

dissolution rate increases

b)

surface area increases

c)

rate of diffusion decreases

d)

all

25.

The effect of reduced particle size of a drug is;

a)

increased absorption

b)

increased disintegration

c)

increased hardness

d)

all

26.

Factors affecting dissolution rate to correlate with bioavailability;

a)

particle size of the drug

b)

presence of surfactant

c)

patient acceptance

27.

Which of the following physicochemical constants may be useful when predicting the solubility of a chemical;

a)

pH of solution

b)

pKa of the chemical

c)

solubility parameters

d)

valence of chemicals

e)

dissolution rate

28.

The equation that best describe the overall rate of drug dissolution

a)

Henderson-Hasselbaclh equation

b)

Michelis-Menten equation

c)

Noyes-Whitney equation

d)

Fick’s First Law of Difussion

29.

Dissolution rate tests can be used to predict bioavailability if;

a)

dissolved drug remains free in GIT

b)

dissolved drug is decomposed in the GIT

c)

drug is hydrolyzed in the GIT

d)

all of them

30.

Which of the following factors affect the dissolution in the lipid membrane of the lipoid soluble unionized fluid compartment ;

a)

pH

b)

pKa

c)

lipid/water partition coefficient

31.

Which of the following factor/s is inversely proportional to the rate of dissolution in the lipid membrane of lipoid soluble unionize substances?

a)

particle size

b)

lipid/water partition coefficient

c)

surface area

d)

diffusion coefficient

e)

difference in drug concentration in two phases separated by a semipermeable membrane

32.

Dissolution rate is increased by;

a)

decreased in surface area

b)

decrease in particle size

c)

the formation of molecular aggregates

d)

all

33.

The ratio of drug concentration in the lipoid phase over the concentration of the drug in the aqueous phase is equal to

a)

APC

b)

pKa

c)

pH

d)

Concentration gradient

34.

The partition coefficient can be considered as;

a)

an index of the relative affinity of a drug for two immiscible solvents

b)

an index of comparative solubilities in solvents

c)

a parameter of the relative rate of partitioning from one phase into another

35.

The lipid phase which is usually employed in the determination of apparent partition coefficient

a)

water

b)

corn oil

c)

cottonseed oil

d)

octanol

e)

buffer solution at pH 7.4

36.

With decreasing oil/water partition coefficient, the polarity of drug;

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

no change

d)

polarity is not related to solubility

37.

The mathematical equation used in determining the ratio between ionized and unionized drug include;

a)

Noyes whitney equation

b)

Fick’s First Law of diffusion

c)

Henderson Hasselbalck equation

d)

none

38.

The extent of ionization of a weak electrolyte drug is dependent on the

a)

pH of the media and pKa of the drug

b)

particle size and surface area of the drug

c)

oil:water partition coefficient of the drug

d)

Noyes Whitney equation of the drug

e)

polymorphic form of the drug

39.

pH is equal to pKa when the ionized form is

a)

greater than unionized

b)

less than unionized

c)

neither greater or less than unionized

d)

equal to unionized

40.

A change of pH in the aqueous phase alters the of electrolytes.

a)

degree of ionization

b)

degree of dissociation

c)

degree of acidification

d)

degree of purification

41.

The ionization constant of a drug is important in bioavailability since it determines the following ;

a)

its aqueous solubility

b)

dissolution rate

c)

pH of the medium

d)

extent of protein binding

42.

Free acid and free bases are practically insoluble in water. Which of the following alkaloids exhibits good water solubility?

a)

morphine SO4

b)

cocaine

c)

atropine

d)

lidocaine

43.

Most drugs are

a)

strong electrolytes

b)

non-electrolytes

c)

weak electrolytes

d)

highly ionic

e)

None of the above, because many drugs are either weak acids or weak bases

44.

Which of the following is a characteristic of weak electrolytes?

a)

exist entirely as ions

b)

exist both as ionic and a molecular form

c)

exist entirely in molecular form

d)

may be undissociated

45.

