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DBS 1

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database system?

a)

Database application and the database

b)

Data and the database

c)

The user and the database application

d)

Database application and SQL

2.

Which of the following products was an early implementation of the relational model developed by E.F. Codd of IBM?

a)

IDMS

b)

DB2

c)

dBase-II

d)

R:base

3.

The following are components of a database except ________ .

a)

user data

b)

metadata

c)

reports

d)

indexes

4.

An application where only one user accesses the database at a given time is an example of a(n)

a)

single-user database application

b)

multiuser database application

c)

e-commerce database application

d)

data mining database application

5.

An on-line commercial site such as Amazon.com is an example of a(n) ________ .

a)

single-user database application

b)

multiuser database application

c)

e-commerce database application

d)

data mining database application

6.

Which of the following products was the first to implement true relational algebra in a PC DBMS?

a)

IDMS

b)

Oracle

c)

dBase-II

d)

R:base

7.

SQL stands for ________ .

a)

Structured Query Language

b)

Sequential Query Language

c)

Structured Question Language

d)

Sequential Question Language

8.

Because it contains a description of its own structure, a database is considered to be ________ .

a)

described

b)

metadata compatible

c)

self-describing

d)

an application program

9.

The following are functions of a DBMS except ________ .

a)

creating and processing forms

b)

creating databases

c)

creating databases

d)

creating databases

10.

Helping people keep track of things is the purpose of a(n) ________ .

a)

database

b)

table

c)

instance

d)

relationship

11.

Which of the following products implemented the CODASYL DBTG model?

a)

IDMS

b)

DB2

c)

dBase-II

d)

R:base

12.

An Enterprise Resource Planning application is an example of a(n) ________ .

a)

single-user database application

b)

multiuser database application

c)

e-commerce database application

d)

data mining database application

13.

A DBMS that combines a DBMS and an application generator is ________ .

a)

Microsoft's SQL Server

b)

Microsoft's Access

c)

IBM's DB2

d)

Oracle Corporation's Oracle

14.

You have run an SQL statement that asked the DBMS to display data in a table named USER_TABLES. The results include columns of data labeled "TableName," "NumberOfColumns" and "PrimaryKey." You are looking at ________ .

a)

user data

b)

metadata

c)

A report

d)

indexes

15.

Which of the following is not considered to be a basic element of an enterprise-class database system?

a)

users

b)

database application

c)

DBMS

d)

COBOL programs

16.

16. The DBMS that is most difficult to use is ________ .

a)

Microsoft's SQL Server

b)

Microsoft's Access

c)

IBM's DB2

d)

Oracle Corporation's Oracle

17.

Which of the following data constraints would be used to specify that the value of cells in a column must be one of a specific set of possible values?

a)

A. A domain constraint

b)

B. A range constraint

c)

C. An intrarelation constraint

d)

D. An interrelation constraint

18.

In a 1:N relationship, the foreign key is placed in:

a)

either table without specifying parent and child tables.

b)

the parent table.

c)

the child table.

d)

either the parent table or the child table.

19.

Which of the following column properties specifies whether or not cells in a column must contain a data value?

a)

Null status

b)

Data type

c)

Default value

d)

Data constraints

20.

A primary key should be defined as:

a)

NULL.

b)

NOT NULL.

c)

Either of the above can be used.

d)

None of the above are correct.

21.

Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must contain a monetary value?

a)

Null status

b)

Data type

c)

Default value

d)

Data constraints

22.

Which of the following situation requires the use of ID-dependent entities?

a)

Association relationships only

b)

Multivalued attributes only

c)

Archetype/instance relationships only

d)

All of the above use ID dependent entities

23.

A foreign key is:

a)

a column containing the primary key of another table.

b)

used to define data types.

c)

used to define null status.

d)

all of the above are above correct.

24.

Which of the following columns is(are) are required in a table?

a)

A foreign key

b)

An alternate key

c)

A primary key

d)

A surrogate key.

25.

In a 1:1 relationship, the foreign key is placed in:

a)

either table without specifying parent and child tables.

b)

the parent table.

c)

the child table.

d)

either the parent table or the child table.

26.

Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must be immediately filled with a monetary value of $10,000?

a)

Null status

b)

Data type

c)

Default value

d)

Data constraints

27.

The identifier of an entity will become the ________ of the new table.

a)

foreign key

b)

main attribute

c)

primary key

d)

dentity key

28.

Which of the following data constraints would be used to specify that the value of a cell in one column must be less than the value of a cell in another column in the same row of the same table?

a)

A. A domain constraint

b)

B. A range constraint

c)

C. An intrarelation constraint

d)

D. An interrelation constraint

29.

A unique, DBMS-supplied identifier used as the primary key of a relation is called a(n):

a)

primary key

b)

foreign key

c)

composite key.

d)

surrogate key.

30.

Which is not true about surrogate keys?

a)

A. They are short.

b)

B. They are fixed.

c)

C. They have meaning to the user.

d)

D. They are numeric.

31.

For every relationship, how many possible types of actions are there when enforcing minimum cardinalities?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Six

32.

Which constraint requires that the binary relationship indicate all combinations that must appear in the ternary relationship?

a)

A. MUST COVER

b)

B. MUST NOT

c)

C. Both of the above.

d)

D. None of the above is correct.

33.

Each entity is represented as a(n):

a)

tuple.

b)

table.

c)

attribute.

d)

file.

34.

For every relationship, how many possible sets of minimum cardinalities are there?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Six

35.

If a relationship has a cascade updates constraint, then if ________ in the parent table is changed, then the same change will automatically be made to any corresponding foreign key value.

a)

the primary key

b)

any alternate key

c)

a surrogate key

d)

a foreign key

36.

Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must contain a monetary value that is less than another monetary value in the same row?

a)

Null status

b)

Data type

c)

Default value

d)

Data constraints

37.

If a denormalization situation exists with a one-to-one binary relationship, which of the following is true?

a)

All fields are stored in one relation.

b)

All fields are stored in two relations.

c)

All fields are stored in three relations.

d)

All fields are stored in four relations.

38.

Selecting a data type involves which of the following?

a)

Maximize storage space

b)

Represent most values

c)

Improve data integrity

d)

All of the above.

39.

What is the best data type definition for Oracle when a field is alphanumeric and has a length that can vary?

a)

VARCHAR2

b)

NUMBER

c)

DATE

d)

CHAR

40.

If a denormalization situation exists with a many-to-many or associative binary relationship, which of the following is true?

a)

All fields are stored in one relation.

b)

All fields are stored in two relations.

c)

All fields are stored in three relations.

d)

All fields are stored in four relations.

41.

Which of the following is an advantage of partitioning?

a)

Complexity

b)

Inconsistent access speed

c)

Extra space

d)

Security

42.

The blocking factor is:

a)

a group of fields stored in adjacent memory.

b)

the number of physical records per page.

c)

attributes grouped together by the same primary key.

d)

attributes grouped together by the same secondary key.

43.

Which of the following improves a query's processing time?

a)

Write complex queries.

b)

Combine a table with itself.

c)

Query one query within another.

d)

Use compatible data types.

44.

Which of the following are integrity controls that a DBMS may support?

a)

Assume a default value in a field unless a user enters a value for that field.

b)

Limit the set of permissible values that a field may assume.

c)

Limit the use of null values in some fields.

d)

All of the above.

45.

Which of the following is not a factor to consider when switching from small to large block size?

a)

The length of all of the fields in a table row.

b)

The number of columns

c)

Block contention

d)

Random row access speed

46.

What is the best data type definition for Oracle when a field is alphanumeric and has a fixed length?

a)

VARCHAR2

b)

CHAR

c)

LONG

d)

NUMBER

47.

A secondary key is which of the following?

a)

Nonunique key

b)

Primary key

c)

Useful for denormalization decisions

d)

Determines the tablespace required

48.

The fastest read/write time and most efficient data storage of any disk array type is:

a)

RAID-0.

b)

RAID-1.

c)

RAID-2.

d)

RAID-3.

49.

A rule of thumb for choosing indexes for a relational database includes which of the following?

a)

Indexes are more useful on smaller tables.

b)

Indexes are more useful for columns that do not appear frequently in the WHERE clause in queries.

c)

Do not specify a unique index for the primary key of each table.

d)

Be careful indexing attributes that have null values.

