Free Printable astronomy midterm

1.

Which is the correct order of the planets, moving from closest to the Sun to farthest from the Sun?

a)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Saturn, Mars, Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus

b)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

c)

Venus, Mercury, Mars, Earth, Saturn, Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus

d)

Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

e)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus

2.

The Universe consists of the Sun, its family of planets, and some smaller bodies such as moons, asteroids, and comets.

a)

false

b)

true

3.

Uranus is approximately 3 × 10⁹ km away from the Sun. What is the distance in astronomical units?

a)

20 au

b)

10 au

c)

15 au

d)

2 au

e)

1 au

4.

What unit of measurement is used to describe extraordinary large distances, such as the distance of other stars from our own?

a)

mi

b)

AU

c)

Min

d)

ly

e)

km

5.

You discover a new star that is 352,800 AU away. What is the distance in light years?

a)

2.22 x 10^2 ly

b)

3.53 ly

c)

5.6 ly

d)

2.3 ly

e)

63 ly

6.

The star Wolf 359 is 7.7 light years away. What is that distance in kilometers?

a)

7.28 × 10¹² km

b)

7.28 × 10¹³ km

c)

0.78 × 10⁸ km

d)

14 × 10¹³ km

e)

7.7 × 10⁸ km

7.

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are only located at a distance of 1 AU or less from the Sun.

a)

false

b)

true

8.

The most widely accepted system of measurement is the metric system.

a)

true

b)

false

9.

Which best represents 5,362,000,000 kilometers in scientific notation?

a)

5.4 × 10⁹ m

b)

5 × 10¹⁰ km

c)

53.6 × 10⁶ km

d)

5.362 × 10⁹ mi

e)

5.362 × 10⁹ km

10.

What does the above image (Figure 1) represent?

a)

extrasolar planet

b)

Solar System

c)

planet

d)

galaxy

e)

Universe

11.

Which list is in order of increasing size?

a)

star, planet, galaxy, solar system, Universe

b)

planet, star, solar system, galaxy, Universe

c)

planet, star, solar system, Universe, galaxy

d)

star, planet, galaxy, Universe, solar system

e)

planet, galaxy, solar system, star, Universe

12.

The Big Bang is a theory describing the ____.

a)

birth of our Solar System

b)

start of civilization on Earth

c)

beginning of planet formation

d)

beginning of the Universe

e)

massive extinction of dinosaurs

13.

What is the very first step of the scientific method?

a)

Design an experiment.

b)

Form a hypothesis.

c)

Analyze results.

d)

Generate a conclusion.

e)

Perform an experiment.

14.

Approximately how long does it take light to reach the Earth from the Sun?

a)

1 min

b)

8 min

c)

1 ly

d)

8 ly

e)

1 AU

15.

When did life first appear on Earth?

a)

4.6 billion years ago

b)

14 billion years ago

c)

400 million years ago

d)

65 million years ago

e)

3.4 billion years ago

16.

The discovery that whether peas are smooth or wrinkled is an inherited trait was made by _________.

a)

Hershel

b)

Mendel

c)

Hubble

d)

Einstein

e)

Bohr

17.

Which of these planets is approximately the same size as Earth?

a)

Venus

b)

Mars

c)

Saturn

d)

Mercury

e)

Pluto

18.

Why are extrasolar planets difficult to detect?

a)

They are generally small.

b)

all of these

c)

They are too close to the glare of their respective parent star.

d)

They are faint.

19.

What process do scientists use to determine how nature works?

a)

The laboratory method

b)

The brainstorming method

c)

The scientific method

d)

The observational method

e)

The naturalistic method

20.

What is Earth’s distance from the Sun?

a)

1.5 AU

b)

1.0 AU

c)

0.72 AU

d)

0.39 AU

e)

2.8 AU

21.

Scientists try to form hypotheses that explain how nature works.

a)

false

b)

true

22.

A convenient method to write very large numbers is to use scientific notation.

a)

false

b)

true

23.

The scientific method is a simple, mechanical way of grinding facts into understanding.

a)

true

b)

false

24.

Uranus is one of a group of dwarf planets and other small objects that have been discovered circling the Sun beyond Neptune.

a)

False

b)

True

25.

What did the International Astronomical Union classify Pluto as in 2006?

a)

dwarf planet

b)

comet

c)

asteroid

d)

planet

e)

meteor

26.

In Figure 1, what is the pointer indicating?

a)

dwarf planets

b)

spiral arm

c)

Solar System

d)

extrasolar planet

e)

galaxy

27.

