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Energy in the Sun

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Based on the passage and the model of the Sun, which layer of the Sun is responsible for giving off electromagnetic energy?

a)

Photosphere

b)

Convection zone

c)

Radiative zone

d)

Core

2.

According to the table, what is the temperature range of the Photosphere layer of the Sun?

a)

11,000°F – 2 million °F

b)

6700°F – 11,000°F or 4000K – 6500K

c)

7 million °F

d)

27 million °F or 15 million K

3.

The layer of the Sun where nuclear reactions occur is called the _________.

a)

Core

b)

Photosphere

c)

Chromosphere

d)

Corona

4.

Which layer of the Sun serves as a passage for radiation energy from the core to the surface?

a)

Photosphere

b)

Convection zone

c)

Radiative zone

d)

Core

5.
Question Image

Match the following Sun's layers to their corresponding temperature:

a)

27 million °F or 15 million K

1.

1-A

b)

7 million °F

2.

2-B

c)

11,000°F – 2 million °F

3.

3-C

d)

6700°F – 11,000°F or 4000K – 6500K

4.

4-D

6.

Which component represents Helium-4?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

7.

Periods in the solar cycle with the highest numbers of sunspots are called _______.

a)

maxima

b)

minima

c)

eclipses

d)

phases

8.

Which of the following best describes a solar minimum?

a)

The period with the highest number of sunspots

b)

The period with the lowest number of sunspots

c)

The period with the highest solar irradiance

d)

The period with the lowest solar irradiance

9.

Based on the graphs, what is the approximate period of the solar cycle in years?

a)

11 years

b)

5 years

c)

20 years

d)

50 years

10.

The number of sunspots reaches a maximum approximately every 11 years according to the graph.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Complete the model of nuclear fusion by placing the letter of the component into the correct position in the equation.

a)

Hydrogen + Hydrogen ➔ Helium + Energy + Neutron

b)

Hydrogen + Helium ➔ Lithium + Energy + Neutron

c)

Helium + Helium ➔ Carbon + Energy + Neutron

d)

Hydrogen + Lithium ➔ Helium + Energy + Neutron

12.

Which claim best describes where energy is produced in the Sun and how the energy is released into space?

a)

Energy is produced in the core, travels through different layers, and is then released at the photosphere.

b)

Energy is produced in the photosphere, travels through different layers, and is then released at the core.

c)

Energy is produced in the radiative zone and is directly released into space.

d)

Energy is produced in the core and is directly released into space.

13.

The Sun's irradiance varies with sunspot activity as shown in the two graphs and the model. Which statement best describes this relationship?

a)

The Sun's irradiance increases when sunspot activity increases.

b)

The Sun's irradiance decreases when sunspot activity increases.

c)

The Sun's irradiance remains constant regardless of sunspot activity.

d)

The Sun's irradiance is unrelated to sunspot activity.

14.

Which graph best illustrates the projected pattern of the number of sunspots from 2020–2040, based on evidence from the graphs and model?

a)

[Graph A]

b)

[Graph B]

c)

[Graph C]

d)

[Graph D]

15.

Which claim best describes the process of nucleosynthesis in a star?

a)

Lighter elements are produced in a star's core near the end of its life cycle

b)

Lighter elements are produced at lower temperatures during a supernova.

c)

Heavier elements are produced at the end of a star's life span as temperatures increase.

d)

Heavier elements are produced at lower temperatures and lighter elements are produced at higher temperatures.

16.

Based on the passage, why is water considered both beneficial and destructive to humanity?

a)

Water is beneficial because it is required for life and can be used for recreation and generating electricity. It is destructive because it can cause problems for humanity, such as damaging building materials like concrete.

b)

Water is only beneficial because it is used for recreation and has no destructive effects.

c)

Water is destructive because it is always harmful to humans and has no benefits.

d)

Water is beneficial only for generating electricity and not for any other purpose.

17.

What is the purpose of rebar in concrete structures, as shown in the photograph labeled 'Concrete Pour With Rebar Structure'?

a)

Rebar is used to provide strength to concrete structures.

b)

Rebar is used to insulate concrete from heat.

c)

Rebar is used to color the concrete.

d)

Rebar is used to waterproof the concrete.

18.

According to the graph 'How Freeze-Thaw Cycles Affect the Deformation of Concrete,' which type of concrete sample shows less deformation after many freeze-thaw cycles?

a)

Samples with rebar

b)

Samples without rebar

19.

