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Chapter 11 Quiz

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two structures make up the central nervous system (CNS)?

a)

Brain and spinal cord

b)

Cranial and spinal nerves

c)

Sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions

d)

Sensory and motor pathways

2.

The CNS integrates incoming information and coordinates responses.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

What part of the nervous system lies outside the brain and spinal cord?

a)

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

b)

Central nervous system (CNS)

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

4.

Which meningeal layer is closest to the brain surface?

a)

Dura mater

b)

Arachnoid mater

c)

Pia mater

d)

Epidural space

5.

The tough, outermost meningeal layer is called:

a)

Dura mater

b)

Arachnoid mater

c)

Pia mater

d)

Epidural space

6.

The subarachnoid space contains cerebrospinal fluid.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Name the three meningeal layers in order from outermost to innermost.

a)

Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater

b)

Pia mater, Dura mater, Arachnoid mater

c)

Arachnoid mater, Pia mater, Dura mater

d)

Pia mater, Arachnoid mater, Dura mater

8.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by:

a)

Pia mater

b)

Dura mater

c)

Choroid plexus

d)

Corpus callosum

9.

Which of the following is NOT a function of cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

Protects the brain

b)

Transmits nerve impulses

c)

Maintains stable ionic concentration

d)

Provides buoyancy

10.

There are four ventricles in the brain.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Where does CSF reabsorption into the bloodstream occur?

a)

Arachnoid granulations

b)

Choroid plexus

c)

Pia mater

d)

Dura mater

12.

The largest part of the human brain is the:

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Brainstem

c)

Cerebrum

d)

Diencephalon

13.

Which lobe of the brain controls voluntary motor functions and decision making?

a)

Temporal lobe

b)

Frontal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Parietal lobe

14.

The occipital lobe is primarily involved in vision.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Which part of the brain connects the two cerebral hemispheres?

a)

Corpus callosum

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Thalamus

16.

The basal nuclei are primarily involved in:

a)

Memory storage

b)

Motor control

c)

Hormone production

d)

Sensory reception

17.

Damage to the basal nuclei can result in Parkinson’s disease.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which structure is the relay station for sensory impulses to the cerebral cortex?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Pineal gland

c)

Thalamus

d)

Pituitary gland

19.

The hypothalamus regulates all EXCEPT:

a)

Body temperature

b)

Emotions

20.

The pineal gland secretes melatonin.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Which part of the diencephalon regulates homeostasis?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Epithalamus

d)

Subthalamus

22.

Which part of the brainstem controls breathing and heart rate?

a)

Midbrain

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Thalamus

23.

The midbrain contains centers for:

a)

Vision and hearing reflexes

b)

Memory

c)

Speech production

d)

Endocrine regulation

24.

The pons connects the cerebrum to the cerebellum.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Name the three main parts of the brainstem.

a)

Midbrain, Pons, Medulla oblongata

b)

Cerebrum, Thalamus, Hypothalamus

c)

Cerebellum, Amygdala, Hippocampus

d)

Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe, Occipital lobe

26.

Which brain region coordinates voluntary muscle movement and balance?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Thalamus

d)

Pons

27.

The cerebellum is involved in fine-tuning motor activity.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Which type of sleep is most associated with dreaming?

a)

NREM

b)

REM

c)

Deep sleep

d)

Stage 2 sleep

29.

Short-term memory usually involves changes in neuronal synapses.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Which brain region is especially important for memory consolidation?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Medulla oblongata

31.

The spinal cord ends at approximately which vertebral level in adults?

a)

L1-L2

b)

L3-L4

c)

T12

d)

S1

32.

Which part of a reflex arc detects the initial stimulus?

a)

Effector

b)

Receptor

c)

Interneuron

d)

Motor neuron

33.

Ascending tracts in the spinal cord carry sensory information.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Name the structure of the spinal cord that contains cerebrospinal fluid.

a)

Central canal

b)

Dorsal root ganglion

c)

Ventral horn

d)

Anterior median fissure

35.

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

a)

10

b)

11

c)

12

d)

13

36.

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

a)

28

b)

30

c)

31

d)

33

37.

The brachial plexus supplies nerves to the upper limbs.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The cranial nerve responsible for smell is:

a)

Olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I)

b)

Optic nerve (Cranial Nerve II)

c)

Trigeminal nerve (Cranial Nerve V)

d)

Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII)

39.

The sympathetic division is also called the:

a)

Rest and digest system

b)

Fight or flight system

c)

Somatic system

40.

Which neurotransmitter is released by most sympathetic postganglionic neurons?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Dopamine

41.

The parasympathetic division decreases heart rate.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

What is the main cranial nerve that carries parasympathetic fibers?

a)

Vagus nerve (CN X)

b)

Optic nerve (CN II)

c)

Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

d)

Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

43.

Which of the following nervous system changes is common with aging?

a)

Increased reflex speed

b)

Neuron loss

c)

Improved memory

d)

Increased plasticity

44.

Sleep disturbances are more common in the elderly.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which lobe is primarily responsible for sensory processing such as touch, temperature, and pain?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

46.

Which lobe processes auditory information and language?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

47.

Which lobe processes visual information?

a)

Temporal lobe

b)

Occipital lobe

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Frontal lobe

48.

Which cranial nerve controls eye movement and pupil constriction?

a)

Optic (CN II)

b)

Oculomotor (CN III)

c)

Trochlear (CN IV)

d)

Trigeminal (CN V)

49.