Characteristics of salts of electrolytes include ;

a)

higher solubility

b)

more rapid dissolution rate

c)

lower solubility

d)

slow dissolution rate

46.

Acids are _____ when deprotonated

a)

charged

b)

unionized

c)

nonpolar

d)

none

47.

Significant site of absorption of many acidic and neutral compounds but not for basic compounds

a)

kidney

b)

stomach

c)

liver

d)

all

48.

According to pH partition theory, a weakly acidic drug will most likely be absorbed from the stomach because

a)

the drug will exist primarily in the unionized, more lipid soluble form

b)

he drug will exist primarily in the ionized, more water-soluble form

c)

weak acids are more soluble in acid medium

d)

the ionic form of the drug facilitates dissolution

49.

Weak acids are greatly unionized at

a)

high pH

b)

low pH

c)

neutral pH

d)

all

50.

The excretion of weak acid will be more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine because

a)

all drugs are excreted in alkaline urine

b)

he drug will exist primarily in the unionized form

c)

he drug will exist primarily in the ionized form

d)

weak acids cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules

51.

Weak acids are reabsorbed into the bloodstream when

a)

the urinary pH is high

b)

the urine is made alkaline

c)

the urinary pH is low

d)

all situations apply

52.

Penicillin Na+ are greatly unionized at

a)

high pH

b)

low pH

c)

neutral pH

d)

all

53.

Based on the relation between the degree of ionization and the gastric solubility of a weak acid, the drug aspirin (pKa 3.49) will be most soluble at

a)

pH 1.0

b)

pH 2.0

c)

pH 3.0

d)

pH 4.0

e)

pH 6.0

54.

The concentration of the ionic moiety of weak acids increases with

a)

decreasing pH of aqueous solution

b)

increasing pH of aqueous solution

c)

increasing pOH of aqueous solution

d)

all

55.

Weak bases are greatly ionized at

a)

high pH

b)

low pH

c)

neutral pH

d)

all

56.

Morphine sulfate will most likely be absorbed from the small intestine because

a)

the molecular form will be more lipid soluble form

b)

the drug will exist primarily in the ionized and more water soluble form

c)

the drug will exist primarily in the ionized and more water soluble form

d)

basic drugs are more lipid soluble in alkaline media

57.

Alteration of urine pH can alter renal elimination of certain toxins. Which of the following toxicants may be safely eliminated by alkalinization of the urine?

a)

phencyclidine

b)

salicylates

c)

amphetamines

d)

all

58.

Reasons for chemical variations

a)

change the structure of the active compound in order to increase pharmacologic response

b)

maintain the basic structure but change solubility by addition of either salts, ester, ethers, or complexes

c)

both

d)

none

59.

Introduction of salts increases

a)

lipophilic property

b)

hydrophilic property

c)

solubility in nonpolar solvents

d)

none

60.

Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?

a)

increase in the particle size of the drug

b)

use of ionized, or salt, form of the drug

c)

decrease in the surface area of the drug

d)

use of free acid or free base form of the drug

e)

use of sugar coating around the tablet

61.

To generally increase the solubility of a poorly soluble drug in an aqueous medium, the process is

a)

complexation

b)

adsorption

c)

prepare into a derivative

62.

The ions of added electrolyte require water for hydration reducing the amount of water available for the solution of the non-electrolyte is the phenomenon of

a)

salting in

b)

salting out

c)

clathrate formation

d)

chelation

63.

It is the phenomenon when organic substituted ammonium salts or salts of various inorganic acids are added to mixtures of organic non-electrolytes causing the dissolution of the undissolved solutes

a)

chelation

b)

clathrate formation

c)

salvation

d)

salting in

64.

The resulting solid when a drug and polymer like PVP or PEG are dissolved in a solvent with the drug, then the solvent is evaporated

a)

hydrates

b)

co-precipitates

c)

solid-in-solid solution

d)

solvation

65.

These are formed when a substance is capable of forming channels or cages which can take up another substance into the intraspace of the structure

a)

co-precipitates

b)

solvates

c)

drug-clathrate complexes

d)

hydrates

66.