The experiment described in the passage tested concrete samples only with rebar.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Freeze-thaw cycles affect the deformation of concrete in which of the following ways, based on the graph provided?

a)

They increase the deformation of concrete over time.

b)

They decrease the deformation of concrete over time.

c)

They have no effect on the deformation of concrete.

d)

They cause the concrete to become stronger with each cycle.

21.

What is the main difference between calthemite straws and stalactites?

a)

Calthemite straws form naturally in caves

b)

Calthemite straws are found on concrete structures

c)

Stalactites are found on parking garages

d)

Calthemite straws are considered stalactites

22.

Based on the map, in which direction does the water flow after passing through the generating stations at Niagara Falls?

a)

Towards Lake Ontario

b)

Towards Lake Erie

c)

Towards the reservoir

d)

Towards the USA/Canada border

23.

In which year was the position of the falls closest to the Rim of Niagara Gorge on the Canadian side?

a)

1964

b)

1950

c)

1972

d)

1985

24.

What is the scale of the map?

a)

200 m

b)

100 m

c)

500 m

d)

1 km

25.

Based on the passage in Part V, what does a large EROI value indicate about an electricity production method?

a)

It means producing energy from that source is relatively easy and cost-effective.

b)

It means the method is environmentally harmful.

c)

It means the method requires a lot of maintenance.

d)

It means the method is rarely used.

26.

According to Part V, is any source of electricity 100% efficient?

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Based on the passage in Part V, explain what the Energy Return on Investment (EROI) calculation compares.

a)

The EROI calculation compares the amount of money invested in electricity generation to the amount of electricity produced.

b)

The EROI calculation compares the amount of energy produced to the amount of carbon dioxide emitted.

c)

The EROI calculation compares the efficiency of different types of power plants.

d)

The EROI calculation compares the lifespan of energy infrastructure to its construction cost.

28.

How does the production of electricity by hydroelectric power plants at Niagara Falls, rather than by burning fossil fuels, affect Earth's atmosphere and change the climate?

a)

Hydroelectric power plants use a renewable resource that increases atmospheric oxygen levels, which negatively impacts global climate.

b)

Hydroelectric power plants use a renewable resource that decreases atmospheric carbon dioxide levels, which positively impacts global climate.

c)

Hydroelectric power plants use a renewable resource that increases water vapor in the atmosphere, which causes the local climate to be more humid.

d)

Hydroelectric power plants use a renewable resource that decreases water vapor in the atmosphere, which causes the local climate to be more arid.

29.

Describe a property of water that increases the deformation of concrete due to repeated freeze-thaw cycles. Also, describe the relative amount of deformation to concrete samples when metal rebar is added compared to samples without rebar.

a)

Property of water: Water expands when it freezes. Relative amount of deformation: Concrete with metal rebar has less deformation compared to samples without rebar.

b)

Property of water: Water contracts when it freezes. Relative amount of deformation: Concrete with metal rebar has more deformation compared to samples without rebar.

c)

Property of water: Water evaporates quickly at low temperatures. Relative amount of deformation: Concrete with metal rebar has the same deformation as samples without rebar.

d)

Property of water: Water becomes denser when it freezes. Relative amount of deformation: Concrete with metal rebar has significantly more deformation compared to samples without rebar.

30.

Which claim correctly summarizes the effect of water on the concrete in the parking structure producing the calthemite straws?

a)

Surface water evaporates minerals and transports them a short distance. The minerals then condense, forming calthemite straws.

b)

Surface water melts minerals and transports them a short distance. The minerals then freeze, forming calthemite straws.

c)

Surface water dissolves minerals and transports them a short distance. The minerals then precipitate, forming calthemite straws.

d)

Surface water absorbs minerals and transports them a short distance. The minerals then expand, forming calthemite straws.

31.

Analyze data from the two maps to make a claim about how the construction of the hydroelectric power plants and diversion tunnels caused the rate of erosion at Horseshoe Falls to decrease.

a)

The construction of hydroelectric power plants and diversion tunnels reduced the flow of water over Horseshoe Falls, which decreased the rate of erosion.

b)

The construction of hydroelectric power plants and diversion tunnels increased the flow of water over Horseshoe Falls, which increased the rate of erosion.

c)

The construction of hydroelectric power plants and diversion tunnels had no effect on the rate of erosion at Horseshoe Falls.

d)

The construction of hydroelectric power plants and diversion tunnels caused the rate of erosion at Horseshoe Falls to increase due to more water being diverted.