Which cranial nerve carries visual information from the eye to the brain?

a)

Olfactory (CN I)

b)

Optic (CN II)

c)

Oculomotor (CN III)

d)

Abducens (CN VI)

50.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for chewing muscles and facial sensations?

a)

Trochlear (CN IV)

b)

Trigeminal (CN V)

c)

Facial (CN VII)

d)

Vagus (CN X)

51.

Which cranial nerve controls lateral eye movement?

a)

Abducens (CN VI)

b)

Trochlear (CN IV)

c)

Oculomotor (CN III)

d)

Facial (CN VII)

52.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expressions and taste on the anterior tongue?

a)

Facial (CN VII)

b)

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

c)

Trigeminal (CN V)

d)

Hypoglossal (CN XII)

53.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and balance?

a)

Vagus (CN X)

b)

Vestibulocochlear (CN VIII)

c)

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

d)

Abducens (CN VI)

54.

Which cranial nerve controls swallowing and monitors blood pressure in the carotid arteries?

a)

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

b)

Vagus (CN X)

c)

Facial (CN VII)

d)

Hypoglossal (CN XII)

55.

Which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic control of thoracic and abdominal organs?

a)

Vagus (CN X)

b)

Accessory (CN XI)

c)

Hypoglossal (CN XII)

d)

Trigeminal (CN V)

56.

Which cranial nerve controls neck muscles like the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius?

a)

Accessory (CN XI)

b)

Vagus (CN X)

c)

Facial (CN VII)

d)

Oculomotor (CN III)

57.

Which cranial nerve controls tongue movement?

4 lines
58.

Which of the following is the correct cranial nerve for CN XII?

a)

Hypoglossal (CN XII)

b)

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

c)

Facial (CN VII)

d)

Vagus (CN X)

59.

There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves in the human body.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

In a reflex arc, which component carries information from the receptor to the CNS?

a)

Motor neuron

b)

Sensory neuron

c)

Interneuron

d)

Effector

61.

Which of the following is an example of a monosynaptic reflex?

a)

Withdrawal reflex

b)

Crossed-extensor reflex

c)

Stretch reflex

d)

Flexor reflex

62.

Which spinal tract carries pain and temperature sensations?

a)

Corticospinal tract

b)

Spinothalamic tract

c)

Dorsal column tract

d)

Vestibulospinal tract

63.

Which spinal tract carries fine touch and proprioception?

a)

Dorsal column tract

b)

Spinothalamic tract

c)

Corticospinal tract

d)

Reticulospinal tract

64.

Which tract carries motor commands from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord?

a)

Spinothalamic tract

b)

Corticospinal tract

c)

Vestibulospinal tract

d)

Dorsal column tract

65.

Descending tracts of the spinal cord conduct motor impulses from the brain to muscles and glands.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

What is the term for the collection of spinal nerves extending below the end of the spinal cord?

a)

Cauda equina

b)

Filum terminale

c)

Conus medullaris

d)

Dorsal root ganglion

67.

The cervical plexus gives rise to which important nerve?

a)

Phrenic nerve

b)

Sciatic nerve

c)

Femoral nerve

d)

Axillary nerve

68.

The brachial plexus supplies the:

a)

Neck

b)

Upper limbs

c)

Lower limbs

d)

Abdominal wall

69.

The largest nerve in the body, arising from the lumbosacral plexus, is the:

a)

Femoral nerve

b)

Sciatic nerve

c)

Phrenic nerve

d)

Axillary nerve

70.

Which of the following nerves is the largest branch of the sacral plexus?

a)

Femoral nerve

b)

Obturator nerve

c)

Sciatic nerve

d)

Tibial nerve

71.

The lumbar plexus innervates parts of the lower abdomen and anterior thighs.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which plexus innervates the skin and muscles of the perineum and lower limbs?

a)

Sacral plexus

b)

Cervical plexus

c)

Brachial plexus

d)

Lumbar plexus

73.

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is active during “rest and digest”?

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

c)

Somatic

d)

Enteric

74.

Which neurotransmitter is released by parasympathetic postganglionic neurons?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Serotonin

75.

Sympathetic stimulation generally increases heart rate and blood pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Which system has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers?

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

c)

Somatic

d)

Spinal

77.

Which structure is considered a modified sympathetic ganglion that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine?

a)

Pineal gland

b)

Adrenal medulla

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Hypothalamus

78.

Which cranial nerve provides most parasympathetic outflow to thoracic and abdominal organs?

a)

Vagus nerve (CN X)

b)

Olfactory nerve (CN I)

c)

Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

d)

Facial nerve (CN VII)

79.

Which division of the ANS is thoracolumbar in origin?

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

c)

Somatic

d)

Enteric

80.

Which division of the ANS is craniosacral in origin?

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

c)

Somatic

d)

Central

81.

Neuron loss with aging can contribute to slower reflexes and memory decline.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Which sleep stage becomes shorter and less frequent with aging?

a)

NREM

b)

REM

c)

Stage 1

83.

Which condition involves plaques and tangles in the brain leading to dementia?

a)

Parkinson’s disease

b)

Alzheimer’s disease

c)

Huntington’s disease

d)

Multiple sclerosis

84.

Which disease is caused by degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the basal nuclei?

a)

Alzheimer’s disease

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

Huntington’s disease

d)

ALS

85.

Which condition involves degeneration of motor neurons leading to muscle weakness?

a)

Multiple sclerosis

b)

ALS (Lou Gehrig’s disease)

c)

Parkinson’s disease