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Thyroid and Adrenal Glands/ Hypothalamus Pituitary Axis

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which hormone’s secretion is primarily inhibited by hypothalamic dopamine under baseline conditions?

a)

Growth hormone (GH)

b)

Prolactin (PRL)

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

2.

During dehydration, osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus stimulate release of which hormone, and what is its action?

a)

ADH

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Aldosterone

d)

ACTH

3.

Which scenario best represents negative feedback in the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis?

a)

High cortisol's effects on CRH and ACTH release

b)

GnRH's effects on FSH and LH secretion

c)

Oxytocin release increasing uterine contractions

d)

TRH's effects on TSH secretion

4.

Which two hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary?

a)

Oxytocin and ADH

b)

TSH and ACTH

c)

Prolactin and GH

d)

FSH and LH

5.

Which hormone is released from the anterior pituitary in response to CRH?

a)

TSH

b)

ACTH

c)

GH

d)

Prolactin

6.

What hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to release T3 and T4?

a)

TRH

b)

TSH

c)

GnRH

d)

ACTH

7.

Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary during dehydration to conserve water?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

ADH

c)

Cortisol

d)

Oxytocin

8.

Which hormone is responsible for stimulating spermatogenesis in males?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

Prolactin

d)

TSH

9.

Which hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to release cortisol?

a)

TSH

b)

ACTH

c)

GH

d)

FSH

10.

Which of the following inhibits the release of GHRH?

a)

GH

b)

IGF-1

c)

Somatostatin

d)

Dopamine

11.

Which axis regulates reproduction through LH and FSH release?

a)

HPA axis

b)

HPT axis

c)

HPG axis

d)

HPP axis

12.

Which hormone is secreted in pulses throughout the day and in response to stressful stimuli with a peak in the early morning?

a)

TSH

b)

GH

c)

Cortisol

d)

ADH

13.

Which hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver?

a)

GH

b)

Cortisol

c)

Prolactin

d)

ADH

14.

Which hormone is secreted by Sertoli cells in males to inhibit FSH release?

a)

Insulin

b)

Estrogen

c)

Inhibin

d)

Oxytocin

15.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland?

a)

The pituitary controls the hypothalamus by releasing tropic hormones

b)

The hypothalamus controls the pituitary by releasing regulatory hormones

c)

Both glands act independently without communication

d)

The posterior pituitary produces hormones that regulate the hypothalamus

16.

Which pair correctly matches the hypothalamic hormone with its pituitary target?

a)

CRH → ACTH release from anterior pituitary

b)

TRH → Oxytocin release from posterior pituitary

c)

Dopamine → FSH release from anterior pituitary

d)

GnRH → ADH release from posterior pituitary

17.

Which of the following pairs correctly shows hypothalamus → pituitary → target gland?

a)

TRH → TSH → Thyroid

b)

CRH → GH → Bone

c)

GnRH → ACTH → Adrenal cortex

d)

Dopamine → Oxytocin → Uterus

18.

Which hormone is released due to the fetal head pressing against the cervix?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Somatostatin

d)

Dopamine

19.

Which common substance inhibits ADH release and leads to dehydration?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Caffeine

c)

Nicotine

d)

Barbiturates

20.

Which factors increases GH secretion?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

High amino acid levels in the blood

c)

Exercise

d)

IGF-1

e)

Stress

21.

Which zone of the adrenal cortex produces aldosterone?

a)

Zona fasciculata

b)

Zona glomerulosa

c)

Zona reticularis

d)

Adrenal medulla

22.

What stimulates the adrenal cortex to release cortisol during stress?

a)

Renin

b)

ACTH

c)

Angiotensin II

d)

Aldosterone

23.

Which disorder is characterized by hypercortisolism?

a)

Addison’s disease

b)

Cushing’s syndrome

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Diabetes insipidus

24.

A patient presents with weight loss, salt cravings, hyperpigmentation, and low blood pressure. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Cushing’s syndrome

b)

Addison’s disease

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Pheochromocytoma

25.