An agent that take up another substance into its intraspace structure is called

a)

macromolecular carriers

b)

hydrates

c)

polymorphs

d)

clathrate forming agents

67.

Which of the following is a clathrate forming substance?

a)

urea

b)

mucin

c)

melt of mannitol

d)

theobroma oil

68.

Polymorphism is generally defined as

a)

substance that may exist in more than one crystalline form or amorphous form

b)

substance that may exists only in metastable form

c)

substance that has different viscosity time to time

d)

substance that reduces interfacial tension

69.

Polymorps exist only in

a)

solid state

b)

semisolid

c)

liquid

d)

gas

70.

Different polymorphs of the same drug exhibit differences in all aspects;

a)

chemical structure

b)

melting points

c)

solubilitie

d)

molecular sizes

71.

The following statements are true except

a)

amorphous form is more soluble than that of the crystalline form

b)

amorphous form has a higher dissolution rate than the crystalline form

c)

crystalline form requires a higher amount of energy to free a molecule of the drug from it than does the amorphous form

d)

amorphous form requires a higher amount of energy to free a drug molecule from it than does the crystalline form

72.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

polymorphism exist only in liquid state

b)

penetration occurs if each molecule is bounded to the surface molecules

c)

the most stable form of polymorphs are those with highest stability but with lowest dissolution rate

d)

clathrate forming agents retard transition of polymorphs

73.

Theobroma oil is an example of

a)

amorphous form

b)

metastable polymorph

c)

stable polymorph

d)

all

74.

Which of the following crystal form gives the best dissolution rate?

a)

meta-stable polymorph

b)

amorphous

c)

stable polymorph

75.

Ability of chemical compound to exist as optically active stereoisomers or enantiomers is ;

a)

polymorphism

b)

chirality

c)

chemical variation

d)

chelation

76.

The property of absorbing moisture from the atmosphere include

a)

micronization

b)

hygroscopicity

c)

viscosity

d)

ionization

77.

Refers to a more comprehensive concept that includes the drug formulation and the dynamic interactions among the drug, its formulation matrix, its container, and the patient

a)

Drug delivery system

b)

Dosage form

c)

Capsules

d)

Tablets

78.

The ultimate evaluation of dosage forms or delivery system is in

a)

disintegration time

b)

thickness

c)

clinical effectiveness

d)

taste

79.

Are additives which are necessary in formulating a dosage form from the drug

a)

Vehicle substances

b)

Inert substances

c)

Excipients

d)

All

80.

Those multiple source drug products that contain identical amount of the identical active ingredients in identical dose forms are called

a)

chemical equivalents or pharmaceutical equivalents

b)

biologic equivalents

c)

therapeutic equivalents

d)

pharmaceutical alternates

e)

therapeutic alternates

81.

The instability which could lead to the rejection of a drug product

a)

problem of bioavailability

b)

substantial changes in the appearance of the dosage forms

c)

extensive chemical degradation of the active drug

d)

all

82.

Which of the following types of dosage form does not require dissolution prior to absorption

a)

tablet

b)

suspension

c)

parenteral solutions

d)

modified dosage form

e)

capsules

83.

The advantage of solid dosage form for administration is A. most stable B. faster dissolution C. faster disintegration D. faster absorption than other forms

a)

most stable

b)

faster dissolution

c)

faster disintegration

d)

faster absorption than other forms

84.

A suspension is not a suitable dosage form for what type of injection?

a)

ID

b)

IM

c)

IV

d)

SC

e)

Oral

85.

The purpose of enteric coating of the tablets may be ;

a)

protect the gastric mucosa from irritant drugs

b)

protect the drug from action of gastric fluids

c)

protect the patient from drug sensitization

86.

A dosage form for which the drug release characteristics of time course and/or drug release location are chosen to accomplish therapeutic or convenience objectives

a)

modified release dosage forms

b)

sustained release dosage forms

c)

conventional dosage forms

d)

all

87.