Jupiter is located approximately 5.2 AU away from the Sun. What is the distance in kilometers?

a)

7.8 × 10⁸ km

b)

1.4 × 10⁹ km

c)

3.7 × 10⁷ km

d)

5.2 × 10⁸ km

e)

8.0 × 10⁸ km

28.

Our Solar System formed 14 billion years ago with the Big Bang.

a)

true

b)

false

29.

You need to drive to a research site to collect some samples. The site is 250 miles away. What is the approximate distance in kilometers?

a)

500 km

b)

400 km

c)

106 km

d)

250 km

e)

156 km

30.

You are analyzing driveway lengths within your neighborhood and surrounding neighborhoods, and your data is to be presented to the city council. Which would be the most appropriate unit of measurement?

a)

inches

b)

meters

c)

kilometers

d)

miles

e)

feet millimeters

31.

What is the Sun made up of?

a)

hot gas

b)

ice

c)

metal

d)

rock

e)

water

32.

Since Mars is 1.5 AU from the Sun, how long would it take for sunlight to reach the surface of Mars?

a)

1 hr

b)

8 min

c)

12 min

d)

4 min

e)

4 hr

33.

Humanity is very new to the Universe.

a)

false

b)

true

34.

Which of these planets is just 0.39 AU from the Sun?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Mars

c)

Earth

d)

Venus

e)

Mercury

35.

A planet is massive enough to be rounded by its own gravity.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Earth is approximately 13,000 km in diameter.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Most individual star names come from Latin and have been altered through passing centuries.

a)

false

b)

true

38.

In ancient times, constellation boundaries were well defined.

a)

true

b)

false

39.

What is the apparent path of the Sun against the background of stars?

a)

shadow

b)

nadir

c)

zenith

d)

ecliptic

e)

elliptic

40.

Which is an example of an asterism?

a)

Pegasus

b)

Big Dipper

c)

Canis Major

d)

Andromeda

e)

Ursa Major

41.

The International Astronomical Union established 88 constellations that represent a defined area of the sky.

a)

False

b)

True

42.

From which language did the majority of star names originate?

a)

Italian

b)

Greek

c)

Latin

d)

Arabic

e)

Spanish

43.

Betelgeuse is the brightest star of which constellation?

a)

Orion

b)

Ursa Minor

c)

Ursa Major

d)

Southern Cross

e)

Cassiopeia

44.

Earth spins completely upright like a giant top.

a)

true

b)

false

45.

Which ancient astronomer recorded the magnitude of stars in his star catalog and was used successfully by astronomers for generations?

a)

Aristotle

b)

Kepler

c)

Ptolemy

d)

Copernicus

e)

Galileo

46.

We are living in one of Earth’s ice ages.

a)

true

b)

false

47.

Day and night cycles are caused by the ____ of Earth.

a)

boundaries

b)

axis tilt

c)

location

d)

revolution

e)

rotation

48.

Which is an asterism of Pegasus?

a)

Scorpio

b)

Andromeda

c)

Orion

d)

Great Square

e)

Cassiopeia

49.

In a given constellation, the star designated with the Greek letter α is always brighter than the star designated with the Greek letter β.

a)

true

b)

false

50.

What is an asterism?

a)

Constellations close enough to a celestial pole that they do not appear to rise from the east and set in the west

b)

The northern pivot point of the celestial sphere

c)

Less formally defined group of stars outside the official 88 constellations

d)

A legend or folklore association to a grouping of stars

e)

The council of astronomers who defined the 88 constellations

51.

If star A is 14.5 times brighter than star B, then what is their magnitude difference?

a)

6.2 × 10⁵

b)

63.1

c)

2.9

d)

1.2

e)

800

52.

Review the accompanying figure (Figure 2-4) and identify point A.

a)

south celestial pole

b)

north celestial pole

c)

nadir

d)

south point

e)

zenith

53.

If two stars have a magnitude difference of 5, what is their flux ratio?

a)

625.3

b)

100.0

c)

12.6

d)

10.0

e)

250.0

54.

Why is the term “arc” used to describe units of measure for angular distance?

a)

To describe the placement of the stars within each hemisphere

b)

To distinguish the difference between northern and southern spheres

c)

To describe the arc-shaped distance between the stars

d)

To avoid confusion with the minutes and seconds of time

e)

To distinguish the base unit of 10 per degree

55.