32.

Based on the graph, which statement accurately describes the Energy Return on Investment (EROI) for the energy sources?

a)

The greatest EROI for a renewable energy source is approximately five times greater than the greatest EROI for a nonrenewable energy source.

b)

The greatest EROI for a nonrenewable energy source is the same as the smallest EROI for a renewable energy source.

c)

The EROI for coal is the same as the EROI for wind.

d)

The EROI for each renewable energy source is half the EROI for each nonrenewable energy source.

33.

What type of star is Methuselah classified as?

a)

Dwarf star

b)

Giant star

c)

Neutron star

d)

White dwarf

34.

Scientists do not believe Methuselah is one of the ______ stars.

a)

first

b)

brightest

c)

youngest

d)

nearest

35.

The model represents the locations of the HST orbit and the Moon's orbit around Earth. What is the approximate distance of the HST's orbit from Earth?

a)

540 km

b)

363,100 km

c)

405,700 km

d)

1,000 km

36.

The Moon's orbital distance varies from approximately ______ km to ______ km.

a)

363,100 km to 405,700 km

b)

350,000 km to 400,000 km

c)

370,000 km to 410,000 km

d)

360,000 km to 420,000 km

37.

Which explanation about the cosmic microwave background radiation provides evidence for the Big Bang theory?

a)

Since the cosmic microwave background radiation was detected coming from all directions, it must be evidence for multiple explosions occurring at the same time 13.8 billion years ago.

b)

Mathematical calculations showed that if the universe began with a Big Bang, it would have released a huge amount of energy in all directions and would be detected as cosmic microwave background radiation.

c)

Cosmic microwave background radiation is produced by every star and galaxy in the universe, which were created at the same time as the Big Bang.

d)

The presence of cosmic microwave background radiation is evidence for the energy released from dying stars that exploded in a Big Bang and created our present day universe.

38.

The wavelengths of emitted radiation from the first stars have changed since the Big Bang. What does this change in wavelength indicate about how the universe has changed since the Big Bang?

a)

The wavelengths have increased due to the expansion of the universe, showing that the universe is expanding.

b)

The wavelengths have decreased, indicating the universe is contracting.

c)

The wavelengths have remained the same, showing the universe is static.

d)

The wavelengths have become shorter due to the cooling of the universe.

39.

Which statement correctly explains why the composition of Methuselah, a massive star, provides evidence that Methuselah is not one of the first stars formed during the Big Bang?

a)

Methuselah is composed of 100% helium, but the first stars were composed of 75% hydrogen and 25% iron.

b)

Methuselah is composed of hydrogen, helium, and some trace heavier elements, but the first stars contained a greater percentage of heavier elements.

c)

The first stars were composed of 100% hydrogen, but Methuselah is composed of 50% hydrogen and 50% helium

d)

The first stars were composed of 75% hydrogen and 25% helium, but Methuselah also contains metals of heavier elements in its core.

40.

Based on the Gravitational Field Model, describe the effects of Earth's gravitational field on the motion of HST and the Moon.

a)

less greater less

b)

greater less greater

c)

equal equal equal

d)

more less more

41.

Based on the model and Kepler's Laws, which graph correctly represents the relative orbital speeds of HST and the Moon as the two satellites orbit Earth twice?

a)

[Graph: HST constant, Moon variable]

b)

[Graph: HST constant, Moon constant]

c)

[Graph: Moon variable, HST constant]

d)

[Graph: Moon constant, HST constant]

42.

What is the air mass code for Continental Polar?

a)

cP

b)

mT

c)

cT

d)

mP

43.

What is the air mass code for Continental Tropical?

a)

cT

b)

mP

c)

cP

d)

mT

44.

What is the air mass code for Maritime Polar?

a)

mP

b)

cT

c)

mT

d)

cP

45.

What is the air mass code for Maritime Tropical?

a)

mT

b)

cP

c)

mP

d)

cT

46.

What is the air mass code for Maritime Equatorial?

a)

mE

b)

cP

c)

mT

d)

cT

47.

What is the air mass code for Continental Arctic?

a)

cA

b)

mT

c)

cP

d)

mP

48.

What is the air mass code for Continental Antarctic?

a)

cAA

b)

mT

c)

cT

d)

mP

49.

