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Midterm 105

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Understanding a patient's point of view or feeling is the basis of

a)

empathy

b)

sympathy

c)

apathy

d)

empathize

2.

the final stage of the dying process is?

a)
end of life care
b)
terminal illness
c)

Acceptance

d)
grieving process
3.

The Medical Assistant's Creed was adopted in?

a)

1996

b)
1995
c)
1985
d)
2000
e)

1954

4.

Being assertive means to

a)
avoiding conflict at all costs
b)
expressing thoughts in a passive manner
c)
ignoring others' needs and opinions
d)

respect others and reflect professional confidence

5.

the stages of dying in the order presented, the fourth stage is usually?

a)
Depression
b)
Denial
c)
Bargaining
d)
Acceptance
6.

Select the correct statement regarding licensure, accreditation, certification, and registration.

a)

Standardized testing is a way of portraying a professional image.

b)
Registration is the same as accreditation.
c)
Accreditation is required for all professionals.
d)
Certification is a form of licensure.
e)
Licensure is voluntary, while accreditation is mandatory.
7.

a medical assistant needs to be?

a)

versatile

b)

untrained

c)

person

d)
able to perform surgeries without supervision
8.

The administrative medical assistant will be trained in

a)

clerical skills

b)
patient diagnosis methods
c)
pharmaceutical sales techniques
d)
surgical procedures in a hospital
9.

Managed care

a)
Managed care is only about reducing costs.
b)
Managed care is a type of insurance that covers all medical expenses.
c)
Managed care is a system that only focuses on preventive care.
d)

Impacts the way medical assistants perform their jobs by adding additional paperwork

10.

When trying to understand another person's viewpoint, the most important tool is?

a)
Ignoring their feelings
b)
Making assumptions about their thoughts
c)
Interrupting them frequently
d)

listening and observing

11.

To develop good time management skills, a medical assistant should?

a)
Avoid using any tools for scheduling.
b)
Ignore deadlines and focus on one task at a time.
c)

Learn to prioritize tasks.

d)
Delegate all tasks to others without oversight.
12.

Membership in a professional organization helps the medical assistant?

a)

learn the gossip in town

b)

learn what is going on

c)

keep current in the medical matters

d)
Only some medical assistants benefit from it.
13.

The "hospice" staff primarily consists of a:

a)

interdisciplinary team made of many different types of health care workers

b)

A few cleaning personnel per person

c)
volunteer coordinators
d)
administrative staff
14.

Decisions about life support, resuscitation, and artificial feeding are made or found:

a)
In legal courts during disputes.
b)
Based on personal beliefs without consultation.
c)

living will or durable power of attorney document

d)
By government regulations only.
15.

Which current health care trend emphasizes the use of reliable research in health care decision-making?

a)
holistic health care
b)
patient-centered care
c)
evidence-based medicine
d)
preventive medicine
16.

Predetermination means finding out?

a)

the maximum dollar amount the insurance company will pay for a professional service

b)
Finding out the random outcome of a decision.
c)
Finding out the reasons behind a decision.
d)
Finding out the process of making a decision.
17.

Two or more practitioners share an office space, employees, and income is called a what?

a)
sole proprietorship
b)

partnership or group practice

c)
corporation
d)
limited liability company
18.

What is the name of the medical profession symbol, which is represented by a serpent coiled around a staff, and according to Greek legend, represents a Greek god of healing?

a)
Serpent of Healing
b)
Caduceus
c)
Staff of Hermes
d)
Rod of Asclepius
19.

The "father of medicine" was?

a)
Hippocrates
b)
Aristotle
c)
Galileo
d)
Plato
20.

The "father of modern surgery" was?

a)
Sir William Osler
b)
Dr. Paul Brand
c)

Ambroise Paré

d)
Dr. Edward Jenner
21.

The founder of the American Red Cross was?

a)
Clara Barton
b)
Mary Eliza Mahoney
c)
Dorothea Dix
d)
Florence Nightingale
22.

Managed care started the practice of "utilization review" to?

a)
increase patient wait times
b)
reduce the quality of care
c)

monitor and control areas in medicine where overuse occurs

d)
limit access to specialists
23.

The managed care organization that has been in existence the longest is?

a)

HMO

b)

EOP

c)

PPO

d)

None of the above

24.

The type of managed care organization that offers the patient flexibility when making a choice of going to a contracted or noncontracted physician at the time services are needed is?

a)
Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)
b)
Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
c)
Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
d)
Point of Service (POS)
25.

A specialty that deals with the management and control of obesity is called what?

a)
Endocrinology
b)
Physical therapy
c)
Nutrition science
d)

Bariatric medicine

26.