What did the IAU establish in 1928?

a)

The IAU recorded all the mythologies associated with 88 constellations.

b)

The IAU recognized additional orbiting bodies in the Kuiper Belt.

c)

The IAU published official names of all constellations.

d)

The IAU classified Pluto as a dwarf planet.

e)

The IAU recorded 88 constellations with defined boundaries.

56.

Even though modern astronomers know that stars are scattered through space at different distances, they still use what scientific model to describe celestial locations in the sky?

a)

planetarium dome

b)

celestial sphere

c)

Copernican revolution

d)

apparent visual magnitude

e)

scientific orb

57.

Earth’s rotation is connected with a very slow celestial motion that can be detected only over _____

a)

short brief periods

b)

a few months

c)

a year

d)

centuries

e)

decades

58.

The star Vega has a magnitude of 0.03. Using the accompanying figure (Figure 2-2), which object is brighter than Vega?

a)

Polaris

b)

Sirius

c)

Venus

d)

Sun

e)

full moon

59.

The sky appears to rotate eastward around Earth each day, but that is a consequence of the westward rotation of Earth.

a)

false

b)

true

60.

Review the accompanying figure (Figure 2-4) and identify point C.

a)

nadir

b)

zenith

c)

south celestial pole

d)

celestial equator

e)

north celestial pole

61.

What is the flux ratio of two stars whose difference in magnitude is 2.6?

a)

632

b)

21.3

c)

10.8

d)

6.3

e)

1090

62.

Because Earth’s axis of rotation is inclined 23.4 degrees from vertical, the Sun moves into the northern sky in the spring and into the southern sky in the fall.

a)

false

b)

true

63.

Flux is a measure of the light energy from a star that hits a collecting area of one square meter in one second.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

The constellations are an ancient heritage handed down for thousands of years as ways to tell stories of mythical heroes and monsters.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Within the Northern Hemisphere, the vernal equinox marks the start of ____.

a)

spring

b)

summer

c)

fall

d)

winter

e)

a new year

66.

What is the cause for the slow movement of reference marks, such as the celestial poles and equator, to move across the sky?

a)

continental drift

b)

climate change

c)

evolution

d)

precession

e)

angular revolution

67.

What is the name of constellations that appear to never rise or set?

a)

circumpolar constellations

b)

celestial polar constellations

c)

circular constellations

d)

polar constellations

e)

circumference constellations

68.

Examine the accompanying figure (Figure 2-1). Which term would be the correct scientific designation for Polaris in Ursa Minoris?

a)

β Ursae Minoris

b)

α Ursae Minoris

c)

α Ursa Major

d)

North Star

e)

-0.3 Ursa Minoris

69.

In 1928, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) established _______________ official constellations with carefully defined boundaries that together include every part of the sky.

a)

57

b)

98

c)

88

d)

45

70.

If Earth rotated about its axis completely upright, what would we fail to experience?

a)

holidays

b)

seasons

c)

weather

d)

day and night

e)

a 365 day year

71.

Due to the cycle of precession, in 12,000 years, which star will replace Polaris as the guiding North Star?

a)

Betelgeuse

b)

Spica

c)

Rigel

d)

Sirius

e)

Vega

72.

The seasons are caused by Earth’s orbit moving closer to or farther from the Sun.

a)

False

b)

True

73.

Earth’s rapid rotation makes its axis sweep out the shape of a cone, like a heavy top slowing down. This motion is known as ____.

a)

recession

b)

revolution

c)

precession

d)

momentum

e)

precision

74.

The scale of apparent visual magnitudes extends into negative numbers to represent the faintest objects in the sky.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

When can Sirius, a famous star of the Northern Hemisphere, be observed?

a)

during fall

b)

during spring

c)

during winter

d)

during summer

e)

all year long

76.

Review the accompanying figure (Figure 2-4). Where does the celestial equator always meet the horizon?

a)

at the equinox

b)

at the east and west points

c)

at the zenith and nadir

d)

at the north and south celestial poles

e)

at the north and south poles

77.

Astronomers describe the brightness of stars using the brilliance scale.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Review the accompanying figure (Figure 2-4) and identify point B.

a)

north celestial pole

b)

south celestial pole

c)

celestial equator

d)

zenith

e)

north point

79.

What was the purpose of the IAU establishing 88 official constellations?

a)

To include additional, fainter stars within a constellation

b)

To identify which constellation was created by which culture

c)

To name all constellations the same across any culture

d)

To allow ancient stories of each constellation to be preserved

e)

To define boundaries for constellations including every part of the sky

80.