Which of the following is the most important mineralocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Testosterone

26.

Which of the following is not a function of cortisol?

a)

Mobilization of glucose

b)

Suppression of inflammation

c)

Sodium and potassium balance

d)

Mood regulation

27.

Which of the following medications is an ACE inhibitor used to lower blood pressure by affecting the RAAS system?

a)

Losartan

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Hydrocortisone

28.

Which of the following is the first-line treatment for Addison’s disease?

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

ACTH injections daily

c)

ACE inhibitors

d)

Ketoconazole

29.

Which of the following triggers renin release from the kidneys?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

High sodium levels

c)

Low blood pressure

d)

Hyperkalemia

30.

Which enzyme is most commonly targeted by autoantibodies in autoimmune Addison’s disease?

a)

11-beta hydroxylase

b)

17-alpha hydroxylase

c)

21-hydroxylase

d)

Aromatase

31.

Which adrenal cortex zone produces cortisol?

a)

Zona glomerulosa

b)

Zona fasciculata

c)

Zona reticularis

d)

Adrenal medulla

32.

Which of the following correctly matches the adrenal hormone with its primary function?

a)

Aldosterone → regulates glucose metabolism

b)

Cortisol → increases blood sugar and suppresses inflammation

c)

Epinephrine → promotes sodium retention

d)

Androgens → regulate circadian rhythm

33.

Which adrenal cortex zone produces gonadocorticoids (sex hormones)?

a)

Zona glomerulosa

b)

Zona fasciculata

c)

Zona reticularis

d)

Adrenal medulla

34.

Which cytokines stimulate CRH release, increasing cortisol during infection?

a)

IL-2 and IFN-γ

b)

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-α

c)

TGF-β and IL-10

d)

IL-4 and IL-13

35.

Which drug blocks aldosterone receptors and is used in hyperaldosteronism?

a)

Lisinopril

b)

Spironolactone

c)

Fludrocortisone

d)

Prednisone

36.

A patient with hypertension is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which is the primary mechanism by which this drug lowers blood pressure?

a)

Blocking renin release from the kidney

b)

Preventing angiotensin I conversion to angiotensin II

c)

Inhibiting aldosterone receptor binding

d)

Suppressing cortisol production in the adrenal cortex

37.

A patient with suspected Addison’s disease receives an ACTH stimulation test. Cortisol levels remain low after ACTH injection. Which is the best interpretation?

a)

The pituitary gland is failing to release ACTH

b)

The adrenal glands are unable to produce cortisol

c)

The hypothalamus is not releasing CRH

d)

Excess cortisol is suppressing ACTH secretion

38.

Which drug is used to block cortisol synthesis in patients with Cushing’s syndrome?

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

Ketoconazole

c)

Fludrocortisone

d)

Prednisone

39.

Which of the following is the primary effect of epinephrine secreted from the adrenal medulla?

a)

Increase sodium retention in the kidney

b)

Mobilize glucose and increase heart rate

c)

Suppress the immune system

d)

Stimulate pigmentation of the skin

40.

Which laboratory abnormality is most consistent with primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)?

a)

Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

b)

Hypernatremia and hypokalemia

c)

Hypercalcemia and hypoglycemia

d)

Hyponatremia and hypoglycemia

41.

Which hormone is secreted by the thyroid gland’s C-cells?

a)

T3

b)

T4

c)

Calcitonin

d)

TRH

42.

What is the primary regulator of T3 and T4 secretion?

a)

ACTH from the pituitary

b)

TRH and TSH from hypothalamus and pituitary

c)

Calcitonin from the thyroid

d)

Iodine levels in the blood

43.

A patient presents with tachycardia, sweating, anxiety, and weight loss. Labs show elevated T3 and T4 with low TSH. Which disorder is most likely?

a)

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

b)

Grave’s disease

c)

Addison’s disease

d)

Toxic nodular goiter

44.

