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Cardiovascular Disorders and Circulatory System Quiz

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is considered a pathologic change affecting cardiac function?

a)

Valvular disorders

b)

Pathologic changes affecting cardiac function

c)

Coronary artery disease (CAD)

d)

Cardiogenic shock

2.

What type of blood flow is associated with the right side of the heart?

a)

Oxygenated flow

b)

Deoxygenated flow

c)

Mixed flow

d)

Arterial flow

3.

Which valve does blood pass through after leaving the right atrium?

a)

Mitral valve

b)

Aortic valve

c)

Tricuspid valve

d)

Pulmonic valve

4.

What is the correct order of blood flow starting from the right atrium?

a)

Right atrium → tricuspid valve → right ventricle → pulmonic valve → pulmonary artery

b)

Right atrium → mitral valve → left ventricle → aortic valve → aorta

c)

Right atrium → aortic valve → left ventricle → pulmonary artery

d)

Right atrium → pulmonary veins → left atrium → tricuspid valve

5.

Which side of the heart is considered the arterial side?

a)

Right side

b)

Left side

c)

Both sides

d)

Neither side

6.

Where does gas exchange with alveoli occur in the circulatory system?

a)

Pulmonary arterioles

b)

Pulmonary capillaries

c)

Pulmonary veins

d)

Aorta

7.

What is the function of the coronary arteries in the circulatory system?

a)

Carry blood to the lungs

b)

Feed the heart muscle with oxygenated blood

c)

Remove waste from tissues

d)

Transport deoxygenated blood to the right atrium

8.

Which of the following statements best describes "forward flow" in the circulatory system?

a)

Blood moving from veins to arteries

b)

Blood moving from arteries to veins

c)

Blood moving in the normal direction through the heart and vessels

d)

Blood moving backward due to pathology

9.

If a pathology causes a "back-up" of flow in the circulatory system, what is most likely affected?

a)

Forward flow of blood

b)

Oxygenation of blood in the lungs

c)

The structure of the heart valves

d)

The color of the blood

10.

Which vessel returns deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atrium?

a)

Pulmonary vein

b)

Inferior vena cava

c)

Aorta

d)

Carotid artery

11.

Which of the following best describes the function of veins in the circulatory system?

a)

Veins carry deoxygenated blood towards the heart.

b)

Veins carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.

c)

Veins carry oxygenated blood towards the heart.

d)

Veins carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart.

12.

What does the term "right heart" refer to in medical vernacular?

a)

Right atrium and right ventricle, including their valves.

b)

Left atrium and left ventricle, including their valves.

c)

Only the right atrium.

d)

Only the right ventricle.

13.

Which chambers of the heart are considered the "receiving" chambers?

a)

Atria (right atrium and left atrium)

b)

Ventricles (right ventricle and left ventricle)

c)

Only the left ventricle

d)

Only the right ventricle

14.

According to the diagram and text, which vessels carry oxygenated blood away from the heart?

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

d)

Venules

15.

Why is the pulmonary artery considered an exception to the general rule about arteries and veins?

a)

It carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart.

b)

It carries oxygenated blood towards the heart.

c)

It carries oxygenated blood away from the heart.

d)

It carries deoxygenated blood towards the heart.

16.

If a patient has a blockage in the pulmonary artery, which part of the heart is directly affected in its ability to send blood to the lungs?

a)

Right ventricle

b)

Left ventricle

c)

Right atrium

d)

Left atrium

17.

When describing the flow of blood through the heart, which sequence correctly represents the path of deoxygenated blood?

a)

Right atrium → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery → Lungs

b)

Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta → Body

c)

Right ventricle → Right atrium → Pulmonary vein → Lungs

d)

Left ventricle → Right atrium → Pulmonary artery → Lungs

18.