50.

Sequential retrieval on a primary key for sequential file storage has which of the following features?

a)

Very fast

b)

Moderately fast

c)

Slow

d)

Impractical

51.

A multidimensional database model is used most often in which of the following models?

a)

Data warehouse

b)

Relational

c)

Hierarchical

d)

Network

52.

Which of the following database activities allow for the actual retrieval and use of a database?

a)

Enterprise modeling

b)

Logical database design

c)

Physical database design and definition

d)

Database implementation

53.

The three-schema components include all, but:

a)

internal schema.

b)

conceptual schema.

c)

programming schema.

d)

external schema.

54.

Which is not a type of data management technology?

a)

Relational

b)

Rational

c)

Object-oriented

d)

Dimensional

55.

Which is not a relevant feature of CASE tools?

a)

The ability to help draw data models using entity-relationship notations

b)

The ability to generate code

c)

An information repository

d)

Access to a DB via the Internet

56.

The first step in database development is which of the following?

a)

A. Enterprise data modeling

b)

B. Logical database design

c)

C. Physical database design and definition

d)

D. Database Implementation

57.

Which of the following database activities determines the entities, attributes, and relationships of data?

a)

Conceptual data modeling

b)

Logical database design

c)

Physical database design and definition

d)

Database implementation

58.

The use of packaged data models can offer which of the following benefits?

a)

Reduce implementation time and costs

b)

Higher quality models

c)

Both A and B.

d)

Neither A nor B.

59.

The Enterprise tier of the three-tiered database architecture includes:

a)

managing the data.

b)

managing the User-system interface.

c)

processing HTTP protocol.

d)

processing scripting tasks.

60.

An entity type is which of the following?

a)

A. A major category of data about people, place, and things

b)

B. The various departments of an organization

c)

C. The application software

d)

D. The business processes the support the mission of an organization

61.

Strategic Planning factors do not include which of the following?

a)

A. Organizational goals

b)

B. Critical success factors

c)

C. Information engineering

d)

D. Problem areas

62.

CASE tools do not include which of the following features?

a)

Help to draw data models

b)

Help to generate code

c)

Help to manage people

d)

Create an information repository

63.

In enterprise data modeling, which is incorrect?

a)

You review current systems.

b)

You implement the new database.

c)

You describe the data needed at a very high level of abstraction.

64.

Which of the following database activities require a specific knowledge of a DBMS?

a)

Enterprise modeling

b)

Conceptual data modeling

c)

Logical database design

d)

Physical database design and definition

65.

User views are included as part of which schema?

a)

Internal

b)

Conceptual

c)

External

d)

None of the above.

66.

Whose role is it to determine the requirements and design for a database?

a)

Database analysts

b)

Database administrators

c)

Both A and B.

d)

Neither A or B.

67.

Which of the following indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship?

a)

Minimum cardinality

b)

Maximum cardinality

c)

ERD

d)

Greater Entity Count (GEC)

68.

Which type of entity cannot exist in the database unless another type of entity also exists in the database, but does not require that the identifier of that other entity be included as part of its own identifier?

a)

Weak entity

b)

Strong entity

c)

ID-dependent entity

d)

ID- independent entity

69.

In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the one side of the relationship is called a(n) ______ entity.

a)

parent

b)

child

c)

instance

d)

subtype

70.

Which type of entity represents an actual occurrence of an associated generalized entity?

a)

Supertype entity

b)

Subtype entity

c)

Archetype entity

d)

Instance entity

71.

A recursive relationship is a relationship between an entity and ________ .

a)

A. itself

b)

B. another database

c)

C. a different schema

d)

D. a foreign key

72.

Which of the following indicates the minimum number of entities that must be involved in a relationship?

a)

Minimum cardinality

b)

Maximum cardinality

c)

ERD

d)

Greater Entity Count (GEC)

73.

Which of the following refers to something that can be identified in the users' work environment, something that the users want to track?

a)

Entity

b)

Attribute

c)

Identifier

d)

Relationship

74.

In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type related to many entity instances of another type?

a)

One-to-One Relationship

b)

One-to-Many Relationship

c)

Many-to-Many Relationship

d)

Composite Relationship

75.