When the Earth is at ________, it is at its closest point to the Sun in its orbit.

a)

its zenith

b)

aphelion

c)

perihelion

d)

precession

e)

the north celestial pole

81.

The nadir marks the point of the celestial sphere directly above your head.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Which planet is often called our most brilliant “morning star”?

a)

Saturn

b)

Mercury

c)

Mars

d)

Venus

e)

Jupiter

83.

In the above image (Figure 2-3), what is the observer measuring?

a)

arc

b)

distance

c)

angular momentum

d)

angular distance

e)

angle

84.

Astronomers use the _______________ alphabet to identify the bright stars in a constellation in approximate order of brightness.

a)

spanish

b)

english

c)

greek

d)

latin

85.

What gives the Moon a coppery glow during a total eclipse?

a)

The spectral emissions of the gases that make up Earth’s atmosphere.

b)

The artificial light reflected up from Earth’s surface

c)

Sunlight reflected from Earth’s surface

d)

Sunlight refracted through Earth’s atmosphere

e)

Not all of the sunlight is blocked out

86.

During a total solar eclipse, what part of the Sun is often visible that we normally cannot see?

a)

photosphere

b)

corona

c)

core

d)

CMEs

e)

solar wind

87.

Why can’t the Moon always pass through the center of the umbra?

a)

The Moon is not in its full moon lunar phase.

b)

The Moon’s orbit changes with the seasons.

c)

The Moon’s synodic cycle changes a few minutes per cycle.

d)

The Moon’s rotation is slightly faster than its revolution around Earth.

e)

The Moon’s orbit is inclined by 5 degrees to the plane of Earth’s orbit

88.

Any location on the Moon is sunlit for three weeks and is in darkness for one week as the Moon rotates.

a)

false

b)

true

89.

To see a solar eclipse, you have to be in Earth’s shadow.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

What creates a total lunar eclipse?

a)

The Earth passes through some of the Moon’s penumbra.

b)

The Earth passes completely through the Moon’s umbra.

c)

The Sun passes completely through Earth’s umbra.

d)

The Moon passes through some of Earth’s penumbra.

e)

The Moon passes completely through Earth’s umbra.

91.

An plasma loop emerging from the solar surface is called a ___________.

a)

corona

b)

photosphere

c)

penumbra

d)

prominence

e)

synodic period

92.

Which part of the Sun is observable during a total solar eclipse?

a)

core

b)

photosphere

c)

sunspots

d)

solar disk

e)

chromosphere

93.

The angular diameters of the Moon and Sun vary slightly because the orbits of the Moon and Earth are slightly elliptical.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Predicting an eclipse is easy because all you have to do is keep track of where the Moon crosses the ecliptic.

a)

false

b)

true

95.

What unit would best describe the linear diameter of a planetary body?

a)

radians

b)

kilometers

c)

arc minutes

d)

arc seconds

e)

degrees

96.

When the full Moon passes through Earth’s shadow, the eclipse is visible from anywhere on Earth’s dark side.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

As the illuminated part of the Moon grows larger from new to full, it is said to “wane”.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

If the Moon crosses Earth’s shadow at the center of the umbra, how long will the entire eclipse last from start to finish?

a)

6 hours

b)

1 hour 45 minutes

c)

7 minutes

d)

2 to 3 minutes

e)

2 hours

99.

What happens every 29.5 days?

a)

The Moon’s chance for a partial eclipse

b)

The Moon’s ecliptic season

c)

The Moon’s sidereal cycle

d)

The Moon’s Saros cycle

e)

The Moon’s synodic cycle

100.

There is one side of the Moon that can never be seen directly by observers on Earth.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

The diamond ring effect is a characteristic of which phenomena?

a)

solar prominence

b)

solar eclipse

c)

lunar eclipse

d)

full moon

e)

new moon

102.

Solar eclipses must occur at __________ moon.

a)

waning gibbous

b)

waxing gibbous

c)

crescent

d)

new

e)

full

103.

What are the two parts of a shadow during an eclipse?

a)

umbra and penumbra

b)

waxing and waning

c)

sidereal and synodic

d)

total and partial

e)

apogee and perigee

104.

The ____ of the Moon and Sun vary slightly because the orbits of the Moon and Earth are slightly elliptical.

a)

angular momentum

b)

angular diameter

c)

linear distance

d)

angular distance

e)

linear diameter

105.