Explain why the left ventricle is considered the "receiving" chamber for blood from the left atrium, and how this relates to systemic circulation.

a)

The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it into the systemic arterial system to supply the body.

b)

The left ventricle receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs.

c)

The left ventricle receives blood from the pulmonary artery and sends it to the right atrium.

d)

The left ventricle receives blood from the body and sends it to the lungs.

19.

A patient has a defect in the tricuspid valve. Predict how this might affect the flow of blood through the heart and the oxygenation status of blood entering the lungs.

a)

Blood may backflow into the right atrium, reducing the amount of deoxygenated blood reaching the lungs for oxygenation.

b)

Blood may backflow into the left atrium, increasing oxygenation in the lungs.

c)

Blood may bypass the lungs entirely, leading to increased oxygenation in the right ventricle.

d)

Blood may flow directly from the left ventricle to the pulmonary artery, increasing oxygenation.

20.

Which term is most often used to refer to the heart and its vessels, especially when describing disease processes?

a)

Cardiovascular

b)

Peripheral vascular

c)

Circulatory system

d)

Central

21.

What does the term "peripheral vascular" most commonly refer to?

a)

Vessels outside the heart

b)

The heart and lungs

c)

The brain and kidneys

d)

All blood vessels together

22.

The "circulatory system" is often used to describe which of the following?

a)

Both cardiovascular and peripheral vascular systems together

b)

Only the heart

c)

Only the lungs

d)

Only the vessels of the arms and legs

23.

Which of the following is usually referred to as "central" in medical terminology?

a)

Heart, lungs, brain, kidneys

b)

Arms and legs

c)

Peripheral vessels

d)

Skin and muscles

24.

What is the main goal of the electrical and mechanical functions of the heart?

a)

To create cardiac output

b)

To increase blood pressure

c)

To decrease heart rate

d)

To regulate body temperature

25.

What is the normal range for cardiac output in adults?

a)

4-6 L/min

b)

1-2 L/min

c)

10-12 L/min

d)

0.5-1 L/min

26.

Which formula is used to determine cardiac output?

a)

HR x SV

b)

BP x HR

c)

SV x BP

d)

HR + SV

27.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects stroke volume (SV)?

a)

Afterload

b)

Preload

c)

Contractility

d)

Blood glucose

28.

How can the electrical pathway that controls heart contractions be captured?

a)

By an electrocardiogram (EKG, AKA ECG)

b)

By a blood pressure cuff

c)

By a stethoscope

d)

By a thermometer

29.

If cardiac output is calculated as HR x SV, which of the following could cause cardiac output to deteriorate?

a)

Changes in heart rate and/or stroke volume

b)

Increase in body temperature

c)

Decrease in blood glucose

d)

Increase in respiratory rate

30.

Which part of the heart's electrical activity does the P wave represent on an ECG?

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Ventricular depolarization

c)

Ventricular repolarization

d)

Time interval between end of ventricular depolarization and repolarization

31.

What is the normal range for heart rate in beats per minute?

a)

60-100 beats per minute

b)

40-60 beats per minute

c)

100-120 beats per minute

d)

30-50 beats per minute

32.

What does the term "normal sinus rhythm" (NSR) refer to?

a)

A consistent, regular pattern of PQRST with a normal rate and rhythm

b)

An irregular heart rhythm with abnormal rate

c)

A heart rate below 40 beats per minute

d)

A heart rate above 120 beats per minute

33.

Which event marks the beginning of systole in the heart cycle?

a)

Electrical signal generated by the SA node

b)

Closure of the AV valves

c)

Opening of the pulmonary artery

d)

Filling of the ventricles

34.

During systole, what happens in the heart?

a)

The right and left ventricles contract and eject blood into the pulmonary artery and aorta

b)

The atria fill with blood from the body

c)

The ventricles relax and fill with blood

d)

The heart rate decreases significantly

35.

What is the average stroke volume (SV) per contraction in a healthy adult?

a)

~70 ml/beat

b)

~120 ml/beat

c)

~40 ml/beat

d)

~100 ml/beat

36.