Dose dumping is defined as ;

a)

an intended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation

b)

unintended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation

c)

slow release of the drug into systemic circulation

d)

slow absorption of the drug into the systemic circulation

88.

The controlled release dosage form is sometimes necessary for action of some drugs for the purpose of;

a)

prolonging absorption of the drug itself

b)

delay the absorption of the drug

c)

for immediate action

89.

That portion of a prolonged release dosage form which liberates the drug from the form at a slower rate that is unrestricted absorption rate

a)

depot phase

b)

release phase

c)

dissolve phase

d)

all

90.

In general, various oral dosage forms can be ranked in which of the following expected order of availability (fastest to slowest)

a)

aqueous solution, capsule, tablet, powder, coated tablet, suspension

b)

capsule, tablet, coated tablet, powder, suspension, aqueous solution

c)

aqueous solution, suspension, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet

d)

suspension, aqueous solution, powder, capsule, coated tablet, tablet

91.

Which of the following properties of surfactants tend to increase the rate of dissolution?

a)

surface tension lowering effect

b)

increased surface tension

c)

absence of peptizing action

d)

all

92.

When non-polar substances are dissolved in polar solvent using surfactants, the process is called

a)

HLB

b)

Solubilization

c)

Emulsification

d)

Gelatinization

93.

A disadvantage of some inert diluents for powders as a dosage form is

a)

adsorbs onto the active drug substance

b)

high cost

c)

drugs may not be released immediately

94.

Process of transferring chemical substances from the GIT through its wall into the blood and lymphatic stream

a)

diffusion

b)

adsorption

c)

absorption

d)

convective transport

95.

Sorption is the collective term used to describe

a)

Penetration

b)

Adsorption

c)

Permeation

d)

disposition

96.

Are substances that have no pharmacological properties of their own but can improve the penetration of drugs into the skin or mucosa

a)

sorption promoters

b)

solubilizing agents

c)

binders

d)

all

97.

The following are the mechanisms by which drugs containing sorption promoters penetrate the skin

a)

decrease viscosity of the medium

b)

chelation of intercellular groups

c)

chelation of intercellular groups

d)

all

98.

A second substance tends to accumulate to the surface of a first substance due to intermolecular forces of attraction is a phenomenon of

a)

chemisorption

b)

absorption

c)

adsorption

d)

all

99.

Obtained when the drug product is administered at the site where the pharmacological response is desired and when the drug released from the product acts by absorption to the skin or mucosa or penetrates into the skin or mucosa, but does not enter the systemic circulation or lymphatic system

a)

systemic effect

b)

local effect

c)

mean transit time

d)

micro constants

100.

The physical barrier to transport in the body

a)

Carrier molecule

b)

Inactive complex

c)

Unit membrane

d)

kahit alin na jan

101.

The theory which states that cell membrane is made up of bi-lipid layers and fluid protein molecules interpersed between 2 layers of lipid layer

a)

Fick’s law

b)

Fluid Mosaic

c)

Ariens and Stephenson

d)

Stokes law

102.

Membranes are responsible for which of the following processes;

a)

Uptake of liquid material

b)

Uptake of solid material

c)

Extrusion of waste materials

d)

for permeation and transport

e)

ALL

103.

Membrane potential is due to the;

a)

Adsorption of protein to the outside of the lipid layer

b)

Different distribution of ions in the extracellular and intracellular fluid

c)

pH of the medium

104.

Absorption is not involved when a drug is administered by which of the following routes

a)

IV

b)

intra- arterial

c)

intraspinal

d)

ALL

105.

Drugs administered by buccal route are absorbed in the

a)

small intestine

b)

nasal mucosa

c)

lungs

d)

mouth cavity

e)

stomach

106.

Which of the following is the first process that must occur before a drug can become available for GI absorption from a tablet dosage form?

a)

dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids

b)

ionization of the drug

c)

disintegration of the tablet

d)

dissolution of the drug in the blood

e)

adsorption of the drug on the mucosal surface of the skin

107.

In general, the form of a drug that can be absorbed faster is ;

a)

Ionized form

b)

Unionized form

c)

Bound form

108.