A medical specialty that determines the causes and nature of diseases and contributes to diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment is called?

a)
Immunology
b)
Radiology
c)
Pharmacology
d)
Pathology
27.

The abbreviation for a doctor of ophthalmology is?

a)
Ophthalm.
b)
Opht.
c)
Oph.
d)

OphD.

28.

The first prescription was discovered in a/an:

a)

tomb on an Egyptian pharaoh

b)
medieval Europe
c)
ancient Greece
d)
ancient Egypt
29.

The American scientist who developed an injection vaccine against poliomyelitis was:

a)
Jonas Salk
b)
Albert Sabin
c)
Louis Pasteur
d)
Edward Jenner
30.

The present "Big Data Revolution" is experiencing a shortage of:

a)
data storage solutions
b)
cloud computing services
c)

IT professionals

d)
data visualization tools
31.

Evidence-based medicine emphasizes:

a)

reliable research

b)
strict adherence to clinical guidelines
c)
solely patient preferences
d)
only the best research evidence
32.

Accountable Care Organizations (ACOs) integrate:

a)
medical equipment manufacturers
b)

physicians, clinics, and hospitals to pool their resources

c)
pharmaceutical firms
d)
insurance companies
33.

The biggest health care consumers are:

a)

those with multiple chronic conditions

b)
Young adults and healthy individuals
c)
Pregnant women and new mothers
d)
Children and teenagers
34.

Select the best statement indicating the American Medical Association's view on how health care reform will affect doctors.

a)

Doctors will have more time with patients as paperwork is simplified.

b)
Health care reform will simplify the administrative tasks for doctors.
c)
Doctors will benefit financially from health care reform.
d)
Health care reform will have no effect on doctors' practices.
35.

A consumer-directed health plan offers:

a)

Low premiums with a catastrophic health plan

b)
Lower deductibles and higher premiums with no consumer control.
c)
Fixed premiums and fixed deductibles with no spending control.
d)
Comprehensive coverage with no out-of-pocket expenses.
36.

Medical necessity is insured when the insurance carrier mandates:

a)

prepaid

b)

predetermination

c)

prequestionaire

d)

preauthorization

37.

A "professional review organization" (PRO) is:

a)

Composed of physicians who evaluate the quality of care

b)
A regulatory body for pharmaceutical companies.
c)
An organization that manages hospital finances.
d)
A group of healthcare providers offering discounts.
38.

In a "staff-model" HMO, physicians are paid:

a)

a salary by the HMO

b)
per procedure
c)
based on patient volume
d)
by commission
39.

A type of managed care, where physicians see private patients along with managed care patients is a/an:

a)

HMO

b)

EPO

c)

PPO

d)

IPA

40.

A "coordinated care organization" serves:

a)

None of these

b)

Medicare patients

c)

Medicaid patients

d)

other

41.

The difference between an "associate practice" and a "group practice" is:

a)
An associate practice is solely focused on administrative tasks, while a group practice focuses on patient care.
b)

Billing practices; in an associate practice, physicians bill under separate tax ID numbers while in a group practice, physicians bill under one tax ID number

c)
A group practice allows for more individual autonomy than an associate practice.
d)
An associate practice is a larger organization than a group practice.
42.

The abbreviation for a certified physician's assistant is:

a)
P.A.
b)

PA-C

c)
PCA
43.

The abbreviation for a doctor of chiropractic medicine is:

a)
MD
b)
DO
c)
RN
d)
DC
44.

A physician working in a medical specialty that deals with pain management is called a

a)
physical therapist
b)

physiatrist

c)
pain relief consultant
d)
anesthesiologist
45.

Select the correct statement regarding "telemedicine."

a)
Telemedicine is only for mental health services.
b)
Telemedicine requires in-person visits.
c)
Telemedicine eliminates the need for any medical professionals.
d)

Medicare patients must be in a medical office or facility to receive telemedicine services.

46.

An "integrated care network" is a:

a)
A type of insurance plan for individuals.
b)
A network of social services unrelated to healthcare.
c)

Large network of private-practice solo physicians

d)
A system that only focuses on mental health services.
47.

Which of the following is an example of unethical conduct?

a)
Reporting accurate data to management.
b)
Collaborating with colleagues on a project.
c)
Following company policies diligently.
d)

Discussing a patient with a co-worker in the reception area

48.

Which of the following situations is not an example of a patient-physician contract?

a)

A physician provides emergency care to an accident victim in a shopping mall

b)
Receiving a prescription from a physician.
c)
Discussing treatment plans during a consultation.
d)
Signing a consent form for surgery.
49.