Which of the following best describes diastole in the heart cycle?

a)

The part of the heart cycle in which the right and left ventricles are receiving blood from the right and left atria

b)

The part of the heart cycle in which the ventricles contract and eject blood

c)

The closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves

d)

The electrical depolarization of the atria

37.

Why is it important not to confuse the term "stroke" in "stroke volume" with the term used to describe a brain problem?

a)

Because "stroke" in "stroke volume" refers to the amount of blood ejected per contraction, not a brain event

b)

Because both terms mean the same thing

c)

Because "stroke" in "stroke volume" refers to a heart attack

d)

Because "stroke" in "stroke volume" refers to the electrical activity of the heart

38.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main factors that determine the heart's ability to eject blood per beat (stroke volume)?

a)

Preload

b)

Contractility

c)

Afterload

d)

Heart rate

39.

According to the Frank-Starling law, what does the term "preload" refer to?

a)

The resistance to forward flow of blood

b)

The amount of blood in the ventricles before contraction

c)

The ability of the heart muscle to contract

d)

The electrical activity of the heart

40.

Which statement best describes contractility of the heart?

a)

The resistance to blood flow in the arteries

b)

The stretch of the heart muscle before contraction

c)

The efficiency and strength with which cardiac cells contract to eject blood

d)

The amount of blood returning to the heart

41.

What is a "positive inotropic effect"?

a)

Something that decreases contractility of the heart

b)

Something that enhances contractility of the heart

c)

Something that increases afterload

d)

Something that reduces preload

42.

Which of the following best defines afterload?

a)

The amount of blood in the ventricles before contraction

b)

The ability of the heart muscle to contract

c)

Any form of resistance to ejection of blood from a heart chamber

d)

The electrical conduction through the heart

43.

A normal afterload exists when the receiving arteries have which of the following characteristics?

a)

Dilated and constricted muscle tone

b)

Flexible, compliant, and not too constricted muscle tone

c)

Rigid and non-compliant muscle tone

d)

Narrow and rough linings

44.

What is the term for the normal status of the pulmonary artery and its branches throughout the lungs?

a)

Systemic vascular resistance

b)

Pulmonary vascular resistance

c)

Cardiac output

d)

Preload

45.

If a patient has a negative inotropic effect, what does this mean for their heart's contractility?

a)

It is enhanced

b)

It is decreased

c)

It is unchanged

d)

It is increased

46.

How does the Frank-Starling law explain the relationship between preload and the strength of heart contraction?

a)

The less the heart muscle is stretched, the stronger it contracts

b)

The more the heart muscle is stretched (up to a point), the better it will contract

c)

The heart muscle contracts the same regardless of stretch

d)

Stretching the heart muscle always weakens contraction

47.

A patient has abnormally high resistance in their pulmonary arteries. Which factor affecting stroke volume is most directly impacted, and what is the likely consequence for the right ventricle?

a)

Preload; increased filling of the right ventricle

b)

Contractility; stronger right ventricular contractions

c)

Afterload; increased workload for the right ventricle

d)

Preload; decreased blood return to the right ventricle

48.

Which of the following best describes the normal LV afterload?

a)

The normal status of aorta and rest of systemic arterial system

b)

The amount of blood in the right atrium

c)

The oxygen content in pulmonary veins

d)

The pressure in the capillary beds

49.

What is the term used to describe the resistance in the systemic arterial system?

a)

Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

b)

Pulmonary vascular resistance

c)

Venous return

d)

Cardiac output

50.

Which of the following correctly represents the peripheral flow of blood in the legs?

a)

Aorta → major arteries in legs → arterioles → capillary beds → venules → veins of feet and legs → inferior vena cava

b)

Inferior vena cava → veins of feet and legs → venules → capillary beds → arterioles → major arteries in legs → aorta

c)

Pulmonary artery → capillary beds → veins of feet and legs → aorta

d)

Aorta → pulmonary veins → capillary beds → inferior vena cava

51.