Which of the following refers to an entity in which the identifier of one entity includes the identifier of another entity?

a)

Weak entity

b)

Strong entity

c)

ID-dependent entity

d)

ID-independent entity

76.

Which type of entity is related to two or more associated entities that each contain specialized attributes that apply to some but not all of the instances of the entity?

a)

Supertype entity

b)

Subtype entity

c)

Archetype entity

77.

An attribute that names or identifies entity instances is a(n):

a)

entity.

b)

attribute.

c)

identifier.

d)

relationship.

78.

Properties that describe the characteristics of entities are called:

a)

entities.

b)

attributes.

c)

identifiers.

d)

relationships.

79.

In which of the following can many entity instances of one type be related to many entity instances of another type?

a)

One-to-One Relationship

b)

One-to-Many Relationship

c)

Many-to-Many Relationship

d)

Composite Relationship

80.

Entities of a given type are grouped into a(n):

a)

database.

b)

entity class.

c)

attribute.

d)

ERD.

81.

Which of the following is NOT a basic element of all versions of the E-R model?

a)

A. Entities

b)

B. Attributes

c)

Relationships

d)

Primary keys

82.

In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type of related to a single-entity instance of another type?

a)

One-to-One Relationship

b)

One-to-Many Relationship

c)

Many-to-Many Relationship

d)

Composite Relationship

83.

Entities can be associated with one another in which of the following?

a)

Entities

b)

Attributes

c)

Identifiers

d)

Relationships

84.

Which type of entity has its relationship to another entity determined by an attribute in that other entity called a discriminator?

a)

Supertype entity

b)

Subtype entity

c)

Archetype entity

d)

Instance entity

85.

Which type of entity represents a logical generalization whose actual occurrence is represented by a second, associated entity?

a)

Supertype entity

b)

Subtype entity

c)

Archetype entity

d)

Instance entity

86.

In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the many side of the relationship is called a(n) ________ entity.

a)

parent

b)

child

c)

instance

d)

subtype

87.

An action assertion must include which of the following?

a)

Anchor object

b)

Action

c)

Corresponding object

d)

All of the above.

88.

An oval represents which of the following in an EER?

a)

Attribute

b)

Entity

c)

Optional One

d)

Relationship

89.

Inheritance is which of the following?

a)

When a supertype entity inherits values of the subtype attribute

b)

When a subtype entity inherits values of the supertype attribute

c)

When a supertype entity inherits values of another supertype attribute

d)

When a subtype entity inherits values of another subtype attribute

90.

When an entity instance must be a member of only one subtype, it is which of the following?

a)

Disjoint with total specialization

b)

Disjoint with partial specialization

c)

Overlap with total specialization

d)

Overlap with partial specialization

91.

A supertype/subtype hierarchy is which of the following?

a)

Each subtype has only one attribute.

b)

Each supertype has only one attribute.

c)

Each subtype has only one supertype.

d)

Each supertype has only one subtype.

92.

A rectangle represents which of the following in an EER?

a)

Attribute

b)

Entity

c)

Optional One

d)

Relationship

93.

Which one of the following symbols is not used in an ERD?

a)

Rectangle

b)

Oval

c)

Diamond

d)

Circle

94.

Specialization is which of the following processes?

a)

Defining one or more subtypes of the supertype and forming supertype/subtype relationships.

b)

Defining one or more supertypes of the subtype and forming supertype/subtype relationships.

c)

Defining one or more subtypes of the supertype and not forming supertype/subtype relationships.

d)

Defining one or more supertypes of the subtype and not forming supertype/subtype relationships.

95.

Which of the following statements concerning business rules is true?

a)

It should be complex.

b)

It should not be convertible to computer code.

c)

It may include restrictions.

d)

All of the above.

96.

A supertype/subtype hierarchy has which of the following features?

a)

Subtypes at the lower lever in the hierarchy inherit attributes only from their immediate supertype.

b)

Attributes are assigned at the highest logical level.

c)

Subtypes at the higher lever in the hierarchy inherit attributes only from their immediate subtype.

d)

Attributes are assigned at the lowest logical level.