A medical assistant may help prevent medicolegal claims against a practice by

a)

cleaning up a spill in the reception area to prevent a slip hazard.

b)
ignoring patient confidentiality
c)
overlooking patient feedback
d)
failing to update medical records
50.

Standards of conduct generally accepted as a moral guide for behavior are referred to as:

a)

professional medical ethics

b)
law
c)
morality
d)
customs
51.

The modern code of ethics adopted by the American Medical Association to guide physicians' standards of conduct is the

a)
Code of Medical Conduct
b)
Principles of Medical Ethics
c)
Ethical Guidelines for Physicians
d)
Standards of Medical Practice
52.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act became federal law in:

a)
1994
b)
2000
c)
1985
d)
1996
53.

The correct meaning for the acronym PHI is:

a)
Personal Health Identifier
b)
Public Health Information
c)
Patient Health Index
d)
Protected Health Information
54.

The "consent form" is:

a)
A legal document for medical procedures.
b)

Used voluntarily for the release of personally identifiable health information for treatment, payment, and routine health care operations

c)
A form for applying for a job.
d)
A contract for purchasing goods.
55.

An exception to the right to privacy (privileged communication) that does not need an authorization form because it must be reported to the Department of Health is information about a:

a)

patient experiencing epileptic seizures

b)
non-communicable disease
c)
personal financial information
d)
employment history
56.

The most common torts in health care incidents are:

a)

negligence tort

b)
invasion of privacy
c)
defamation
d)
assault
57.

Unlawful treatment that has been done in the wrong way is:

a)
Legal procedure
b)

Misfeasance

c)

Malpractice

d)

Malfeasance

58.

Arbitration is:

a)

an alternative way of resolving malpractice disputes out of court

b)
a legal process conducted in a courtroom.
c)
a method of negotiating contracts between parties.
d)
a way to appeal court decisions to a higher authority.
59.

When a physician recommends a surgical procedure and the patient decides to accept the risks and have the procedure, the patient must sign a/an:

a)
patient agreement form
b)
surgical waiver
c)

informed consent

d)
medical release form
60.

With a subpoena duces tecum:

a)
It serves as a notice of intent to sue.
b)
It is a request for a legal opinion.
c)

The medical record may be all that is required

d)
It allows for witness testimony.
61.

Under HIPAA law, what is the best description of PHI?

a)
PHI is limited to information about patients over the age of 18.
b)
PHI is only related to financial information.
c)

Protected health information about the patient's past, present, or future health condition that could identify the person

d)
PHI refers to any health information that is publicly available.
62.

Charging fees for missed appointments, telephone calls, and insurance form completion is:

a)

legal as long as the patient is informed of the policies beforehand

b)
a type of patient care service
c)
a government regulation
d)
an ethical violation
63.

Individual character:

a)

is established by the time you are a teenager

b)

can redevelop as you mature and practice ethical behavior

c)

is established in childhood

d)

is solely based on the environment you live in

64.

The "use" of PHI that is protected under the privacy rule includes:

a)
Disclosure of PHI without patient consent
b)

Personal use

c)

Marketing purposes

d)

Sharing records

65.

Under HIPAA law, what is the best description of PHI?

a)

Protected health information about the patient's past, present, or future health condition that could identify the person.

b)
PHI is limited to information about patients over 65 years old.
c)
PHI refers to any health information that is publicly available.
d)
PHI is only related to financial information.
66.

Patients have a right to ask for an accounting of all health information disclosures using the authorization form made by a provider in the past:

a)
six years
b)
one year
c)
ten years
d)
three years
67.

A patient asks a medical assistant to reschedule her mammogram appointment for the following week. In this scenario, the medical assistant is the __________.

a)

receiver

b)

sender

c)

messenger

d)

channel

68.

Which of the following is a potential negative consequence of using the EHR in the medical environment?

a)
Improved patient data accuracy and accessibility.
b)
Enhanced communication among healthcare providers.
c)
Increased patient engagement in their own care.
d)

A focus on the EHR may prevent bonding with a patient.

69.

Basic elements in the communication cycle include:

a)
Sender, message, interpretation, channel, receiver
b)
Sender, message, encoding, feedback, context
c)
Sender, message, channel, receiver, outcome
d)

Sender, message, channel, receiver, feedback

70.

Select the three primary ways messages are communicated in the order of importance.

a)

Body language, tonality, spoken word

b)
Written communication, emotional communication, graphic communication
c)
Digital communication, face-to-face communication, group communication
d)
Visual communication, auditory communication, tactile communication
71.