What is the main function of veins in the circulatory system?

a)

To take deoxygenated blood from tissue beds back to the right side of the heart

b)

To deliver oxygenated blood to tissues

c)

To filter waste products from the blood

d)

To regulate blood pressure in arteries

52.

The flow of blood back to the heart through veins is often called:

a)

Venous return

b)

Arterial flow

c)

Capillary exchange

d)

Systemic resistance

53.

Which of the following conditions would most likely facilitate good venous return in the legs?

a)

Proper-functioning valves in leg veins

b)

High arterial pressure in the arms

c)

Blockage in the pulmonary artery

d)

Increased capillary permeability

54.

Which of the following is the main function of well-toned, working muscle tissue around the veins?

a)

To increase blood pressure in arteries

b)

To massage the veins and help direct flow towards the heart

c)

To prevent oxygen exchange in tissues

d)

To thicken the vein walls

55.

Most venous disorders occur in which part of the body?

a)

Arms

b)

Legs

c)

Abdomen

d)

Head

56.

What is venous congestion?

a)

The accumulation of arterial blood in the lungs

b)

The tendency of venous blood to stay and settle in the veins of the leg and foot tissues

c)

The rapid movement of blood through the veins

d)

The blockage of lymphatic vessels

57.

Which factor does NOT contribute to venous congestion?

a)

Gravity "winning"

b)

Valve incompetence

c)

Increased hydrostatic pressure

d)

Decreased oxygen in the blood

58.

What is the result of leg vein valves wearing out and becoming "floppy" in chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)?

a)

Increased arterial flow to the legs

b)

Backflow into distal veins of legs and feet

c)

Decreased blood volume in the veins

d)

Complete blockage of the veins

59.

Which of the following best describes venous stasis?

a)

Rapid movement of blood in the arteries

b)

Pool of non-moving blood in the veins

c)

Increased oxygen delivery to tissues

d)

Decreased hydrostatic pressure in veins

60.

Why are varicose veins usually not considered a health hazard?

a)

They always cause severe pain

b)

They are only found in the arms

c)

They are not usually associated with severe pathology

d)

They prevent all blood flow to the legs

61.

A patient presents with twisted and distorted surface veins in the legs that are cosmetically distressing but not painful. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Arterial insufficiency

b)

Varicose veins

c)

Deep vein thrombosis

d)

Lymphatic obstruction

62.

How does gravity contribute to venous congestion in the legs?

a)

By increasing arterial pressure

b)

By pulling fluid downward into distal leg tissues when standing too long

c)

By causing muscle contraction

d)

By increasing oxygen in the blood

63.

A patient with chronic venous insufficiency has increased hydrostatic pressure in the veins. Explain the sequence of events that leads to this condition.

a)

Arterial valves become floppy, causing blood to pool in the arteries, leading to increased pressure.

b)

Leg vein valves wear out, allowing backflow into distal veins, resulting in venous stasis and increased hydrostatic pressure.

c)

Muscle tissue around the veins becomes stronger, pushing more blood to the heart and increasing pressure.

d)

Lymphatic drainage increases, causing more blood to enter the veins and raise pressure.

64.

Which of the following is a main sign or symptom of chronic venous insufficiency (CVI) caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the legs?

a)

Edema in the affected area

b)

Sudden chest pain

c)

Severe headache

d)

Blurred vision

65.

What is a possible consequence when an area becomes so engorged with edema that the skin cells cannot function properly?

a)

Venous stasis ulcers

b)

Migraine headaches

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Asthma attacks

66.

Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to the development of chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)?

a)

Inherited predisposition

b)

Obesity

c)

High calcium intake

d)

Job-related issues involving prolonged standing

67.

Which of the following best describes a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

A clot that develops on the wall of a deep vein, usually in the thighs or calves

b)

A bacterial infection of the skin

c)

A blockage in the coronary arteries

d)

A tear in the muscle tissue

68.