Which medication inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis by blocking thyroid peroxidase?

a)

Levothyroxine

b)

Methimazole

c)

Fludrocortisone

d)

Hydrocortisone

45.

Which lab result best confirms primary hypothyroidism?

a)

Low TSH, low T3/T4

b)

High TSH, low T3/T4

c)

High TSH, high T3/T4

d)

Normal TSH, low T3/T4

46.

A patient treated for Grave’s disease with radioactive iodine develops hypothyroidism. Which medication should be started?

a)

Methimazole

b)

Levothyroxine

c)

Propranolol

d)

Prednisone

47.

Which feature distinguishes Hashimoto’s thyroiditis from Grave’s disease?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Autoimmune cause

c)

Hypothyroidism due to thyroid peroxidase antibodies

d)

Treatment with radioactive iodine

48.

Which enzyme is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis and is inhibited by methimazole?

a)

5′-deiodinase

b)

Thyroid peroxidase

c)

Monoamine oxidase

d)

Adenylate cyclase

49.

What is the primary function of calcitonin?

a)

Stimulates bone resorption

b)

Inhibits osteoclasts

c)

Decrease intestinal calcium absorption

d)

Promotes renal reabsorption of calcium

50.

Which of the following is the first-line treatment for hypothyroidism?

a)

Methimazole

b)

Propranolol

c)

Levothyroxine

d)

Radioactive iodine

51.

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. What is the purpose of this medication?

a)

Inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis

b)

Blocks conversion of T4 to T3

c)

Controls symptoms such as tachycardia and tremor

d)

Replaces deficient thyroid hormone

52.

Which of the following explains why T4 is used as replacement therapy in hypothyroidism instead of T3?

a)

T4 has a shorter half-life and more rapid effect

b)

T4 has a longer half-life

c)

T3 is inactive until converted to T4

d)

T4 suppresses CRH more strongly than T3

53.

Which of the following patients should receive radioactive iodine therapy?

a)

A pregnant woman with hyperthyroidism

b)

A patient with Grave’s disease who fails antithyroid therapy

c)

A patient with primary hypothyroidism

d)

A patient with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

54.

What is the mechanism of action of radioactive iodine therapy?

a)

Blocks thyroid peroxidase activity

b)

Destroys thyroid tissue

c)

Prevents TSH receptor antibody binding

d)

Suppresses TRH release from hypothalamus

55.

Which one of these is not commonly associated with Toxic Nodular Goiter?

a)

Iodine Deficiency

b)

Iodine Excess

c)

Autoimmune Disorders

d)

Inflammation of the thyroid

e)

Hypoglycemia

56.

Which of the following best describes thyroid hormone effects on the liver?

a)

Increases glycolysis and cholesterol synthesis

b)

Decreases gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

c)

Suppresses sensitivity to epinephrine

d)

Reduces bile salt production

57.

What is the primary effect of thyroid hormones on adipose tissue?

a)

Increase triglyceride storage only

b)

Stimulate lipolysis and release of fatty acids and glycerol

c)

Reduce sensitivity to epinephrine

d)

Inhibit glucose uptake

58.

In muscle tissue, thyroid hormones promote which combination of effects?

a)

Decrease protein synthesis and increase glycogen storage

b)

Increase glucose uptake, glycolysis, and protein synthesis

c)

Decrease glycolysis but increase fatty acid oxidation

d)

Reduce sensitivity to epinephrine

59.

Thyroid hormones affect the pancreas primarily by:

a)

Decreasing β-cell sensitivity to insulin release stimuli

b)

Increasing β-cell sensitivity to stimuli for insulin release

c)

Directly inhibiting insulin secretion

d)

Blocking glucose uptake into β-cells

60.

Which of the following best describes the calorigenic effect of thyroid hormones?

a)

Inhibition of Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase activity to reduce ATP use

b)

Increased thermogenesis through stimulation of uncoupling proteins and Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase

c)

Direct suppression of oxidative phosphorylation

d)

Reduced sensitivity to norepinephrine in brown adipose tissue