The chromosphere is often marked by eruptions on the solar surface called ____.

a)

coronal mass ejections

b)

diamond rings

c)

prominences

d)

solar flares

e)

solar nodes

106.

What is the safest way or method to observe a solar eclipse?

a)

through a pinhole projection

b)

through a UV filter held up to the sky

c)

by observing with your naked eyes

d)

using a telescope

e)

wearing sunglasses

107.

A lunar eclipse can only occur when the Moon is ____

a)

rising

b)

full

c)

new

d)

waxing

e)

waning

108.

The geometry of a solar eclipse is the same as that of a lunar eclipse.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

What is the length of time half of the Moon stays in sunlight per full rotation?

a)

one month

b)

two weeks

c)

27.3 days

d)

29.53 days

e)

two months

110.

How many times does the Moon cross the ecliptic each month?

a)

three times

b)

twice

c)

once

d)

none

e)

four times

111.

Calculate the angular diameter of the Moon with these known facts:

Moon’s linear diameter = 3480 km

Moon’s average distance from Earth = 384,000 km

number of arc seconds in 1 radian = 2.06 × 10⁵

a)

1910 arc seconds

b)

1870 arc seconds

c)

1750 arc seconds

d)

31 arc seconds

e)

187 arc seconds

112.

What astronomical period takes 18 years 11 1/3 days to complete?

a)

sidereal period

b)

eclipse season

c)

lunar phase cycle

d)

synodic cycle

e)

Saros cycle

113.

If the Moon is too far from Earth during a solar eclipse, the _____ does not reach Earth’s surface.

a)

solar disk

b)

penumbra

c)

prominence

d)

umbra

e)

ecliptic

114.

In most months, there are no eclipses.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

A solar eclipse can only occur when the Moon is ____

a)

rising

b)

new

c)

waning

d)

full

e)

waxing

116.

What does a waning crescent moon mean?

a)

The changing Moon between first and third quarters

b)

The changing Moon between new moon and first quarter

c)

The changing Moon between first quarter and full moon

d)

The changing Moon between full moon and third quarter

e)

The changing Moon between third quarter and new moon

117.

The Moon moves slowly against the background of the constellations.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

At what point is the Moon closest to Earth?

a)

prominence

b)

umbra

c)

perigee

d)

apogee

e)

penumbra

119.

What is a new moon?

a)

The lunar phase in which sunlight illuminates only the far side of the Moon

b)

The lunar phase in which the Moon’s shadow is cast on Earth

c)

The lunar phase in which Earth’s shadow is cast on the Moon

d)

The lunar phase in which the first-quarter moon approaches full moon

e)

The lunar phase in which sunlight illuminates the Earth facing side of the Moon

120.

A “larger” Moon on the horizon is an optical illusion.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

What does a waxing gibbous moon mean?

a)

The changing Moon between first and third quarters

b)

The changing Moon between new moon and first quarter

c)

The changing Moon between third quarter and new moon

d)

The changing Moon between full moon and third quarter

e)

The changing Moon between first quarter and full moon

122.

The Moon has a dark side that is never lit by the Sun.

a)

false

b)

true

123.

What happens during a partial lunar eclipse?

a)

The Moon only partially enters the umbra.

b)

Earth only partially enters the umbra.

c)

The Moon only partially enters the penumbra.

d)

Earth only partially enters the penumbra.

e)

The Sun only partially enters the umbra.

124.

At what point is the Moon farthest away from Earth?

a)

prominence

b)

penumbra

c)

umbra

d)

apogee

e)

perigee

125.

How many Saros cycles does it take for the same eclipse to occur at about the same location on Earth?

a)

22 cycles

b)

18 cycles

c)

three cycles

d)

one cycle

e)

54 cycles

126.

What happens during a penumbral lunar eclipse?

a)

The Moon only partially enters the umbra.

b)

The Moon partially enters the penumbra.

c)

Earth enters the entire penumbra.

d)

Earth only partially enters the penumbra.

e)

Earth only partially enters the penumbra.

127.

Since the Moon is about 0.5 degrees in angular diameter, about how far does it move in 24 hours across the background of the constellations?

a)

9 degrees

b)

13 degrees

c)

2 degrees

d)

0.5 degrees

e)

1.0 degree

128.

Due to the high temperatures of the gas, what color do prominences appear as during a solar eclipse?

a)

teal

b)

violet

c)

pink

d)

copper

e)

blue

astronomy midterm

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

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