What is the term for inflammation and swelling of a vein due to a blood clot?

a)

Thrombophlebitis

b)

Myocarditis

c)

Nephritis

d)

Bronchitis

69.

Which of the following is NOT a typical sign or symptom of DVT?

a)

Local redness, pain, warmth, edema

b)

Usually seen unilaterally (in one leg)

c)

Sudden loss of consciousness

d)

May have no signs or symptoms at all

70.

According to Virchow’s triad, which of the following is NOT one of the classic elements that increase the risk for DVT?

a)

Injury to endothelium of vein

b)

Stasis of blood flow

c)

Hypercoagulability states

d)

Increased oxygen saturation

71.

Which of the following can contribute to stasis of blood flow, increasing the risk for DVT?

a)

Inactivity of the muscles surrounding the veins

b)

Increased dietary fiber

c)

Frequent exercise

d)

High vitamin C intake

72.

A patient presents with local redness, pain, warmth, and edema in one leg. What condition should you suspect?

a)

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

b)

Asthma

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Appendicitis

73.

A patient with a history of prolonged immobility develops swelling, redness, and pain in one leg. Using your knowledge of Virchow’s triad, explain which elements are likely contributing to this patient’s condition and why.

a)

Stasis of blood flow due to immobility and possible injury to the endothelium of the vein

b)

Increased dietary salt and high blood pressure

c)

Dehydration and low potassium levels

d)

Allergic reaction and high cholesterol

74.

Which of the following is a common cause of hypercoagulability?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Hypotension

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hypothermia

75.

Which of the following best describes a coagulopathy?

a)

A tendency to clot more easily

b)

A tendency to bleed excessively

c)

A tendency to develop infections

d)

A tendency to have high blood pressure

76.

According to Virchow’s triad, which of the following situations increases the risk of developing a DVT?

a)

Sitting for long periods

b)

Eating a high-fat diet

c)

Exercising regularly

d)

Drinking plenty of water

77.

Which medication can increase the risk of clotting due to dehydration?

a)

Diuretics

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antacids

d)

Beta-blockers

78.

Which of the following is a possible dangerous sequela of DVT?

a)

Pulmonary embolus (PE)

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Stroke

d)

Deep vein insufficiency

79.

What is the usual path of a venous embolus originating from a DVT in the leg?

a)

Leg → IVC → RA → RV → PA

b)

Leg → SVC → LA → LV → Aorta

c)

Leg → Portal vein → Liver → Hepatic vein

d)

Leg → Femoral artery → Aorta → Brain

80.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a pulmonary embolus?

a)

Chest pain

b)

Shortness of breath (SOB)

c)

Hemoptysis (blood in sputum)

d)

Bradycardia

81.

Why is it important to encourage mobility in patients at risk for venous problems?

a)

It increases venous return and prevents DVT

b)

It lowers blood sugar levels

c)

It reduces the risk of infection

d)

It increases bone density

82.

Which of the following is a nursing implication for preventing venous problems in immobile patients?

a)

Encourage hydration

b)

Restrict fluid intake

c)

Apply heat packs to legs

d)

Limit leg elevation

83.

A patient with swelling and edema in the legs is at increased risk for which of the following?

a)

Skin integrity compromise

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hyperthermia

84.

Which of the following best describes the primary function of arteries?

a)

To accept oxygenated blood from the heart and circulate it to tissue beds all over the body.

b)

To return deoxygenated blood to the heart.

c)

To filter waste products from the blood.

d)

To produce red blood cells.

85.

What is meant by the "muscle tone of arterial wall" (vasomotor tone)?

a)

The ability of arterial walls to constrict and dilate in response to various influences and needs of the body.

b)

The thickness of the arterial wall.

c)

The amount of blood flowing through the artery.

d)

The presence of valves in the artery.

86.

Which of the following is a characteristic of arteries with good muscle tone?

a)

They are flexible, compliant, not too constricted, and not too dilated.

b)

They are always constricted.

c)

They are always dilated.

d)

They have no muscle fibers.