Factors influencing absorption include/s;

a)

total surface area available for absorption

b)

contact time at the absorption surface

c)

blood flow to the absorption site

d)

ALL

109.

The following are factors affecting GIT absorption, except

a)

pKa value of the drug and pH of drug product

b)

Perfusion rate

c)

Osmotic pressure

d)

None of the choices

110.

Which of the following events modify drug absorption?

a)

physiologic constituent of digestion

b)

drug interaction

c)

certain disease state

111.

Due to their anatomical structure, the organ that is considered as the most important site of drug absorption is

a)

large intestine

b)

stomach

c)

small intestine

d)

mucous membrane of the mouth

e)

rectum

112.

Specific organ of the animal used for In vivo test of active transport mechanism

a)

Duodenum

b)

Ascending colon

c)

Ileum

d)

transverse colon

113.

As soon as drug has passed the epithelium of the GI mucosa, it can reach the systemic circulation by;

a)

Entering through the villi

b)

Entering through the lacteals

c)

Both

d)

None

114.

Factor affecting gastric emptying time of a drug

a)

age of a person

b)

time of the day

c)

body posture

d)

ALL

115.

Rate of gastric emptying is slowed down by the following ;

a)

Vigorous exercise

b)

Fatty foods

c)

Hot meals

d)

Hunger

e)

Emotional stress

116.

A condition that may increase the time of gastric emptying is /are;

a)

Depression

b)

stressful

c)

Lying on the right side

117.

In the oral administration of drugs for aged people, the possible consequence/s when the gastric emptying time is increased is/are;

a)

Reduce mixing of intestinal content

b)

Delayed transfer to small intestine

c)

Change in epithelial transfer

d)

ALL

118.

The lesser the gastric emptying time, the faster the gastric emptying rate

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

ERRONEOUS

d)

NOT VALID

119.

Factors delay transit time

a)

increasing viscosity

b)

liquid diet

c)

water

d)

lying on the right side

120.

Atropine causes which of the following effects;

a)

Delayed GI absorption

b)

Accelerated renal excretion

c)

Accelerated metabolism

d)

Reduced biliary excretion

121.

Conditions may not decrease drug absorption;

a)

vigorous exercise

b)

laxatives

c)

surgery

d)

initially large volume of meal during unfed state

122.

Absorption of vitamin A from the GI tract depends on;

a)

the presence of bile in the intestine

b)

which salt is used

c)

cid-base balance

d)

needs of the patient

e)

pH of the intestine

123.

Increase drug absorption except ;

a)

Increased blood flow to the site of administration

b)

Decreased particle size

c)

Increased surface area dedicated to absorption

d)

Increased lipid solubility

e)

Decreased pH when the drug is a weak base

124.

Factors affecting membrane transport include /s;

a)

pKa

b)

Diffusivity

c)

Partition coefficient

d)

Presence or absence of a charge

e)

Surfactants

125.

The following mechanisms of absorption require the presence of drug in aqueous solution;

a)

passive diffusion

b)

convective transport

c)

facilitated transport

d)

pinocytosis

126.

The transfer of most drugs across biologic membranes occurs by ;

a)

Passive diffusion

b)

Active transport

c)

Facilitated transport

d)

Pinocytosis

e)

Ion-pair transport

127.

In the diffusion controlled system, the initial rate of dissolution is directly proportional to the;

a)

pKa

b)

pH

c)

quantity of free acid

d)

solubility of the drug in the dissolution medium

128.

Equation followed by passive diffusion;

a)

Noyes-whitney

b)

Van Slyke

c)

Fick’s law

d)

Henderson- Hasselbalch

129.

According to Fick’s Diffusion Equation, the rate of transport of a drug by passive diffusion is;

a)

independent of the concentration gradient

b)

inversely proportional to the membrane surface

c)

inversely proportional to the membrane thickness

d)

inversely proportional to the partition coefficient

e)

independent of the diffusion constant of drug

130.