Utica, New York is located at approximately 43°N. In the model below, Utica is influenced by a cold, dry air mass (A) and a warm, moist air mass (B) that originated along the east coast of the United States. Which direction is the cold, dry air mass (A) moving?

a)

East

b)

West

c)

North

d)

South

50.

In the model below, which air mass (A or B) originated along the east coast of the United States?

a)

Air mass A

b)

Air mass B

51.

The Bermuda high pressure system forms in the 'horse latitude' region of the North Atlantic Ocean. Air circulation around the margins of the Bermuda high is known as ________ and can influence a hurricane's storm track.

a)

steering flow

b)

trade winds

c)

jet stream

d)

monsoon circulation

52.

Meteorologists analyze the position and strength of Bermuda high pressure systems to help make predictions about hurricane storm tracks and determinations about where hurricanes will make landfall.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which statement correctly identifies the air movement patterns associated with the planetary wind "horse latitudes"?

a)

Air at these latitudes is typically ascending in the atmosphere after converging at the surface.

b)

Air at these latitudes is typically ascending in the atmosphere after diverging at the surface.

c)

Air at these latitudes is typically descending in the atmosphere before converging at the surface.

d)

Air at these latitudes is typically descending in the atmosphere before diverging at the surface.

54.

Which winds drive the movement of a continental tropical air mass across Earth's surface away from the northern "horse latitudes" toward 60°N?

a)

Northeast trade winds move cT air masses from northeast to southwest.

b)

Prevailing westerly winds move cT air masses from northeast to southwest.

c)

Northeast trade winds move cT air masses from southwest to northeast.

d)

Prevailing westerly winds move cT air masses from southwest to northeast.

55.

Identify each air mass using its two-letter code. Also, place a checkmark in the box that indicates the resulting change in weather conditions in the next few hours that would most likely be experienced by an observer who resides in the house shown in the model.

a)

Code for Air Mass A: cP, Code for Air Mass B: cT, Weather Conditions: cloud cover - decreases, chance of precipitation - decreases, air temperature - increases.

b)

Code for Air Mass A: mT, Code for Air Mass B: cP, Weather Conditions: cloud cover - increases, chance of precipitation - increases, air temperature - decreases.

c)

Code for Air Mass A: cT, Code for Air Mass B: mP, Weather Conditions: cloud cover - increases, chance of precipitation - decreases, air temperature - decreases.

d)

Code for Air Mass A: mP, Code for Air Mass B: mT, Weather Conditions: cloud cover - decreases, chance of precipitation - increases, air temperature - increases.

56.

Which table correctly compares the characteristics of Hurricane 2 to Hurricane 1 and its associated Bermuda high?

a)

Steering Flow: farther south, then west; Storm Track: west, then north; Bermuda High: clockwise and strong

b)

Steering Flow: farther south, then west; Storm Track: east, then north; Bermuda High: clockwise and weak

c)

Steering Flow: farther north, then west; Storm Track: west, then north; Bermuda High: counterclockwise and strong

d)

Steering Flow: farther north, then west; Storm Track: east, then north; Bermuda High: counterclockwise and weak

57.

Compare the atmospheric pressure at 12 hours after landfall to the atmospheric pressure at 24 hours after landfall using the wind speed and landfall data shown in the graph to justify your response.

a)

The atmospheric pressure at 12 hours after landfall is lower than at 24 hours after landfall.

b)

The atmospheric pressure at 12 hours after landfall is higher than at 24 hours after landfall.

c)

The atmospheric pressure at 12 hours and 24 hours after landfall is the same.

d)

Atmospheric pressure cannot be determined from the wind speed and landfall data.

58.

Refer to the graph showing Deuterium-Hydrogen Ratio in Solar System Objects. Which object has a Deuterium-Hydrogen ratio closest to that found in Earth's oceans?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Comet Halley

c)

Asteroids (asteroid belt)

d)

Enceladus (moon)

59.

Based on the Early Earth Volcanic Outgassing Model, which gases escaped into the atmosphere?

a)

Hydrogen and Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

c)

Water and Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide

60.

In the Present Day Volcanic Outgassing Model, what process is shown to occur in plants?

a)

Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Erosion

d)

Volcanism

61.

The water in Earth's early oceans provided the necessary environment for life about ______ billion years ago.

a)

3 to 3.5

b)

0.5 to 1

c)

5 to 6

d)

10 to 12

62.