87.

What does a "patent" (open) lumen in an artery indicate?

a)

The artery has a smooth, healthy lining with no blockage, allowing smooth, uninterrupted blood flow.

b)

The artery is blocked by a clot.

c)

The artery is constricted and blood flow is reduced.

d)

The artery is dilated and blood flow is excessive.

88.

Which two components are most important for good perfusion of distal tissues?

a)

Good vasomotor tone and patent lumen.

b)

High blood sugar and low cholesterol.

c)

Thick arterial walls and high blood pressure.

d)

Large veins and strong heart valves.

89.

What is perfusion in the context of the arterial system?

a)

The process of delivery of oxygen and nutrients via arterial system to tissue beds all over the body.

b)

The removal of waste products from tissues.

c)

The contraction of the heart muscle.

d)

The exchange of gases in the lungs.

90.

Which of the following is considered a desired blood pressure (BP) range for good perfusion?

a)

110/60 to 115/70 mmHg

b)

90/40 to 100/50 mmHg

c)

130/90 to 140/95 mmHg

d)

150/100 to 160/110 mmHg

91.

What does "systolic pressure" refer to in blood pressure measurement?

a)

The pressure in the arteries when the heart is contracting and ejecting blood out to the arteries.

b)

The pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest.

c)

The pressure in the veins during relaxation.

d)

The pressure in the capillaries during gas exchange.

92.

Which statement best explains "diastolic pressure"?

a)

It is the pressure in the arteries when the heart is resting between beats and filling with blood.

b)

It is the pressure in the arteries during heart contraction.

c)

It is the pressure in the veins during exercise.

d)

It is the pressure in the lungs during inhalation.

93.

A patient has a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. According to the material, how is this classified?

a)

Normal

b)

Low

c)

High

d)

Critical

94.

What happens in the capillaries surrounding the alveoli?

a)

Blood gets pumped back to the heart

b)

Blood is filtered to remove waste

c)

Oxygen is exchanged for carbon dioxide

d)

Nutrients are absorbed into the blood

95.

Match the following cardiovascular terms with the correct definition.

a)

Irregular heartbeat in which the heart twitches in an uncoordinated way

1.

Fibrillation

b)

Disease in which fat-like substances are deposited inside artery walls

2.

Atherosclerosis

c)

Blood-filled weak spot ballooning out from the artery wall

3.

Aneurysm

d)

Recording of the heart's electrical activity

4.

Electrocardiogram

e)

Happens when a part of the heart muscle lacks blood supply

5.

Myocardial Infection

96.

Match the vocabulary terms with the definition. Not all terms will be used.

a)

When blood leaves this chambers of the heart, it heads to the lungs.

1.

Right Ventricle

b)

Stops blood from flowing back into the ventricles each time they contract.

2.

Semilunar (SL) Valves

c)

Responsible for distributing electrical impulses throughout the heart,

3.

Atrioventricular (AV) Node

d)

This blood vessels splits into two and sends oxygen poor blood to the lungs

4.

Right Atrium

e)

The chamber in the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.

5.

Left Atrium

97.

Blood traveling in the pulmonary circuit goes through the​ ​ (a)   ​ side of the heart and out to the​ (b)   ​ ​ .  Blood traveling in the systemic circuit goes through the ​​ (c)               side of the heart and out to the​ ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
right
lungs
left
body
98.

Match the following cardiovascular terms with the correct definition.

a)

Procedure is done to open up clogged arteries

1.

Balloon angioplasty

b)

A disorder of the valves of the heart

2.

Heart murmur

c)

A condition where the arteries harden and lose their elasticity

3.

Arteriosclerosis

d)

A clot of platelets, proteins, and blood cells forms at the site of blood vessel damage

4.


Thrombosis

e)

A piece of a thrombus breaks free and travels through the bloodstream

5.

Embolism