If a patient makes up a reason to justify unacceptable actions or behavior in order to avoid something, the defense mechanism is known as:

a)
projection
b)
denial
c)
regression
d)
rationalization
72.

In a health care setting, the comfort zone is approximately:

a)

2 to 3 feet

b)

3 to 4 feet

c)

1 to 2 feet

d)

None of the above

73.

Active listening involves:

a)

Giving the speaker your undivided attention

b)
Multitasking while the speaker talks.
c)
Ignoring the speaker's words.
d)
Focusing solely on your own response.
74.

Questioning, requesting examples, and paraphrasing a message are:

a)
emotional responses
b)
listening strategies
c)
nonverbal cues
d)

types of feedback

75.

Some of the most difficult communication problems exist when communicating with a/an:

a)

Coworker

b)

Employer

c)

Patient

d)

Family

76.

Trust begins to develop between the physician and the patient:

a)
when the physician rushes through the appointment.
b)

with the relationship that is established upon first contact with the medical office

c)
when the patient avoids asking questions.
d)
when the physician prescribes medication without explanation.
77.

What is the term used when a patient refuses to follow the doctor's treatment plan?

a)
Noncompliance
b)
Agreement
c)
Compliance
d)
Adherence
78.

If a patient demonstrates a disinterest in his or her health care situation, the defense mechanism is known as:

a)
Projection
b)
Repression
c)

Apathy

d)
Rationalization
79.

According to Maslow's hierarchy pyramid, in what order are human needs categorized—starting with the most basic?

a)
Safety needs
b)
Self-actualization
c)
1. Physiological needs 2. Safety needs 3. Love and belonging 4. Esteem 5. Self-actualization
d)
Esteem needs
80.

Touch is perceived in different ways among different cultures, but in America it is all right to communicate concern to patients by

a)

touching the arm, shoulder, or back lightly

b)
relying solely on facial expressions
c)
avoiding any physical contact
d)
using only written communication
81.

Family members and friends who accompany patients to the medical office should be:

a)

Acknowledged and spoken to in the same way as patients are spoken to

b)
Uninformed about the patient's condition.
c)
Overly critical of the medical staff.
d)
Indifferent to the patient's needs.
82.

Although being patient and allowing the patients plenty of time to think through what they are going to say and speak without putting words in their mouths should be practiced with all patients, it is strongly suggested when communicating with:

a)

patients with speech difficulties

b)
patients with hearing impairments
c)
patients with no communication issues
d)
patients who are fully aware of their condition
83.

Trying to maintain eye contact with someone who is uncomfortable:

a)

May be perceived as aggression and create a communication barrier

b)
Ignore the person's discomfort and continue staring.
c)
Maintain intense eye contact to assert dominance.
d)
Ask the person to look away if they feel uncomfortable.
84.

LEP patients should:

a)
Be denied any medical assistance.
b)
Only communicate through written notes.
c)

Have an interpreter assist in communication

d)
Receive no support for language barriers.
85.

Which of the following statements about addressing patients in the reception area is correct?

a)
Discuss patients' medical history openly in the reception area.
b)
Address patients loudly to ensure everyone hears their name.
c)
Use first names only, regardless of the patient's preference.
d)

The medical assistant should acknowledge the arrival of each patient.

86.

The emerging role of the administrative medical assistant serving as a receptionist includes:

a)

Serving as a diplomat, a negotiator, a psychologist, and a director of public relations

b)
Handling insurance claims and billing inquiries.
c)
Scheduling surgeries and managing medical records.
d)
Performing diagnostic tests and patient examinations.
87.

Two things that are important while performing multiple tasks are:

a)
Procrastination and delegation
b)
Multitasking and distraction
c)
Speed and accuracy
d)

Organizational skills and a calm demeanor

88.

After the medical office is opened, the answering machine should:

a)

Be turned off during business hours after picking up messages

b)
Give vague instructions without details.
c)
Provide outdated contact information.
d)
Play music continuously.
89.

Select the correct statement regarding HIPAA's view of patient visit logs.

a)
Patient visit logs are only accessible to hospital administrators.
b)

Sign-in logs are permitted as long as patients are not prompted to reveal sensitive medical conditions by asking "reason for visit."

c)
Patient visit logs can be freely shared without consent.
d)
Patient visit logs are not subject to HIPAA regulations.
90.

The best feature of any waiting room is

a)
uncomfortable chairs
b)

An immediate acknowledgement and friendly welcome when people arrive

c)
limited reading materials
d)
loud music
91.