All of the following statements about Fick’s law as it pertains to simple diffusion are true except;

a)

The greater the concentration gradient, the greater the rate of absorption

b)

The smaller the surface area, the greater the drug flux

c)

The greater the lipid-water partition coefficient, the greater the drug flux

d)

Diffusion constant is directly proportional to the temperature

e)

Diffusion constant is inversely related to the molecular size

131.

The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the;

a)

specific carrier proteins and shows saturation kinetics

b)

concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment

c)

BOTH

d)

NONE

132.

The ratio of drug concentration in 2 phases separated by a semipermeable membrane

a)

APC

b)

pKa

c)

concentration gradient

d)

elimination half-life

133.

The rate of diffusion of drugs across biological membranes is most commonly

a)

independent on the concentration gradient

b)

directly proportional to the concentration gradient

c)

dependent on the availability of carrier substrate

d)

dependent on the route of administration

134.

When considering drug transport, passive diffusion involves drug movement from an area of ;

a)

high concentration to an area of higher concentration

b)

high concentration to an area of lower concentration

c)

low concentration to an area of higher concentration

d)

high concentration to an area of equally high concentration

135.

Characterize transport of a drug in solution across a membrane by passive diffusion;

a)

Membrane thickness

b)

Volume outside compartment

c)

Partition coefficient

d)

Membrane length

136.

Lipid/water partition coefficient permits;

a)

Convective transport

b)

Active transport

c)

Passive transport

d)

on-pair transport

137.

The following compounds are absorbed via convective transport ;

a)

sulfonic acids

b)

ionized sulfonamides

c)

weak organic acids

d)

vitamin A

e)

vitamin B12

138.

Types of carrier mediated transport system;

a)

Active transport

b)

Facilitated transport

c)

Passive diffusion

d)

Ion-pair transport

139.

Carrier-mediated transport systems

a)

consume energy

b)

structure specific

c)

may be adversely affected by certain chemicals

d)

all statements are true

140.

A transport mechanism in which drug moves from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration;

a)

passive diffusion active transport

b)

convective transport

c)

ion-pair transport

d)

active transport

141.

The following are the characteristics of active transport;

a)

against a concentration gradient

b)

against a concentration gradient

c)

carrier mediated

d)

requires the expenditure

e)

ALL

142.

Sodium pump is a special type of ;

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive transport

c)

Convective transport

d)

Ion-pair transport

143.

When active transport system becomes saturated, the rate process will be

a)

Zero order

b)

Pseudo- order

c)

First order

d)

Pseudo-first order

144.

The following are the characteristics of facilitated diffusion transport;

a)

against concentration gradient

b)

Follows saturation kinetics

c)

Carrier mediated

d)

competitive inhibition if two compounds are transported by the same mechanism

e)

the process is selective for certain ionic or structural configurations of the drug

145.

Feature common to all carrier-mediated transport processes;

a)

movement is along a concentration gradient

b)

movement is along a concentration gradient

c)

displays a Michaelis-Menten kinetics

d)

can be characterized by allosteric inhibition

146.

Formation of pairs (for highly ionized compounds) with endogenous substrate present at the GIT to form neutral complexes that are absorbed by passive diffusion ;

a)

Pinocytosis

b)

Convective transport

c)

Ion- pair transport

d)

Facilitated transport

147.

The cell membrane is capable of forming vesicles which may engulf drug substances outside the cell membrane to transport drug (via the engulfed drug) into the compartment

a)

Ion-pair

b)

Passive diffusion

c)

Convective transport

d)

Pinocytosis

148.

Mechanism of absorption of drugs in order of their importance;

a)

Active-passive-convective transport

b)

Passive diffusion-convective transport-active transport

c)

Convective-active-passive

d)

Active- pinocytosis-passive

149.

The partitioning of drug molecules among numerous locations in the body

a)

absorption

b)

distribution

c)

metabolism

d)

excretion

150.

The sum of all body regions in which the drug concentration is an instantaneous equilibrium with that in blood or plasma;

a)

clearance

b)

accumulation

c)

depot phase

d)

central compartment

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