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Chemistry: Midterm

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the difference between a physical change and a chemical change?

a)

A physical change can only be reversed, while a chemical change cannot.

b)

A physical change creates energy, while a chemical change does not.

c)

A physical change involves a change in temperature, while a chemical change does not.

d)

A physical change does not alter the chemical composition, while a chemical change results in new substances.

2.

Describe what happens to the molecules in a substance during a physical change.

a)

The molecules rearrange or change state without altering their chemical structure.

b)

The molecules break apart and form new substances.

c)

The molecules remain unchanged in both structure and state.

d)

The molecules lose their mass and become lighter.

3.

Explain how temperature affects the state of matter.

a)

Temperature influences the state of matter by changing the energy and movement of particles, leading to phase transitions.

b)

Temperature changes the color of matter, not its state.

c)

Temperature only affects gases, not solids or liquids.

d)

Temperature has no effect on matter states.

4.

What evidence can indicate that a chemical reaction has occurred?

a)

Change in the size of the container

b)

Absence of any visible changes

c)

Formation of a solid without a reaction

d)

Evidence of a chemical reaction includes color change, temperature change, gas production, precipitate formation, and odor change.

5.

How can you separate a mixture of sand and salt?

a)

Heat the mixture to burn off the salt

b)

Use a magnet to attract the sand

c)

Use water to dissolve the salt, filter to separate sand, and evaporate to recover salt.

d)

Mix sand and salt together thoroughly

6.

What is the difference between an endothermic and exothermic reaction?

a)

Endothermic reactions absorb heat; exothermic reactions release heat.

b)

Both endothermic and exothermic reactions absorb heat.

c)

Endothermic reactions release heat; exothermic reactions absorb heat.

d)

Endothermic reactions occur only in gases; exothermic reactions occur only in liquids.

7.

The ability to rust is a

a)

Physical property

b)

Chemical property

8.

The element sulfur smells like rotten eggs. This is an example of a

a)

Physical property

b)

Chemical property

9.

The element iron is very magnetic. This is an example of a

a)

Physical property

b)

chemical property

10.

Aluminum is a metal that can be flattened and molded into different shapes. It shows high ...

a)

Magnetism

b)

Hardness

c)

Reactivity

d)

Malleability

11.

A property of matter that can be measured or observed without changing the substance of which it is made, is an example of a

a)

Physical property

b)

Chemical property

12.
Which one of these is a chemical property?
a)
melting point
b)
boiling point
c)
color
d)
flammability
13.

Mass

a)

Intrinsic

b)

Extrinsic

14.

Volume

a)

Intrinsic

b)

Extrinsic

15.

Color

a)

Intrinsic

b)

Extrinsic

16.

Odor

a)

Intrinsic

b)

Extrinsic

17.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1, 
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
18.
Jack has a rock. The rock has a mass of 14g and a volume of 2cm3. What is the density of the rock?
a)
7 mL
b)
7 g/cm3
c)
28 g/cm3
d)
1/7 g/cm3
19.
An object with which of the following densities will float on water?
a)
0.7 g/cm3
b)
1.2 g/cm3
c)
3.5 g/cm3
d)
11.4 g/cm3
20.

Which has the greatest density?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

All the same density

21.

What is mass?

a)

The amount of space an object takes up

b)

The amount of matter in a given space

c)

The amount of matter in an object

22.

What is volume?

a)

The amount of space an object takes up

b)

The amount of matter in a given space

c)

The amount of matter in an object

23.

What is density?

a)

The amount of space an object takes up

b)

The amount of matter in a given space

c)

The amount of matter in an object

24.
When the temperature of matter decreases the particles ...
a)
speed up and move farther apart
b)
speed up and move closer together
c)
slow down and move farther apart
d)
slow down and move closer together
25.
A gas
a)
has a definite shape but no definite volume
b)
has a definite volume but no definite shape
c)
has fast-moving particles
26.

salt dissolving in water

a)

physical change

b)

chemical change

27.

wood burning

a)

physical change

b)

chemical change

28.

Molecules are always moving no matter what phase they are in: solid, liquid, gas.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What type of mixture is this?

a)

Homogeneous

b)

Heterogeneous

30.
Combination of two or more pure substances that are not chemically combined
a)
compound          
b)
atom
c)
mixture 
d)
element
31.

In Alpha decay what particle is emitted?

a)

Helium (He)

b)

Electron (e-)

c)

Energy (Photon)

32.

In Gamma decay what particle is emitted?

a)

Helium (He)

b)

Electron (e-)

c)

Energy (Photon)

33.

What is the most dangerous form of radioactive decay?