The role of stromatolites in Earth's early oceans according to Part III was:

a)

to produce oxygen through photosynthesis

b)

to form the first land masses

c)

to cause mass extinctions

d)

to create volcanic islands

63.

What are stromatolites?

a)

Fossilized trees

b)

Ancient bacteria colonies

c)

Volcanic rocks

d)

Oceanic algae

64.

Refer to the 'Model of Changes in Atmospheric Gases' diagram. As life on Earth evolved, which atmospheric gas increased significantly?

a)

Atmospheric carbon dioxide

b)

Atmospheric oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Methane

65.

According to the diagram, the relative amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide _______ over billions of years as atmospheric oxygen increased.

a)

decreased

b)

increased

c)

remained the same

d)

fluctuated randomly

66.

Fresh water is especially important for humans because:

a)

it is essential for drinking and survival.

b)

it is only used for industrial purposes.

c)

it is not needed for agriculture.

d)

it is mainly found in oceans.

67.

Based on the graph titled 'Relationship Between Runoff, Soil Erosion, and Plant Cover,' what happens to runoff as plant cover increases?

a)

Runoff increases

b)

Runoff decreases

c)

Runoff stays the same

d)

Runoff fluctuates randomly

68.

According to the graph, at approximately what percentage of plant cover does soil erosion drop below 20 grams/m² per hour?

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

70%

69.

The Long Island aquifer supplies _______ million gallons of water per day to over 2.8 million people.

a)

400

b)

100

c)

700

d)

250

70.

What is an aquifer?

a)

A large, underground store of water.

b)

A type of cloud formation.

c)

A mountain range.

d)

A type of desert plant.

71.

Name the three aquifers that make up the larger Long Island aquifer region.

a)

Upper Glacial, Magothy, and Lloyd

b)

Ogallala, Floridan, and Edwards

c)

Mahomet, Sparta, and Carrizo

d)

Snake River, Central Valley, and Kirkwood-Cohansey

72.

A student makes a claim that the water on our planet is most similar to the water found on comets based on its D/H ratio, so comets must be a major source of water on early Earth. Which statement, based on evidence from the graph, would refute this claim?

a)

The source of Earth's water is the four largest planets in our solar system because these planets have water with higher D/H ratios than Earth's oceans.

b)

The water on all the comets has the same D/H ratios except Halley, so Halley is not a source of water for Earth's early oceans

c)

Many asteroids have water that is very close in D/H ratios to Earth's oceans, so asteroids could be a source of water on early Earth.

d)

Water on Enceladus has a similar D/H ratio to comets, so Enceladus could also be a source of water for Earth.

73.

Which statement is correctly supported by evidence from the two models showing volcanic outgassing?

a)

All gases emitted from early Earth volcanoes escaped to outer space.

b)

The outgassing of water from Earth's interior contributed to the development of Earth's early oceans.

c)

Earth's early atmosphere contained significant amounts of hydrogen and helium as a result of volcanic outgassing.

d)

Present-day volcanoes directly release oxygen that is used by marine and land plants, which in turn release carbon dioxide.

74.

Construct an argument, based on evidence in the model, about how stromatolites in Earth's oceans caused Earth's early atmosphere to evolve.

a)

Stromatolites released oxygen through photosynthesis, which increased atmospheric oxygen levels and changed Earth's early atmosphere.

b)

Stromatolites absorbed oxygen from the atmosphere, causing a decrease in atmospheric oxygen.

c)

Stromatolites produced methane, which led to a thicker atmosphere and global warming.

d)

Stromatolites had no impact on Earth's early atmosphere.

75.

A groundwater investigation is planned for water Well B and Well C from the cross section. A scientist believes that Well B will supply water at a faster rate than Well C. Which statement most likely explains why the scientist is correct?

a)

The sediments at the base of Well B are less porous with a higher permeability than Well C.

b)

The sediments at the base of Well B are more porous with a higher permeability than Well C.

c)

The sediments at the base of Well C are more porous with a lower permeability than Well B.

d)

The sediments at the base of Well C are less porous with a higher permeability than Well B.

76.

A prolonged period of drought would cause the depth of the water table to: This change would affect residents supplied by water from Well A more than those from Well B because:

a)

increase; Well A is shallower and more likely to run dry

b)

remain unchanged; Well A is deeper and less affected

c)

decrease; Well B is closer to the surface

d)

fluctuate randomly; Well B is unaffected by drought