An office emergency:

a)
Panic and leave the building without a plan.
b)

Includes following planned procedures by the administrative medical assistant

c)
Call a friend instead of following protocols.
d)
Ignore the emergency and continue working.
92.

Each year, what kills more Americans than all natural disasters combined?

a)

Fires

b)
Cancer
c)
Car accidents
d)
Heart disease
93.

OSHA stands for:

a)
Occupational Security and Health Agency
b)
Office of Safety and Health Administration
c)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
d)
Occupational Safety Administration
94.

If a new patient refuses to divulge certain information on the registration form, such as his or her insurance policy number or birth date, the receptionist should:

a)

Explain to the patient that the insurance company will probably not pay so he or she will need to adopt a pay-at-the-time-of-service policy

b)
Ask the patient to leave if they don't provide the information.
c)
Refuse to register the patient without the information.
d)
Fill in the information yourself to complete the registration.
95.

Office equipment that should be left ON when leaving the medical office include:

a)
Office chairs and desks
b)
Personal computers and laptops
c)
Printers and copiers
d)

Fax machine

96.

A fire can double in size in:

a)
15 seconds
b)

2 to 3 minutes

c)
2 minutes
d)
1 minute
97.

What type of fire extinguisher should be used on an ordinary combustible fire burning paper, cloth, or wood?

a)
Class C fire extinguisher
b)
Class B fire extinguisher
c)
Class D fire extinguisher
d)
Class A fire extinguisher
98.

The acronym RACER stands for:

a)
Respond, Assess, Compare, Elaborate, Summarize
b)
Rephrase, Argue, Conclude, Elaborate, Review
c)

Rescue, alarm, confine, extinguish, relocate

d)
Read, Analyze, Create, Evaluate, Review
99.

Material Safety Data Sheets are kept for:

a)
non-hazardous materials
b)
general office supplies
c)

most reagents and chemicals in a medical office

d)
cleaning products
100.

Records for "at-risk employees" who are exposed to blood-borne pathogens or other infectious agents must be kept for a duration of employment plus:

a)
20 years after last exposure
b)
30 years after last exposure
c)
5 years after last exposure
d)
10 years after last exposure
101.

Examples of medical waste include:

a)
Surgical instruments
b)
Used syringes, blood-soaked bandages, contaminated materials
c)
Expired medications
d)
Plastic gloves
102.

The reception room air temperature should be set at:

a)
68°F to 72°F (20°C to 22°C)
b)
50°F to 55°F (10°C to 13°C)
c)
75°F to 80°F (24°C to 27°C)
d)
60°F to 64°F (15°C to 18°C)
103.

An incoming telephone call should be answered before the ________ ring.

a)

third

b)
first
c)
last
d)
previous
104.

To telecommunicate is to:

a)
send letters through the mail
b)
communicate in person
c)
use smoke signals to convey messages
d)

transmit voice or data over a distance

105.

A speakerphone in the medical office:

a)
Requires a physical connection to the phone line.
b)

Should be used only after asking permission from the caller

c)
Only works with specific phone models.
d)
Limits communication to one person at a time.
106.

How many levels of triage are there?

a)
Two levels
b)
Three levels
c)
Five levels
d)
Four levels
107.

Which level of triage represents a "low-risk" problem?

a)

Level 4

b)

Level 3

c)

Level 2

d)

Level 1

108.

The most important public relations responsibility of the medical assistant is to:

a)
Schedule patient appointments.
b)
Manage medical billing and coding.
c)
Perform laboratory tests.
d)

Place, receive, and screen telephone calls in a friendly, efficient, and courteous manner

109.

A telephone service that is a type of answering system used to store and forward messages is:

a)
pager
b)
fax machine
c)
text messaging
d)
voicemail
110.

When setting up and using the option of a voice mail system in the medical office:

a)
Use a personal voicemail greeting with no instructions.
b)
Ignore messages and do not check regularly.
c)
Set up a voicemail system without a professional tone.
d)

always ask the caller if he or she would like to be connected before transferring the call to voice mail

111.

A total practice management system (TPMS) that allows secure messages to be sent via the computer to member of the health care team is called a/an:

a)
secure communication platform
b)
healthcare messaging app
c)

electronic messaging system

d)
digital patient portal
112.

A condition that requires immediate treatment to avoid putting a person's life in danger is called:

a)
emergency condition
b)
critical condition
c)
urgent situation
d)
non-emergency issue
113.

If patients understand telephone rules by having procedures outlined in an information booklet, management consults have determined that telephone calls to the medical office can be reduced by:

a)

50%

b)

20%

c)

40%

d)

30%