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

34.

Which form of radiation can be stopped by something as thin as a sheet of paper?

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

35.

Identify the missing variable in the following reaction.

a)
b)
c)
36.

Identify the missing variable in the following reaction.

a)
b)
c)
37.

Identify the missing variable in the following reaction.

a)
b)
c)
38.

Identify the missing variable in the following reaction.

a)
b)
c)

d)

39.

Which identifies the correct type of decay and shows the correct formula for the reaction shown?

a)

b)

c)

d)

40.

This type of radiation can travel across galaxies.

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

41.

This radiation can only be stopped by a thick sheet of lead or several meters of water.

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

alpha and beta

e)

none of the above

42.

This type of decay creates a new element

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

alpha and beta

e)

none of the above

43.

A high energy electron is a(n):

a)

Alpha Particle

b)

Beta Particle

c)

Gamma Ray

44.

In Alpha decay, the atomic number decrease by _________

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

45.

In the symbol 167N what the 7 stand for?

a)

Mass number

b)

Atomic number

c)

Atomic mass

d)

Number of neutrons

46.

The term given to unstable radioactive atoms.

a)

Parent

b)

Daughter

c)

Half Life

d)

Igneous

47.

The % of the parent isotope remaining after 3 Half Lives.

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

12.5%

d)

6.25%

48.

The % of the parent isotope remaining after 1 Half Life.

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

12.5%

d)

6.25%

49.

The % of the parent isotope remaining after 2 Half Lives.

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

12.5%

d)

6.25%

50.

The diagram shows 32 atoms.

16 of the Red are parent isotopes

16 of the Green are daughter isotopes

How many half-lives have occurred?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

51.

The diagram shows 32 atoms

8 of the Red are parent isotopes

24 of the Green are daughter isotopes

How many half-lives have occurred?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

52.

What is the Half life of this isotope?

a)

5 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

15 seconds

d)

20 seconds

53.

The Half Life of Californium 252 is 5 years.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

54.
What is Half-life?
a)
The amount of time it takes for some of the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
b)
The amount of time it takes for half the electrons in a sample of the isotope to decay
c)
The amount of time it takes for half the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
d)
the amount of time it takes to double the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
55.
When nuclei decay, massive amounts of __________ is released.
a)
energy
b)
jello
c)
protons
d)
neutrons
56.

What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy a single s orbital?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

10

d)

4

57.

Which of the following orbitals can hold a maximum of 6 electrons?

a)

s

b)

p

c)

d

d)

f

58.

In the electron configuration notation, what does the notation "3p4" indicate?

a)

4 electrons in the 3rd energy level

b)

4 electrons in the p orbital of the 3rd energy level

c)

3 electrons in the p orbital of the 4th energy level

d)

3 electrons in the 4th energy level

59.

How many valence electrons does an atom of oxygen have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

60.

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for a sodium (Na) atom?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

c)

1s22s2 2p5 3s1

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3p1

61.

If an element has the electron configuration of 1s22s22p63s23p51s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^5 , how many valence electrons does it have?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

2

d)

8

62.

Which of the following elements has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p11s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^1 ?

a)

Aluminum (Al)

b)

Silicon (Si)

c)

Phosphorus (P)

d)

Chlorine (Cl)

63.

What is the total number of electrons in the outermost shell of a chlorine atom?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

8

d)

6

64.

Which of the following orbital diagrams correctly represents the electron configuration of nitrogen?

a)

1s↑↓ 2s↑↓ 2p↑↑↑

b)

1s↑ 1s↓ 2s↑ 2p↑↓

c)

1s↑↓ 2s↑ 2p↑↑

d)

1s↑↓ 2s↑↓ 2p↑↑↑↑

65.

Given the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p51s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 4s^2 3d^{10} 4p^5 , identify the element and its group in the periodic table.

a)

Bromine, Group 17

b)

Iodine, Group 17

c)

Chlorine, Group 17

d)

Selenium, Group 16

66.

Explain how the concept of valence electrons is important in determining the chemical reactivity of an element.

a)

Valence electrons determine the mass of an element.

b)

Valence electrons are involved in bonding and chemical reactions.

c)

Valence electrons are always equal to the number of protons.

d)

Valence electrons do not affect the element's properties.

67.

What is the significance of the electron configuration in predicting the chemical properties of an element?

a)

It helps determine the element's mass.

b)

It indicates the number of neutrons in the nucleus.

c)

It reveals the element's reactivity and bonding behavior.

d)

It has no significance in chemistry.

68.

Which of the following statements about valence electrons is true?

a)

They are always found in the innermost shell.

b)

They determine the element's position in the periodic table.

c)

They are involved in chemical bonding.

d)

They are the same as the total number of electrons.

69.

What is the electron configuration for the element with atomic number 26?

a)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d61s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 4s^2 3d^6

b)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d51s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 4s^2 3d^5

c)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d71s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 4s^2 3d^7

d)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d101s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 4s^2 3d^{10}

70.
What is the shape of a p orbital?
a)
sphere
b)
it's just too complex to thing about it
c)
dumbbell
d)
I don't know this stuff.
71.
How many electrons can each p orbital hold?
a)
6
b)
3
c)
2
d)
4
72.
How many electrons can the d sublevel hold?
a)
8
b)
10
c)
2
d)
4
73.

Electrons fill energy levels and sublevels _____ in energy first.

a)

lower

b)

higher

74.

Region of high probability of finding an electron

a)

atomic orbital

b)

ground state

c)

Heisenberg uncertainty principle

d)

electron configuration

75.

What is the noble gas configuration for Cobalt?

a)

[Kr] 4s2 3d7

b)

[Kr] 4s2 4d7

c)

[Ar] 4s2 3d7

d)

[Ar] 4s2 4d7

76.

What is the noble gas configuration for 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2?

a)

[He] 3s2

b)

[Ne] 3s2

c)

[Ar] 3s2

d)

[Ar] 4s2

77.

What does the 1 in "1s" stand for?

a)

energy level

b)

s orbitals

c)

p orbitals

d)

the number of electrons

78.

Bohr discovered that electrons are located in

a)

the nucleus

b)

inside protons

c)

electron cloud

d)

circular orbits around the nucleus

79.

What is a particle with one negative charge called?

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

quark

d)

neutron

80.

What is a particle with one positive charge called?

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

neutron

d)

quark

81.

What is the center of an atom called?

a)

nucleus

b)

electron cloud

c)

proton center

d)

photon center

82.

What is the neutral particle found in the nucleus called?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

quark

83.

The majority of an atom's mass exists where?

a)

In the nucleus

b)

In the electron cloud

c)

In the space between the nucleus and the electrons

d)

In the neutrons

84.

What is Neils Bohr's contribution to the atomic theory?

a)

Created the atomic theory

b)

Created a model of the atom with electrons moving around the nucleus in a fixed orbits

c)

Discovered that the proton had a positive charge

d)

Believed that atoms of a given element are identical

e)

Discovered the electron

85.
Rutherford’s experiment determined that the nucleus of an atom is tiny, dense and  ______ charged. 
a)
neutrally
b)
negatively
c)
positively
86.
Which model suggested that: Atoms mostly consist of positively charged material with negatively charged particles (electrons) located throughout the positive material.
a)
Bohrs Model
b)
Plum Pudding Model 
c)
Democritus Model
d)
Our current model 
87.

A spectrum represents the specific parts of an object's

a)

sound

b)

light

c)

shape

88.

What causes the lines to appear in a spectrum? When an atom..... (select all that apply)

a)

remains stable (unchanged)

b)

loses energy (emits it)

c)

gains energy (absorbs it)

89.

True or False: The ground state is the highest energy state of an atom.

a)

True

b)

False

90.
For an electron to change from ground state to an excited stated it must...
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Release energy
91.

What is the light that you can see called?

a)

observatory light

b)

ultraviolet light

c)

visible light

d)

infrared light

92.
Emission of light from an atom occurs when an electron
a)
drops from a higher to a lower energy level.
b)
   jumps from a lower to a higher energy level.   
c)
   moves within its atomic orbital.
d)
falls into the nucleus.
93.

The unknown emissions spectra belongs to the element

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Sodium

94.

The unknown emissions spectra belongs to the element

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Sodium

95.
Which elements are in the unknown sample?
a)
A and B
b)
B and C
c)
A and D
d)
B and D
96.

Each element produces its own pattern of emission spectra lines because each element has its own distinct

a)

Speed of light

b)

Electron configuration

c)

Number of neutrons

d)

None of these

97.

The unknown emissions spectra belongs to the element

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Helium

98.

On a wave, the distance between crest to crest is called?

a)

amplitude

b)

wavelength

c)

frequency

d)

trough

99.

The number of cycles in a given amount of time is ...

a)

longitudinal wave

b)

frequency

c)

diffraction

d)

reflection

100.

What does energy have to do with wavelength and frequency?

a)

The higher the frequency the less energy the wave has.

b)

The lower the frequency the more energy the wave has.

c)

The shorter the wavelength the more energy the wave has.

d)

The longer the wavelength the more energy the wave has.

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